Neuro-ophthalmology Flashcards

Heavily based on Case-Based Neuro-Ophthalmolgy https://casebasedneuroophthalmology.pressbooks.com/chapter/fourth-nerve-palsy/

1
Q

What are the cardinal features of typical optic neuritis?

A

Young (20-50yo), white woman
Pain with eye movements
Acute to subacute loss of vision
Unilateral
Absent or mild disc edema
Absence of intraocular inflammation
Absence of retinal hemorrhages, disc hemorrhages, or retinal vasculitis
Recovery of visiion with or without treatment

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2
Q

Approximately what percentage of patients with optic neuritis have pain?

A

Over 90% (ONTT 92.2%)
The pain was constant and worse with eye movements in 51.3% and present with eye movements only in 35.8%

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3
Q

Approximately what percentage of patients with optic neuritis have optic disc edema?

A

30-40%
In the ONTT, 35.3% of patients had optic disc edema. In optic neuritis, the disc edema is usually mild and without disc hemorrhages. Disc or peripapillary hemorrhages were found in only 5.6% of patients in the ONTT.
Severe disc edemas and the presence of hemorrhages are atypical features

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4
Q

What visual field deficits occur in optic neuritis?

A

Almost every type of visual pattern can be seen. ONTT found that most common were diffuse (48.2%), altitudinal (14.9%), three quadrant (7.1%), quadrant (6.0%), cecocentral (4.5%), and hemianopic (4.2%) defects.

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5
Q

If OCT of the retinal nerve fiber and ganglion cel complex were performed early in disease course, what would you expect?

A

Normal RNFL and GCC thickness. However, in patients with acute optic neuritis and no optic disc edema, the RNFL and GCC are approximately normal thickness assuming there is no prior history of an optic neuropathy. The RNFL and GCC will start to decrease in thickness a few weeks after the onset of vision loss. OCT of the RNFL and macular GCC from this patient with acute optic neuritis is shown below and shows an RNFL and macular GCC thickness within the normal range.

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6
Q

According to the revision of the 2017 McDonald criteria, dissemination in space is established by the presence of …

A

One or more T2-hyperintense lesions characteristic of multiple sclerosis in two or more of four areas in the central nervous system: - periventricular
cortical or juxtacortical
infratentorial brain regions
the spinal cord.

The optic nerve was not included as a site to determine dissemination in space in the 2017 revision of the McDonald criteria since it was felt that there was insufficient evidence for its value in predicting a second attac

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7
Q

According to the revision of the 2017 McDonald criteria, dissemination in time is established by the presence of …

A

Dissemination in time is essential for the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis and can be demonstrated either by:
1. the simultaneous presence of gadolinium-enhancing and non-enhancing lesions or
2. the appearance of a new T2-hyperintense of gadolinium-enhancing lesion on follow-up MRI, irrespective of the timing of the baseline MRI. Gadolinium enhancement indicates an active lesion and is usually observable for the first 4-6 weeks after formation. If there are enhancing (new) and non-enhancing (older) lesions, dissemination in time can be established.
3. Cerebrospinal fluid-specific oligoclonal bands may also be used to establish dissemination in time and were added to the 2017 revisions to the McDonald criteria.

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8
Q

What is the best treatment regimen for a patient with optic neuritis?

A

IVMP 1g daily for 3 days followed by oral prednisone taper

The Optic Neuritis Treatment Trial (ONTT) compared treatment with intravenous methylprednisolone to oral prednisone (1 mg/kg) and oral placebo and found that intravenous methylprednisolone hastened the recovery of vision by approximately 4-6 weeks if started within 8 days of onset. There was no difference in visual acuity at 6 months in the intravenous methylprednisolone compared to the placebo or oral prednisone group. Visual acuity improved to at least 20/40 in over 90% of patients at 6 months. Intravenous methylprednisolone also reduced the risk of developing clinically definite multiple sclerosis for two years in the intravenous methylprednisolone group. This beneficial effect appeared to lessen after the first two years of follow-up.

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9
Q

What is a tropia?
How does this compare to a phroia?

A

A tropia is a physical misalignment in one or both eyes that can also be called strabismus
A phoria is a deviation that may only be present when the eyes are not looking at the same object
Whether or not fusion is maintained or not (ie if in unilateral cover test there is no movement in uncovered eye then eyes were aligned with the target at patient has a phoria, if ther was movement then the patient has a tropia)

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10
Q

What extraocular muscles are involved in CN III?

A

Levator palpebrae superioris, medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus
Elevation, abduction, depression

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11
Q

Describe oculomotor nuclear complex anatomy

A

There are 5 motor subnuclei with 1 subnucleu for levator palpebrae shared and 1 parasympathetic subnuclei aka Edinger Westphal nucleus

Key:
P = parasympathetic = Edinger-Westphal (EWN)
IO = inferior oblique
SR = superior rectus
IR = inferior rectus
MR = medial rectus
LP = levator palpebrae = central caudal (CCN)

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12
Q

Describe function of Edinger Westfall Nucleus

A

The EWpg nucleus receives input from the locus ceruleus in response to the light hitting the retina, which then prompts the nucleus to send a forward signal which synapses at the postganglionic cells of the ciliary ganglion (CG).[6] This synapse between the EWpg nerve fibers and the ciliary ganglion postganglionic cell bodies is a nicotinic synapse with acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter.[6]

In response to the signal from the EWpg, the postganglionic ciliary bodies relay the signal along their axons by way of the ciliary nerves towards the eye. This relay leads to the innervation of the sphincter pupillae (causing miosis) and ciliary muscles (ocular accommodation). The constriction of the pupil moderates the amount of light the retina is exposed to, which is the efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex. Additionally, the contraction of the ciliary muscles leads to the relaxation of the zonular fibers, allowing for increased convexity of the lens and, subsequently, an increase in refractive power and accommodation

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13
Q

Describe function of Edinger Westfall Nucleus

A

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK554555/
EDIT

The EWpg nucleus receives input from the locus ceruleus in response to the light hitting the retina, which then prompts the nucleus to send a forward signal which synapses at the postganglionic cells of the ciliary ganglion (CG).[6] This synapse between the EWpg nerve fibers and the ciliary ganglion postganglionic cell bodies is a nicotinic synapse with acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter.[6]

In response to the signal from the EWpg, the postganglionic ciliary bodies relay the signal along their axons by way of the ciliary nerves towards the eye. This relay leads to the innervation of the sphincter pupillae (causing miosis) and ciliary muscles (ocular accommodation). The constriction of the pupil moderates the amount of light the retina is exposed to, which is the efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex. Additionally, the contraction of the ciliary muscles leads to the relaxation of the zonular fibers, allowing for increased convexity of the lens and, subsequently, an increase in refractive power and accommodation

Since the discovery of the two cell populations of the EW nucleus, the function of the EWcp has been a subject of ongoing research. The EWcp is located medial and dorsal to the OCN in the midbrain and is comprised of a collection of peptidergic neuron cell bodies.[6][8][2] It is known that a large population of these cells are urocortinergic neurons, which are positive for the neuropeptide urocortin-1 (part of the corticotropin-releasing factor family) and negative for choline acetyltransferase.[4] These differ in immunohistochemistry from the cholinergic parasympathetic neurons of the EWpg, which are choline acetyltransferase positive. The EWcp nucleus is a significant contributor to the amount of urocortin-1 neuropeptide in the brain.[9] Studies have shown that this nucleus is involved in stress adaptation, anxiety, and pain.[10] However, the thought is that the response to stress by the EWcp nucleus is separate from that of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axi

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14
Q

At what level of the brainstem is the third nerve? Why is that relevant?

A

At the level of the superior colliculus where visual information is incorporated with other environmental stimuli and works in coordinating eye movements (ie saccadic oculomotor and head movements such that it helps orient the head and eyes toward stimuli that are seen and heard)

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15
Q

What fundamental feature of your oculomotor/eye exam should prompt you to localize to the oculomotor nucleus?

A

BILATERAL 3rd nerve findings

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16
Q

Name the 4 recognized oculomotor fascicular syndromes and their mneumonics

A
  1. Weber - “weber is weak” - CN III fascicle + contralateral hemiparesis
  2. Benedikt - “benedikt is bouncy” - CN III fascicule + tremor (red nucleus)
  3. Claude - “claude is contralateral” - CN III fascicule + contralateral ataxia +/- tremor
  4. Nothnagel - most challenging to pin down - fascicular oculomotor palsy with ataxia (original described location superior and inferior colliculi)
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17
Q

Describe the trajectory of CN III

A
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18
Q

Describe CN III Fiber organization and how this relates to aneurysmal presentation

A

Parasympathetic fibers are located exterior, superior, and midline
The most common arteries to cause 3rd nerve palsy are posterior communicating artery aneurysms (at junction with ICA) because the CN III runs immediately below PCA
Note that ICA, SCA, and basilar artery aneurysms can also cause CN III palsy
Basilar artery aneurysms can compress the third nerve from below and SPARE the pupil since pupillary fibers run superior and medial on the outer part of the third nerve

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19
Q

What study should all CN III palsies have as part of workup?

A

CTA

20
Q

To cause a third nerve palsy an aneurysm of the pcomm should be at least ___ mm?
Why is this significant?

A

4mm
Important because CTA and MRA have advanced to the point that aneurysms large enough to cause a 3rd nerve palsy can be detected in essentially all cases
in a study in China with aneurysms >3mm sensitivity of CTA was 100%

21
Q

What are the contents of the cavernous sinus?

A
22
Q

Describe Wilbrand knee

A

Inferior optic nerve fibers moving anteriorly in the anterior chiasm on the opposite side before they go backwards such that one could get loss of vision in a single eye (ie left) and superior temporal vision loss in the opposite eye (ie right)

Not clear if this is really a “normal” anatomical structure…
It hasn’t been clearly demonstrated in normal animals or humans but like we were discussing in clinic has been seen in people with monocular injury, the leading theory that the knee develops after a chronic injury creating room for the inferior fibers to slip forward (nicely demonstrated in figure 4 of the Hoyt pap

23
Q

What conditions should be considered in the differential of vertical diplopia?

A

3rd nerve palsy
4th nerve palsy
Thyroid eye disease
Ocular myasthenia gravis
Skew deviation
Brown syndrome
Degenerative changes in the orbit ie heavy eye syndrome and sagging eye syndrome

24
Q

What features on history/exam help you differentiate the cause of vertical diplopia?

A

Head tilt
Ptosis
Proptosis
Fatigability
Nystagmus

25
Q

What is the primary action of the superior oblique muscle? The secondary action?
Tertiary action?

A

Incyclotorsion
Depression
Abduction

26
Q

Describe the Parks-Bielschowsky three step test for diagnosis of 4th nerve palsies

A

Example L 4th nerve palsy

Step 1 - determine the side of hypertropia in primary position then identify potential corresponding depressors or elevators involved (ie left appears above - so either left eye depressors or right eye elevators implicated)

Step 2 - determine if the hypertropia increases in right of left gaze. Left hypertropia worsening in right gaze implicates either the oblique muscles in the left eye or vertical recti muscles in the right eye because the vertical recti muscles have their greatest vertical action when the eye is aBDucted and the oblique muscles have their greatest vertical action when the eye is ADDucted

Step 3: Determine if hypertropia worsens with right or left head tilt

If worsens with left head tilt implicates superior oblique or rectus in the left eye or inferior oblique or rectus in the right eye

27
Q

The vertical recti muscles have their greatest vertical action when the eye is _______ (abducted/adducted)

The oblique muscles have their greatest vertical action when the eye is _______ (abducted/adducted)

A

the vertical recti muscles have their greatest vertical action when the eye is aBDucted and the oblique muscles have their greates vertical action when the eye is ADDucted

28
Q

Describe the direction of eye movement and muscles involved with a head tilt (example left vs right head tilt leads to … )

A

With a LEFT head tilt, to maintain fusion on an object, the left eye incyclotors and the right eye excyclotorts. Incyclotorsion of the left eye is done by the SR and SO and excyclotorsion of the right eye is done by the actions of IR and IO

29
Q

Summarize the findings on exam re tropias in a left 4th nerve palsy

A

A left 4th nerve palsy will have a:
Left hypertropia in primary gaze
Left hypertropia worse in right gaze
Left hypertropia worse with left head tilt
(*memory hook - “left-right-left”)

30
Q

With a left CN IV palsy, why does the hypertropia increase with left head tilt?

A

Due to compensatory activation of the superior rectus.

Normally when patient tilts head to the left, the left eye incyclotors and the right eye excyclotors. The incyclotorters of the left eye are the superior oblique (primary action) and the superior rectus (secondary action). Since the superior oblique is paretic, the superior rectus compensates, but it ALSO elevates the eye since this is the SR primary action

31
Q

What is the most pertinent finding in this patient’s fundus photos?

A

Left fundus is excyclotorted due to left CN IV palsy

32
Q

How do you assess for a 4th nerve palsy in the presence of a complete 3rd palsy?

A

Assess for torsion of the eye during depression in abduction

A 4th nerve palsy may occur in conjunction with a 3rd nerve palsy since the 3rd and 4th nerves are in close anatomical proximity in the cavernous sinus. Since the eye cannot adduct in a 3rd nerve palsy, the limitation of depression in adduction that is normally seen in a 4th nerve palsy CANNOT be assessed. The patient should be asked to abduct the eye and look down, if there is incyclotorsion of the eye when looking down, then the 4th nerve is intact. Incyclotorsion can be assessed by using an anatomical landmark such as a conjunctival blood vessel.

33
Q

How can you differentiate a congenital decompensated 4th nerve palsy from an acquired etiology?

  1. Look for incyclotorsion of the fundus
  2. Parks-Bielschowsky three-step test
  3. Vertical fusion amplitudes
  4. Fatigability
A
  1. Vertical fusional amplitudes

The most common cause of a 4th nerve palsy is congenital; other common causes are trauma and microvascular ischemia. Congenital 4th nerve palsies may decompensate with minor head trauma or without any antecedent event. Signs of a congenital 4th nerve palsy include facial asymmetry, a head tilt seen on old photographs, lack of subjective excylotorsion, and large vertical fusional amplitudes. Normal vertical fusional amplitudes are small, around 1-2 prism diopters, but patients with congenital 4th nerve palsies may have vertical fusional amplitudes up to 10-25 prism diopters. It has also recently been suggested that congenital 4th nerve palsies have a hypertropia greater in upgaze than downgaze or equal in upgaze and downgaze.

34
Q

Summarize signs suggestive of congenital 4th nerve palsy (3)

A

Longstanding head tilt
Large vertical fusional amplitudes (>2 PD)
Facial asymmetry

35
Q

How can you differentiate a bilateral from a unilateral 4th nerve palsy?

A

Double maddox rod testing

Bilateral 4th nerve palsies should be considered whenever a unilateral 4th nerve palsy is diagnosed. Patients with bilateral 4th nerve palsies have a crossed hypertropia (right eye higher on left gaze and left eye higher on right gaze), excyclotorsion of 10o or greater that is best measured with a double Maddox rod, and a large V-pattern esotropia (> 25 prism diopters), which may cause a habitual chin-down position.

36
Q

Why is there a large V-pattern esotropia seen in patients with bilateral 4th nerve palsies?

A

Tertiary action of the superior oblique is abduction, which is limited

A V-pattern means that the eyes are closer together in downgaze compared to upgaze. The superior oblique depresses the eye maximally in downgaze and its tertiary action is abduction (remember oBliques aBduct). Since both superior oblique muscles are paretic in bilateral 4th nerve palsies, there is less abduction in downgaze and the eyes are closer together, leading to a V-pattern.

37
Q

A patient has a small bleed in the midbrain in the region of the right 4th nerve nucleus. This will manifest as a:

  1. Right 4th nerve palsy
  2. Left 4th nerve palsy
  3. Bilateral 4th nerve palsy
  4. Right 6th nerve palsy
A

Left 4th nerve palsy

The 4th cranial nerve nucleus is located in the midbrain at the level of the inferior colliculus and the 4th nerve exits the brainstem dorsally and innervates the contralateral superior oblique muscle. Because the 4th nerve fascicle travels a very short distance before exiting the brainstem, it is very difficult to differentiate a nuclear and fascicular lesion. The course of the 4th cranial nerve is illustrated in the diagram below.

38
Q

What additional finding on examination suggests damage to the 4th nerve fascicle in the midbrain?
1. Ipsilateral homonymous hemianopia
2. Tortuous retinal venules
3. Contralateral Horner’s syndrome
4. Tonic pupil

A
  1. Contralateral Horner’s

The descending sympathetic tracts are in close proximity to the 4th nerve nucleus and fascicle and therefore a lesion involving the 4th nerve nucleus or its fascicle before decussation in the anterior medullary velum may also affect descending sympathetic fibers and cause a Horner’s syndrome. Since the descending sympathetic fibers do not cross, the Horner’s syndrome will be ipsilateral to the lesion and the 4th nerve palsy will be contralateral.

39
Q

Describe the ocular tilt reaction

Ie what would you expect if a normal individual was rolled to the left (in the roll plane) as below:

A

You would expect right compensatory ocular tilt reaction:
- Incyclotorsion of the L eye
- Excylotorsion of the right eye
Right head tilt
Upward rotation of left eye
Downward rotation of the right eye

Aka
Head tilt
Ocular torsion
Skew deviation

40
Q

How do you determine a 4th nerve palsy from skew deviation?

A

The hypertropic eye is excyclotorted in a 4th nerve palsy and incyclotorted in a skew deviation.

41
Q

A patient presents with a left head tilt and has a right hypertropia in primary position. Dilated fundus examination shows right eye incyclotorsion and left eye excyclotorsion. What is the diagnosis?

Pathologic ocular tilt reaction
Right 4th nerve palsy
Left 3rd nerve palsy
Thyroid disease

A

Pathologic ocular tilt reaction

A pathologic ocular tilt reaction is caused by a lesion in the vestibular pathways and results in asymmetric vestibular input to the central nervous system and mimics a change in body position in the roll plane. This patient is acting as if her body was rolled to the right and has a left ocular tilt reaction. Note that the hypertropic eye is incyclotorted in this case, whereas it would be expected to be excyclotorted in a 4th nerve palsy (since the superior oblique muscle is an incyclotorter).

42
Q

Bilateral optic disc edema with preserved visual function is suggestive of…

A

Papilledema

43
Q

Describe the ocular findings of dorsal midbrain syndrome (aka Parinaud’s)

A
  1. Impaired upgaze
  2. Light-near dissociation
  3. Convergence retraction nystagmus

Others:
Collier’s sign - bilateral lid rectraction
Papilledema
Exotropia
Convergence insufficiency
Papilledema

44
Q

What are structures implicated in dorsal midbrain syndrome?

A

Posterior commissure
Rostral interstitial nucleus of the medial longitudinal fasciculus (riMLF)
Interstitial nucleus of Cajal (INC)

45
Q

What would be the best way to test for full vertical ocular range of motion in patient with a dorsal midbrain syndrome?

A

Ask her to focus on his own stationary finger while moving his chin downwards

The dorsal midbrain syndrome is characterized by loss of all types of upward eye movements, but relative sparing of the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR). The VOR is responsible for maintaining fixation of the eyes during head rotation and is produced by the direct vestibular input to the oculomotor nuclei in the brainstem. It therefore bypasses the supranuclear pathways, which is why it is spared in supranuclear ocular motility disorders such as dorsal midbrain syndrome. This patient has full vertical excursions when she fixates on a target and her head is rotated downwards as shown below.

46
Q

What is a common cranial nerve palsy with dorsal midbrain syndromes?

A

CN IV nerve palsy as the 4th cranial nerve exists from the dorsal midbrain and is likely being affected by the pathology in the dorsal midbrain.

So often have worsening vertical diplopia with horizontal gaze