MSK Quiz and BOFs Flashcards
From Calcium Homeostasis lecture
Ans: a
From Calcium Homeostasis lecture
Ans: d
From Calcium Homeostasis lecture
Ans: e
Which of the labelled structures:
- Provides for greater contact between the two irregular joint surfaces on the medial side of the joint?
- Resists valgus forces?
- Prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the femur?
- Prevents anterior translation of the tibia?
- Articulates with the Talus through the lateral malleolus?
The correct answer is:
- Provides for greater contact between the two irregular joint surfaces on the medial side of the joint? → E,
- Resists valgus forces? → D,
- Prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the femur? → F,
- Prevents anterior translation of the tibia? → B,
- Articulates with the Talus through the lateral malleolus? → H
Which scenario from the list below most likely to have caused this fracture?
Select one:
a. 11 year old boy fell off the bike on the outstretched hand
b. 11 year old girl fell on a twisted forearm
c. 17 year old girl tried to block a punch with the forearm at karate training
d. 21 year old man tried to block a punch with the forearm at karate training
e. 30 year old woman slipped on the wet floor and fell on the outstretched hand
Radial epiphyseal plates can be seen on the X-ray, suggesting that this patient is a child (see arrows below). Epiphyseal plates will be fused by 14-15 years of age in females and 17-20 years of age in males. Two most common mechanisms for the “greenstick fracture” are bending injury (for example, fall on the outstretched arm) or direct perpendicular blow. It is less likely to be a twisting injury, which will most commonly produce a spiral fracture.
The correct answer is: 11 year old boy fell off the bike on the outstretched hand
Which nerve innervates the muscles identified by the arrows?
Select one:
- Common fibular nerve
- Femoral nerve
- Obturator nerve
- Pudendal nerve
- Sciatic nerve
The correct answer is: Femoral nerve
Which skeletal structure is indicated by the arrow?
Select one:
- Cancellous bone
- Cortical bone
- Diaphysis
- Epiphyseal plate
- Periosteum
The correct answer is: Cancellous bone
Which movement is produced by the muscle identified by the red dots?
Select one:
- Dorsi flexion of the ankle
- Dorsi flexion of the digits
- Plantar extension of the foot
- Plantar extension of the digits
- Plantar flexion of the ankle
The correct answer is: Dorsi flexion of the ankle
A soldier on combat duty suffers an injured foot as a result of a land mine explosion through the floor of his vehicle.
Which of the following bones exhibits the fracture?
Select one:
- Calcaneous
- Cuboid
- Navicular
- Talus
- Tibia
The correct answer is: Calcaneous
The correct answer is: a) A 30-year-old man comes to you complaining of an insidious onset of low back pain which is worse in the morning. There is no history of trauma. He has a diffuse low back and sacroiliac tenderness and restricted motion of the hips. He has an elevated ESR and there is a mild anaemia present. → Ankylosing Spondylitis,
b) A 15-year-old boy complained of a two-year history of right hip pain. The pain usually occurred in the morning, was aggravated by movement and relieved by rest. It had progressively become more severe over the years. Physical examination showed tenderness and swelling of the hip joint. He was treated with antibiotics, but his symptoms persisted. An X-ray showed loss of lumbar lordosis and blood tests found B27 was positive. → Juvenile idiopathic arthritis,
c) A 41-year-old office worker presents with persistent pain and swelling in the hands, feet and wrist. The joints are very stiff in the morning for up to an hour. Two months previously she had a severe bout of pain in her right shoulder. → Rheumatoid arthritis
The correct answer is: a) A 4-year-old boy was brought to his family doctor with a fever. He seemed generally unwell and had to be carried onto the examination bed. An abdominal exam revealed a barely palpable and enlarged liver below the costal region. The child had sustained a foot puncture injury 3 weeks ago that may explain his reluctance to walk. He displayed guarding and agitation when the femoral pulses were examined. He claims that it hurts when you touch his left femoral area, although the area is not particularly swollen. → Osteomyelitis,
b) A 6-year-old boy was brought to the Emergency Department for left calf pain with swelling. He was playing on the playground before the swelling and left calf pain began. The boy was unable to walk. On examination, the boy was crying and restless, and complained of severe pain. The left calf looked pale, and there was loss of sensation at the dorsal surface of the foot. A dorsalis pedis pulse was palpable bilaterally. → Compartment syndrome,
c) A 10-year-old girl with a recent history of upper respiratory infection and sore throat, which she had recovered from one-week ago. She presented with an acute onset of left knee pain and fever. One day later, she suffered from bilateral ankle and wrist pain. On examination, a few firm and painless nodules were found in the olecranon area. → Rheumatic fever, → Bone cyst
The correct answer is: a) He presents with a winged scapula. You suspect a lesion of which peripheral nerve? → Long thoracic nerve,
b) He presents with wrist drop. You suspect a lesion of which peripheral nerve? → Radial nerve,
A 19-year-old man has been in a motor vehicle accident and suffered lacerations. For each of the descriptions below select the most appropriate nerve.
c) He presents with an inability to raise onto his toes against his bodyweight. You suspect a lesion of which peripheral nerve? → Tibial nerve
The correct answer is: 1. A muscle that supinates the forearm → Biceps Brachii,
- A muscle that act over the distal interphalangeal joint → Flexor digitorium profundus,
- A muscle that abducts the glenohumeral joint → Supraspinatus,
Choose a muscle from the list provided that best fits each of the descriptions below:
- A muscle that produced ulna deviation → Flexor carpi ulnaris
For each patient with painful joints, select the most likely diagnosis. Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.
Patient 1. This 54 year old woman also has systemic sclerosis, which is commonly associated with this problem. This condition occurs in 10 percent of the population with a 4:1 female-male ratio.
- Reiter’s Disease
- Behcet’s Disease
- Gout
- Rheumatoid Arthritis
- Sjogren’s Syndrome
- Generalised Osteoarthritis
- Raynaud’s Phenomena
- Systemic Lupus Erythemetosis
- Polymyositis
- Psoriatic Arthritis
- Ankylosing Spondylitis
- Dermatomyositis
The correct answer is: Patient 1. This 54 year old woman also has systemic sclerosis, which is commonly associated with this problem. This condition occurs in 10 percent of the population with a 4:1 female-male ratio. → Raynaud’s phenomenon,
For each patient with painful joints, select the most likely diagnosis. Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.
Patient 2. This 47 year old woman presented with an acute rash over her face and hands. It came on after a beach holiday in Queensland. X-rays of her hands do not show any bone erosions. She has a history of previous miscarriages, and her urine shows some proteinuria.
- Reiter’s Disease
- Behcet’s Disease
- Gout
- Rheumatoid Arthritis
- Sjogren’s Syndrome
- Generalised Osteoarthritis
- Raynaud’s Phenomena
- Systemic Lupus Erythemetosis
- Polymyositis
- Psoriatic Arthritis
- Ankylosing Spondylitis
- Dermatomyositis
Patient 2. This 47 year old woman presented with an acute rash over her face and hands. It came on after a beach holiday in Queensland. X-rays of her hands do not show any bone erosions. She has a history of previous miscarriages, and her urine shows some proteinuria. → Systemic lupus erythematosus
The patient has osteoarthritis, and eburnation is common in this condition. Crystals would suggest gout or pyrophosphate arthropathy, caseating granulomas are found in tuberculosis, granulation tissue pannus is a feature of rheumatoid arthritis, and pus is the result of septic arthritis. These conditions would be likely to cause a raised ESR and CRP because of the more marked inflammation compared with osteoarthritis. Gout and pyrophosphate arthropathy could have ESR and CRP in the normal range, but the crepitus is a definite pointer to osteoarthritis. Furthermore, tuberculous arthritis is relatively rare.
The correct answer is: Eburnation
The correct answer is: Clinically significant subluxation of the small joints of the fingers.
The correct answer is: Immune complex mediated tissue damage of the affected joint
The correct answer is: The arthritis usually precedes the onset of the skin disease
The correct answer is: Psoriatic arthritis
The correct answer is: Inhibits cyclooxygenase enzymes
The correct answer is: Root, trunk, division, cord, branch
The correct answer is: Fifth digit of the hand
The correct answer is: The triceps jerk
The correct answer is: Umbilicus
The correct answer is: Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
The correct answer is: Suppression of inflammation and immunity
The correct answer is: Conduct electrical depolarization deep into a muscle fiber
The correct answer is: Both electromechanical and calcium-induced calcium release mechanisms provoke the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release Ca2+
The correct answer is: Motor neurons
The correct answer is: It inhibits both cyclo-oxygenase -1 and -2 enzymes
The correct answer is: Cauda equina
The correct answer is: Intervertebral foramen
The structure shown is the motor end plate. This is the terminal of the Aa fibres somatic motor fibres that release acetylcholine onto the nicotinic receptors located on the post-synaptic skeletal muscle fibres.
The correct answer is: Acetylcholine
Conduction velocity is proportional to nerve axon diameter and degree of myelination. Aα fibres have the largest diameter and most myelination and therefore the fastest conduction velocity. In contrast the C fibres have the smallest diameter and are unmyelinated and therefore the slowest conduction velocity.
The correct answer is: Aα fibres
Ribonucleoprotein particles, such as snRNPs (e.g. U1-snRNP; involved in mRNA splicing) are one of several nuclear complexes against which autoantibodies may be formed, and these are most likely involved in the pathophysiology of SLE rather than the ones.
The correct answer is: Systemic lupus erythematosis
Typical cervical vertebrae have rectangular shaped body with uncinate processes, bifid spinous process, large triangular shaped vertebral foramen & transverse foramina. However, C1 does not have a body or spinous process, C2 does not have uncinate processes and C7 does not have a bifid spinous process. T2-T9 have demi-facets, other thoracic vertebrae have a complete facet for the head of the rib.
The correct answer is: Characteristics of lumbar vertebrae include superior articular facets that face posteromedially
Multifidus is thickest in thoracic region, so it will act as extensor and stabiliser of the lumbar spine. Rotatores group is most prominent in the thoracic region and does not act on the atlanto-axial joint. Erector spine includes iliocostalis, longissimus and spinalis muscles. Pre-vertebral muscles laterally flex the head and flex the neck.
The correct answer is: Suboccipital muscles act to produce extension and rotation at the atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial joints
The correct answers are: Free nerve terminals, Mechanoreceptors
Two-thirds of all mutations are deletions of some exons only or of the entire gene and these are thought to occur as a result of unequal crossing over in maternal meiosis (oogenesis). Other, less common, mutations include point mutations and gene duplications.
The correct answer is: Deletions
Pseudohypertrophy is a clinical feature of both Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophies and results from the replacement of muscle fibres by adipose and connective tissue following their degeneration. It manifests as an increase in the size of the calf muscles (gastrocnemius) with proximal wasting of the thigh muscles (quadriceps).
The correct answer is: Gastrocnemius
a) Incorrect: she would get a dry mouth due to block of ACh at the parasympathetic endings in the salivary glands
b) Incorrect: she would get stimulation of digestion in the GIT due to block of ACh at the parasympathetic endings in the GIT
c) She would get difficulty swallowing due to block of Ach at the N-M junctions of the muscles controlling swallowing
d) Incorrect: she would get weakness and paralysis of muscles, not spasms
e) Correct: she would get weakness and paralysis of muscles
The correct answer is: Weakness and paralysis of muscles
The correct answer is: Sarcoplasmic reticulum
ATP hydrolysis by myosin ATPase leaves ADP + Pi attached to the myosin head which gives it a strong binding affinity for actin
The correct answer is: Hydrolysis of ATP by myosin energizes the cross bridges, providing the energy for generation of force
The correct answer is: Acting as competitive antagonists of the nicotinic cholinergic receptor at the motor end-plate
The correct answer is: Guillain-Barré syndrome
The correct answer is: Node of Ranvier
Olfactory receptors are rapid adapting as they respond only to the change in a particular parameter (in this case, scents), and they are not vital to the maintenance of homeostasis as slowly adapting receptors are. They are chemoreceptors as the scent that binds to their membrane receptor (ligand) is a chemically-linked process.
The correct answer is: Rapidly adapting chemoreceptors
There are NO astrocytes present in the peripheral nervous system. Astrocytes form dense gliotic scar tissue in the central nervous system in response to axonal injury and are part of the problem associated with the lack of regeneration in the CNS. They secrete growth factors during development to encourage the growth of neurons (radial glia), and in their normal activity they secrete factors to encourage normal neuronal function in the CNS.
The correct answer is: Astrocytes secrete certain growth factors to stimulate new axonal sprouting
