HI Quizzes & BOFs Flashcards

1
Q
A

The correct answer is: Tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNF-α) and interleukin-1 (IL-1)

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2
Q
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There are four sources of heat loss: Conduction, Radiation, Convection & Evaporation. Convection is the movement of warm air away from the body surface and can be increased by fanning or wind. Heat transferred to a cooler object resting on the body’s surface or to the water in which one is swimming is lost by conduction.

The correct answer is: Warm air rises from the body surface

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3
Q
A

Antigen selects the few B-lymphocytes, out of many millions, which have cell surface antibody which best ‘fits’ the antigen.

The correct answer is: Antigen

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4
Q
A

The granules contain a wide spectrum of microbicidal agents.

The correct answer is: contains microbicidal cytoplasmic granules.

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5
Q
A

Bacteria coated with C3b adhere to C3b receptors on professional phagocytic cells (and more likely to be engulfed. The molecular basis for this is that the phagocytic cells have C3b receptors which allow them to bind tightly to C3b coater bacterial cells).

The correct answer is: opsonizes bacteria.

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6
Q
A

The macrophages in the spleen are important in destroying red cells in many physiological and pathological circumstances; this is an example.

The correct answer is: Spleen

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7
Q
A

This patient has pernicious anaemia.

The correct answer is: Autoimmune atrophic gastritis

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8
Q
A
  1. Vitamin B12 deficiency also causes macrocytic anaemia.
  2. The mechanism is iron deficiency.
  3. Erythropoietin deficiency in renal failure causes a normochromic anaemia with normal white cell and platelet counts. The unused responses in this set all cause haemolytic anaemia.

The correct answer is: 1. Macrocytic anaemia → Folate deficiency, 2. Microcytic anaemia → Caecal adenocarcinoma, 3. Normocytic anaemia with no evidence of haemolysis → Renal failure

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9
Q
A

The correct answer is: heavy and light chains.

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10
Q
A

The correct answer is: Th (helper) cells

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11
Q
A

SLE is a disease involving antibodies to non-organ specific antigens such as DNA and induces immune complexes which deposit in the vascular bed causing kidney, skin, joint and cerebral lesions.

The correct answer is: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

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12
Q
A

Autoimmune diseases have a significantly higher prevalence in women. In the case of thyrotoxicosis the prevalence is eight times higher than in men. D is an incorrect answer because autoantibodies and self-reactive T cells are very common especially in the elderly, or in those with relatives with autoimmune diseases, however this is not always associated with overt disease.

The correct answer is: Are more common in women

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13
Q
A

To be activated naïve T cells need to see not only the antigen but also to get co-stimulation via other receptors; if they don’t receive both stimuli then they become anergic (non-responsive).D is incorrect because most self-reactive B cells do not produce pathogenic auto-antibodies unless they get appropriate stimulation from T cells.

The correct answer is: Naive T cells need more than one signal in order to become activated

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14
Q
A

The correct answer is: lingual tonsils.

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15
Q
A

The correct answer is: is entirely covered by visceral peritoneum except at the hilum.

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16
Q
A

The correct answer is: 10th intercostal space

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17
Q
A

Ferritin is the intracellular storage protein for iron in the liver. It is not involved in iron transport or uptake.
The correct answer is: It is directly involved in intracellular storage of iron.

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18
Q
A

The kidney produces erythropoietin, the protein that regulates erythropoiesis.
The correct answer is: Kidney

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19
Q
A

As this is a booster vaccination she has already been vaccinated previously. In this instance the memory B-lymphocytes that resulted from the prior exposure to the antigen may recognise the antigen given in the booster vaccination and may initiate an inflammatory reaction. The redness and heat occurs due to increased vascular permeability and the tenderness occurs due to release of inflammatory mediators that activate sensory nerve endings.

The correct answer is: Memory B lymphocytes

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20
Q
A

His symptoms are most suggestive of a viral infection. Protection against intracellular infectious agents such as viruses is mediated by T-lymphocytes. These cells recognise peptides derived from the virus particles which are exhibited on the surface of an infected cell together with MHC class I & II molecules.

The correct answer is: T cells

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21
Q
A

The correct answer is: Small nuclear RNA-protein complexes (snRNPs)

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22
Q
A

The correct answers are: assist the complement system in the opsonisation of bacteria., break down the bacterial cell wall.

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23
Q
A

Atropine would block muscarinic receptors, inhibiting sweating and reducing skin blood flow and thus reduce heat-loss processes. Muscarinic block would also dry mouth secretions and inhibit vagal slowing of the heart. A beta agonist would (like atropine) raise the heart rate but with little effect on the skin and would likely reduce blood pressure due to peripheral vasodilatation in muscle beds. It would stimulate metabolism (and therefore generate heat) but without inhibiting processes of heat loss. A beta blocker would tend to slow the heart and have little effect on the skin. It might slow metabolism and therefore reduce heat generation. A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (aspirin-like) drug will have no effect on cardiovascular parameters and unless Mr Wilson has an elevated body temperature due to fever, it will have no effect on skin blood flow or sweating.

The correct answer is: The patient has been given a drug to inhibit muscarinic receptors

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24
Q
A

Activation of mast cells releases chemotactic factors for neutrophils and also vasoactive mediators such as histamine.

The correct answer is: Mast cell activation

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25
Q
A

The correct answer is: Adenosine deaminase deficiency

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26
Q
A

The correct answer is: Purine metabolism

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27
Q
A

The correct answer is: 1. Into which vessel does the thoracic duct drain? → left subclavian vein, 2. The cisterna chyli lies adjacent to which vessel? → aorta, 3. Into which vessel does the right jugular trunk drain? → right subclavian vein

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28
Q
A
  1. Infection can predispose an individual to the development of an autoimmune disease. Circulating immune complexes will commonly precipitate onto basement membranes such as those in the glomerulus, the retina and the skin.
  2. Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder where the auto-antibodies are directed against the glandular tissue such as the salivary glands.
  3. Granulomas are characteristic of chronic inflammation. Examples of things that cause chronic inflammation include intracellular organisms such as tuberculosis.

The correct answer is: 1. Five weeks after a sore throat, a 9 year old child develops circulating immune complexes that are deposited in basement membranes. → Glomerulonephritis, 2. A 58 year old female with a dry mouth has a biopsy of the parotid gland that shows a dense infiltrate of lymphocytes. → Sjogren’s syndrome, 3. A 55 year old male with a chronic fever has a biopsy of a cervical lymph node that shows caseating granulomas. → Tuberculosis

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29
Q
A

The correct answer is: Hypothalamus

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30
Q
A

The correct answer is: Tetrahydrofolate

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31
Q
A

The correct answer is: red cell.

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32
Q
A

The correct answer is: Plasmin

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33
Q
A

All of these affect the coagulation cascade that ultimately converts prothrombin to thrombin.

The correct answer is: All of the above

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34
Q
A

All neoplasms, both benign and malignant, show abnormal nuclei. They also have genetic mutations that confer the neoplastic phenotype, which includes abnormal responses to growth factors. Only malignant neoplasms can invade adjacent tissues or spread to distant sites in the body (metastasis).

The correct answer is: Abnormalities of nuclear morphology

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35
Q
A

Plasmodium falciparum is most likely to cause cerebral malaria because it makes the red blood cells sticky so that they can get stuck in the capillaries of the major organs such as the brain.
The correct answer is: Plasmodium falciparum

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36
Q
A

CLL is uncommon in people under 50 years of age.

The correct answer is: is usually found in people over 50 years of age.

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37
Q
A

This patient has infective endocarditis. The marked neutrophilia with immature forms in the blood points to a bacterial infection.

The correct answer is: Positive bacterial blood culture

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38
Q
A
  1. Usually occurs within minutes
  2. 10 days to 4 weeks is typical

The correct answer is: 1. The normal life span of a red blood cell in the circulation. → 120 days, 2. The time between exposure to allergen and the onset of a severe type 1 anaphylactic hypersensitivity response. → 120 seconds, 3. The time between infection with group A streptococcus and the onset of acute rheumatic fever. → 2 weeks

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39
Q
A

Granulation tissue is formed as the last stage of the inflammatory response. Granulation tissue replaces the tissue that has undergone necrosis as part of the inflammatory response with connective tissue which makes up the scar.

The correct answer is: Scar production

40
Q
A

Lymphoid cells at almost any stage in their differentiation or maturation may become malignant and proliferate to form a clone of cells which are ‘frozen’ at a particular stage of development.

The correct answer is: show maturation arrest at characteristic stages in differentiation.

41
Q
A

Vitamin K is required for the action of several clotting factors and acts as an antidote to warfarin excess.
The correct answer is: vitamin K

42
Q
A

Artesunate is better than quinine. The other statements are all true.

The correct answer is: Severe malaria is best treated with intravenous quinine

43
Q
A

With Lymphoma, the cause of death is known and likely to be natural.

The correct answer is: Death from lymphoma

44
Q
A

The correct answer is: Sjogren syndrome

45
Q
A

The correct answer is: Chronic myelogenous leukaemia

46
Q
A

The neoplastic plasma cells of myeloma usually produce excess light chains that appear in the urine as Bence-Jones proteinuria.

The correct answer is: Multiple myeloma

47
Q
A

Warfarin is recommended because AF is associated with a high incidence of stroke and heart failure.

The correct answer is: Atrial fibrillation

48
Q
A

Phagocytes engulf bacteria and produce a burst of reactive oxygen species to kill the bacteria.

The correct answer is: Phagocytes

49
Q
A

Ibuprofen is a NSAID which can potentiate warfarin’s effect by inhibiting platelet function and displacing Warfarin from the plasma protein binding sites

The correct answer is: Ibuprofen

50
Q
A

The correct answer is: He is just coming down with mumps.

51
Q
A

The correct answer is: Active immunisation

52
Q
A

The correct answer is: Passive immunisation

53
Q
A

The correct answer is: Supplementary Iron

54
Q
A

The correct answer is: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

55
Q
A

Patients 65 years and over have the worst prognosis because of their age, co-morbidities, pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic changes etc

The correct answer is: > 65 years of age

56
Q
A

Refer to Lymphoma Lecture

The correct answer is: Hodgkin’s lymphoma in two or more lymph node areas on both sides of the diaphragm

57
Q
A

Incidence is “the number of new cases of a disease that occur during a specified time in a population at risk for developing the disease” We cann tell nothing of the success of treatment, death rate or risk amongst males from this data.

The correct answer is: Higher annual incidence

58
Q
A

Median data represents the middle observation where half of the observed survival times are higher and half are lower. It is less sensitive to extreme values that the mean. The 95% confidence intervals did not overlap, indicating that the median values were significantly different. The data tells us nothing of the prevalence or incidence in 1995 or 1996 as we have no information on the number of cases, although with a longer survival we might expect a higher prevalence in following years.

The correct answer is: Fifty percent of those diagnosed in 1996 lived a further 27.7 months or more

59
Q
A

Infarction involving the anterior branch of the left coronary artery results in poor wall motion in the apex of the heart, creating blood stasis and has been shown to greatly increase the risk for intraventricular thrombosis and ischaemic stroke. Being in the left ventricle, any embolism from the clot will be limited to the systemic arterial circulation and will travel to the brain or other organs. It cannot enter the venous system and cannot enter the pulmonary system.

The correct answer is: Ischaemic stroke

60
Q
A

Warfarin is used to reduce risk of clotting. It acts by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent production of coagulation factors. Although it will increase prothrombin time in anticoagulation testing, this property is for monitoring purposes and is not the reason for which Warfarin is used therapeutically.

The correct answer is: Inhibit vitamin K-dependent production of coagulation factors

61
Q
A

Warfarin action is delayed because it inhibits the production of clotting factors and therefore already produced factors continue to act until they are cleared from the circulation. Heparin is immediately active and can be used to provide anti-coagualant action until warfarin becomes effective.

The correct answer is: Heparin will provide immediate anticoagulation while warfarin takes up to 5 days for maximum effect

62
Q
A

Glomerulonephritis (e.g. due to acute rheumatic fever or SLE), hypertension and diabetes all cause diffuse damage to glomeruli rather than focal scarring.

The correct answer is: Pyelonephritis

63
Q
A

The correct answer is: Myelofibrosis

64
Q
A

G6PD deficiency is an X-linked disorder that causes haemolytic anaemia when the red cells are exposed to certain drugs. The Heinz bodies are composed of denatured haemoglobin.

The correct answer is: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency

65
Q
A

Answer: Sickle cell anemia … the others all cause an enlarged spleen.
The correct answer is: Sickle cell anemia

66
Q
A

The correct answer is: Epstein-Barr virus

67
Q
A

The correct answer is: Anti-B antibodies

68
Q
A

The host lymphocytes mount an immune reaction against host tissues.
The correct answer is: Donor lymphocytes

69
Q
A

The virus inserts its RNA genome into the host cell.

The correct answer is: RNA

70
Q
A

The correct answer is: CD4 receptors

71
Q
A

Phagocytes have receptors for the Fc portion of IgG.

The correct answer is: IgG

72
Q
A

The correct answer is: O

73
Q
A

This patient has multiple myeloma. The monoclonal band is the abnormal immunoglobulin produced by the neoplastic clone of plasma cells. Abnormal blasts are found in acute leukaemia or lymphoma. Megaloblasts are found in megaloblastic anaemia. Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of Hodgkin disease.

The correct answer is: Excess plasma cells

74
Q
A

The correct answer is: Decreased solubility of deoxyhaemoglobin.

75
Q
A

The correct answer is: Gamma

76
Q
A

The correct answer is: Point mutations

77
Q
A

The correct answer is:

a) A 25-year-old woman presents complaining of tiredness, 12 months after having a severe bout of gastroenteritis leading to her developing Crohn’s disease. A full blood examination reveals an anaemia with a haemoglobin of 78 g/L (reference range 115-145 g/L), associated with an increase in mean corpuscular volume to 106 fL (reference range 80-96 fL). → Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia,
b) A 45-year-old vegetarian presents with a 2 year history of increasing tiredness. Clinical examination was normal. Results from his blood tests show haemoglobin of 79 g/L (reference range 130-180 g/L), associated with an increase in mean corpuscular volume to 125 fL (reference range 80-100 fL) and platelets 73 x 109/L (reference range (150 – 450 x 109/L). → Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia,
c) An 18-month-old girl presents with jaundice. She also has a greatly enlarged spleen. Her full blood examination reveals a microcytic haemolytic anaemia. Her older sister also had similar symptoms. → Thalassaemia

78
Q
A

The correct answer is:

a) A cell characterized by having a clear cytoplasm and long cytoplasmic processes. It serves as an antigen-presenting cell in the epidermis. → Langerhans cell,

b) A cell type closely associated with skin rashes found in contact dermatitis. It’s degranulation causes localized swelling and increased vascular permeability. → Mast cell,

c) A wound caused by a contaminated object often results in pus formation. Pus contains mainly dead or dying cells of this particular type. → Neutrophil

79
Q
A

The correct answer is:

a) A 50-year-old man presents with painless enlargement of cervical lymph nodes. Lymph node biopsy showed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. → Hodgkins lymphoma,

b) A 5-year-old child presents with bone pain and palpable lymph nodes. Numerous blast cells were seen in the peripheral blood. → Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia,

c) A 70-year-old woman presents with recurrent bacterial infection. Physical examination showed enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Blood counts showed a high white cell count comprising mainly of small lymphocytes. Haemoglobin and platelet counts are normal. → Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

80
Q
A

The correct answer is: Type IV response includes contact hypersensitivity

81
Q
A

The correct answer is: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

82
Q
A

The correct answer is: Chronic blood loss

83
Q
A

The correct answer is: Chronic immune stimulation

84
Q
A

The correct answer is: It is the major site of removal of obsolete red cells from the circulation

85
Q
A

The correct answer is: Mast cells

86
Q
A

The correct answer is: IgE

87
Q
A

The correct answer is: Thrombopoietin

88
Q
A

The correct answer is: Prostaglandin

89
Q
A

The correct answer is: Recombinant clotting factor VIII concentrates

90
Q
A

The correct answer is: Inhibit vitamin K-dependent production of coagulation factors

91
Q
A

The correct answer is: Excess plasma cells

92
Q
A

The correct answer is: International Normalised Ratio (INR)

93
Q
A

The correct answer is: Normal hemoglobin

94
Q
A

The correct answer is: Cell C

95
Q
A

The correct answer is: Site C

96
Q
A

The correct answer is: Steady state levels of Warfarin therapy would take longer to achieve than Rivaroxaban

97
Q

The image shows tissue from the edge of a wound.

What tissue type is indicated by the arrow?

A

The correct answer is: Acellular fibrosis