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Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

a. Which part of the CNS/PNS originates from mesoderm?

b. Which part originates from neural crest?

A

a. Microglia

b. PNS neurons, Schwann cells

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2
Q

Why would Acetylcholinesterase be elevated from neural tube defects?

A

The fetal AchE in CSF transudates across defect in amniotic fluid

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3
Q

Anencephaly associations

A

Maternal type 1 diabetes

Decreased maternal folate

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4
Q

Holoprosencephaly mutation signaling

A

Mutation in sonic hedgehog pathway

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5
Q

Which conditions is holoprosencephaly seen in?

A 
Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)
Fetal alcohol syndrome
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6
Q

What sensation is lost with Syringomyelia?

A

Cape-like bilateral loss of PAIN and TEMP sensation in upper extremities

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7
Q

Syringomyelia associations

A

Chiari malformations
Trauma
Tumors

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8
Q

Which muscle elevates posterior tongue during swallowing? Innervated by?

A

Palatoglossus innervated by CN X

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9
Q

What is a Wallerian degeneration? What does this allow for?

A

When there is injury to axon there is degeneration distal to injury and axonal retraction proximally that allows for potential regeneration of axon (if in PNS)

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10
Q

Which axons are unmyelinated?

A

Autonomic post ganglionic
Afferent heat sensation
Afferent slow burning pain
1st order bipolar olfaction nerves

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11
Q

Role of Schwann cells

A

Myelinate ONE PNS axon

Promote axonal regeneration

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12
Q

Location of acoustic neuromas

A

Internal acoustic meatus

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13
Q

Which cell is injured in MS, PML and leukodystrophies?

A

Oligodendroglia

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14
Q

Where are Meissner corpuscles located? What do they sense?

A

Glabrous (hairless) skin - senses dynamic, light touch, position sense

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15
Q

Where are Merkel discs located? What do they sense?

A

Finger tips, superficial skin - senses pressure, deep static touch (shapes, edges), position sense

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16
Q

Which sensory receptors adapt quickly?

Which adapt slowly?

A

Meissner corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles adapt quickly

Merkel discs and Ruffini corpuscles adapt slowly

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17
Q

What is synthesized in Locus ceruleus?

A

NE

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18
Q

What is synthesized in Ventral tegmentum and substantial nigra pars compacta? (Midbrain)

A

Dopamine

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19
Q

What is synthesized in Raphe nuclei of pons, medulla and midbrain?

A

Serotonin (5-HT)

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20
Q

What is synthesized in Basal nucleus of Meynert?

A

Ach - Basal nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimers

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21
Q

What is synthesized in nucleus accumbens?

A

GABA

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22
Q

Which areas of brain don’t have blood brain barrier?

A

This allows molecules in blood to affect brain function or neurosecretory products to enter circulation
Area postrema - vomiting after chemo
OVLT - osmotic sensing
Neurohypophysis - ADH release

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23
Q

How do infarction and neoplasm affect the blood brain barrier?

A

They destroy the endothelial cell tight junctions –> this leads to vasogenic edema

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24
Q

Where is area postrema located? Important for what?

A

Located in dorsal medulla at caudal end of 4th ventricle

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25
Q

Which hypothalamic nucleus makes ADH?

A

Supraoptic nucleus

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26
Q

Which hypothalamic nucleus makes oxytocin?

A

Paraventricular nucleus

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27
Q

Which hypothalamic nucleus might be damaged in an anorexic person?

A

Lateral area (also causes failure to thrive)

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28
Q

Which hypothalamic nucleus is damaged in hyperphagia?

A

Ventromedial area

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29
Q

Hypothalamic nucleus for cooling, parasympathetic

A

Anterior (think of A/C)

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30
Q

Hypothalamic nucleus for sympathetic, heating

A

Posterior (Zap your posterior you become poikilotherm)

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31
Q

Hypothalamic nucleus responsible for Circadian rhythm

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus (Master clock)

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32
Q

Hypothalamic area that secretes GnRH

A

Pre-optic

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33
Q

Hypothalamic area causing savage behavior, obesity

A

Dorsomedial nucleus

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34
Q

What regulates suprachiasmatic nucleus?

What does SCN activation cause?

A

SCN regulated by environment

SCN –> NE release –> pineal gland –> melatonin

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35
Q

Causes of decreased REM sleep

A

Alcohol, BDZs, Barbiturates

Norepinephrine

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36
Q

Treatment for sleep enuresis

A 
Oral desmopressin (ADH)
Imipramine (second line bc of S/E)
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37
Q

Treatment for night terrors and sleepwalking

A

BDZs

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38
Q

a. Beta waves
b. Alpha waves
c. Theta waves
d. Sleep spindles and K complexes
e. Delta waves

A

a. Awake and REM sleep (high frequency, low amplitude)
b. Awake with eyes closed
c. Light sleep (Stage 1)
d. Stage 2 - Bruxism
e. Stage 3/4 nonrem - sleepwalking, night terrors, bedwetting (lowest frequency, highest amplitude)

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39
Q

What happens during REM sleep?

A 
Loss of motor tone
Increased brain O2 use
Variable BP and pulse
Dreaming
Penile/clitoral tumescence
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40
Q

Sleep changes in depressed patients

A

Decreased slow wave
Increased REM
Decreased REM latency

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41
Q

Which info does VPL relay?

A

Sensory info from body (Very Painful Legs mnemonic)

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42
Q

Which info does VPM relay?

A

Sensation from face (Very Painful Mouth)

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43
Q

Which info does LGN relay?

A

Vision (Lateral = Light)

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44
Q

Which info does MGN relay?

A

Hearing (Medial = Music)

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45
Q

Function of Limbic system

A

Fucking, Feeding, Feeling, Fighting, Fleeing

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46
Q

a. Correcting hypernatremia too quickly

b. Correcting hyponatremia too quickly

A

a. Cerebral edema/herniation

b. Osmotic demyelination syndrome (central pontine myelinolysis)

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47
Q

Vascular lesion resulting in complete contralateral sensory loss and proprioceptive defects that lead to falls

A

Thalamic syndrome (damage to VPL and VPM)

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48
Q

Lesion location causing athetosis

A

Basal ganglia (Huntington)

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49
Q

Lesion location causing chorea

A

Basal ganglia (Huntington)

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50
Q

Treatment of essential tremor

A

Beta blocker, Primidone

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51
Q

Lesion causing hemiballismus

A

Contralateral subthalamic nucleus

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52
Q

Loss of neurons in substantia nigra pars compacta

A

Parkinson disease

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53
Q

Atrophy of caudate nuclei with ex vacuo dilation of frontal horns on MRI

A

Huntington disease

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54
Q

Increased dopamine, decreased GABA, decreased Ach

A

Huntington disease

CAG repeats = Caudate loses Ach and GABA (CAG)

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55
Q

Hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality

A

Kluver Bucy syndrome (bilateral amygdala lesion)

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56
Q

Hemispatial neglect syndrom

A

Lesion in non-dominant parietal temporal cortex

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57
Q

Gerstmann syndrome

A

Agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, left-right disorientation
DOMINANT parietal temporal cortex lesion

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58
Q

a. Damage to Paramedian pontine reticular formation

b. Damage to frontal eye fields

A

a. Eyes look AWAY from side of lesion

b. Eyes look TOWARD lesion

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59
Q

pCO2 effects on cerebral blood flow

A

Increased CO2 –> VASODILATION –> increased blood flow
Decreased CO2 –> decrease in cerebral perfusion (can cause neurologic signs)
(Patients with cerebral edema hyperventilate to decrease ICP)

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60
Q

pO2 effects on cerebral blood flow

A 
Perfusion is constant between pO2 50-100
Severe hypoxia (
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61
Q

Common location of lacunar infarcts secondary to unmanaged HTN

A

Lenticulostriate arteries in striatum, internap capsule

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62
Q

ASA stroke - Area of lesion and symptoms

A
  1. Lateral corticospinal tract - contralateral hemiparesis of upper and lower limbs
  2. Medial lemniscus - Decreased contralateral proprioception
  3. Caudal medulla - Hypoglossal nerve - Causes ipsilateral hypoglossal dysfunction
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63
Q

Medial medullary stroke cause

A

Infarct of paramedian branches of ASA and vertebral arteries

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64
Q

Lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome cause

A

PICA stroke

Don’t PICA horse (hoarseness) that can’t eat (dysphagia)

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65
Q

PICA stroke -

a. area of lesion
b. symptoms

A

a. Lateral medulla - vestibular nuclei, Lateral spinothalamic tract, Spinal trigeminal nucleus, Nucleus ambiguus, Sympathetic fibers, Inferior cerebellar peduncle
b. Vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus, decreased pain/temp from ipsi face and contra body; dysphagia, hoarseness, decreased gag reflex, ipsi Horner syndrome, ataxia, dysmetria

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66
Q

Lateral pontine syndrome

A

AICA lesions - Facial nucleus effects specific to AICA lesion

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67
Q

AICA stroke -

a. area of lesion
b. symptoms

A

a. lateral pons (vestibular nuclei, facial nucleus, spinal trigeminal nucleus, cochlear nuclei, sympathetic fibers) and middle inferior cerebellar peduncles
b. Vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus, paralysis of face, decreased lacrimation, salivation, decreased taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue; Ipsi loss of pain/temp from face, contra loss of pain temp from body; ataxia/dysmetria

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68
Q

Where is lesion of stroke causing contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing?

A

PCA

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69
Q

Where is stroke causing locked in syndrome?

A

Basilar artery

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70
Q

Where is stroke causing CN III palsy (down and out with ptosis and mydriasis)?

A

PCom (lesions typically aneurysms, not strokes)

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71
Q

Complication after subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Vasospasm due to blood breakdown (treat with Nimodipine)

Rebleed

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72
Q

When do you see Xanthochromic spinal tap?

A

2-3 days after subarachnoid hemorrhage

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73
Q

Most vulnerable areas

A

Hippocampus, Neocortex, Cerebellum, Watershed areas

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74
Q

When do you see red neurons after ischemic event?

A

12-48 hours after

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75
Q

When do you see necrosis + neutrophils after ischemic event?

A

24-72 hours

76
Q

When do you see macrophages and microglia after ischemic event?

A

3-5 days

77
Q

When do you see reactive gliosis + vascular proliferation after ischemic event?

A

1-2 weeks

78
Q

After 2 weeks what does an ischemic infarct look like?

A

Glial scar

79
Q

Most common site of intracerebral hemorrhage

A

Hemorrhagic stroke

80
Q

Where do the dural venous sinuses drain into?

A

Internal jugular vein

81
Q

Risk factors for idiopathic intracranial HTN (pseudotumor cerebri)

A

Woman of childbearing age
Vitamin A excess
Danazol

82
Q

Treatment for pseudo tumor cerebri

A

Weight loss
Acetazolamide
Topiramate

83
Q

Urinary incontinence, Ataxia, Cognitive dysfunction

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus (expansion of ventricles distorts the corona radiate fibers)

84
Q

Where do nerves exit spinal cord corresponding to vertebrae?

A

Nerves C1-C7 exit ABOVE corresponding vertebrae
C8 spinal nerve exits below C7 and above T1
All other nerves exit BELOW corresponding vertebrae

85
Q

What herniates in vertebral disc herniation?

A

The nucleus pulposus (soft central disc) herniates through annulus fibrosus (outer ring) - usually posterolaterally

86
Q

Area affected in Werdnig Hoffmann disease

A 
Anterior horn - LMN lesions only 
Flaccid paralysis (floppy baby)
87
Q

Defect in superoxide dismutase 1

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

88
Q

Treatment for ALS

A

Riluzole - decreases presynaptic glutamate release

89
Q

Occlusion of anterior spinal artery affects which parts of spinal cord?

A

Spares dorsal column and Lissauer tract (pain pathway in dorsal column)

90
Q

Charcot joints, shooting pain, Argyll Robertson pupils

A

Tertiary syphilis - Tabes dorsalis

91
Q

Autosomal recessive trinucleotide repeat disorder (GAA)

A

Friedrich ataxia - on chromosome 9; gene that encodes frataxin (iron binding protein) –> impaired mitochondrial functioning –> degeneration of multiple spinal cord tracts

92
Q

Symptoms of Friedreich ataxia

A

Muscle weakness, loss of DTRs, vibratory sense and proprioception
Staggering gait, frequent falling, nystagmus, dysarthria, hammer toes, diabetes mellitus, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

93
Q

Cause of death in Friedreich ataxia

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

94
Q

Child with kyphoscoliosis

A

Friedreich ataxia - AR GAA trinucleotide repeat - chr. 9 that encodes frataxin iron binding protein

95
Q

Reflexes:

a. Biceps
b. Triceps
c. Patella
d. Achilles

A

a. C5
b. C7
c. L4
d. S1

96
Q

Galant reflex

A

Stroking along one side of spine while baby is face down causes lateral flexion of lower body toward stimulated side

97
Q

CN nuclei that lie medially at brainstem

A

III
IV
VI
XII

98
Q

Function of each:

a. Pineal gland
b. Superior colliculi
c. Inferior colliculi

A

a. Melatonin secretion, circadian rhythms
b. Conjugate vertical gaze center
c. Auditory
(Your eyes are above your ears and superior is above inferior colliculus)

99
Q

What is Parinaud syndrome?

A

Dorsal midbrain syndrome; Paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze (inability to move eyes UP or down) due to lesion in superior colliculi (stroke, hydrocephalus, pinealoma)

100
Q

What CNs go through the following

a. Cribriform plate

A

a. CN I

101
Q

Middle cranial fossa - which CNs go through the following?a. Optic canal

b. Superior orbital fissure
c. Foramen rotundum
d. Foramen ovale
e. Foramen spinosum

A

a. CN II, ophthalmic artery, central retinal vein
b. CN III, IV, V1, VI, ophthalmic vein, sympathetic fibers
c. V2
d. V3
e. Middle meningeal artery

102
Q

Posterior cranial fossa - which CNs go through the following?

a. Internal auditory meatus
b. Jugular foramen
c. Hypoglossal canal
d. Foramen magnum

A

a. CN VII, VIII
b. CN 9, 10, 11, jugular vein
c. CN 12
d. spinal roots of CN 11, brain stem, vertebral arteries

103
Q

Functions of oculomotor nerve

A

Motor - superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, inferior oblique
Pupillary constriction (sphincter pupillae, Edinger Westphal nucleus, muscarinic receptors)
Accommodation
Eyelid opening (elevator palpebrae)

104
Q

Functions of trigeminal nerve

A

Motor - mastication
Facial sensation
Somatosenation from anterior 2/3 of tongue

105
Q

Functions of facial nerve

A 
Facial movement
Taste from anterior 2/3 tongue
Lacrimation
Salivation (submandibular, sublingual)
Eyelid closing (orbicularis oculi)
Stapedius muscle in ear
106
Q

Does Facial nerve innervate parotid gland?

A

No but it courses THROUGH it; parotid is innervated by CN 9

107
Q

Glossopharyngeal nerve functions

A

Taste and sensation to posterior 1/3 tongue
Swallowing
Salivation (parotid gland)
Monitoring carotid body and sinus chemo and baroreceptors
Stylopharyngeus (branchial arch 3)

108
Q

Vagus nerve functions

A 
Taste from epiglottic region
Swallowing
Soft palate elevation
Midline uvula
Talking
Coughing
Thoracoabdominal viscera
Monitoring aortic arch chemo and baroreceptors
109
Q

Which nerves innervate Nucleus solitarius and what info does it provide?

A

CNs 7, 9 and 10 –> visceral SENSORY information

110
Q

Which nerves innervate nucleus aMbiguus and what info does it provide?

A

CNs 9, 10 and 11 –> MOTOR innervation of pharynx, larynx, upper esophagus

111
Q

Which nerve innervates dorsal motor nucleus and what info does it provide?

A

CN 10 –> sends autonomic (PARASYMPATHETIC) fibers to hear, lungs, upper GI

112
Q

Which nerves make up gag reflex?

A

Afferent - CN 9

Efferent - CN 10

113
Q

Lacrimation reflex?

A

Afferent - V1

Efferent - 7

114
Q

Pupillary reflex?

A

Afferent - 2

Efferent - 3

115
Q

CN 5 motor lesion

A

Jaw deviates TOWARD side of lesion due to unopposed force from the opposite pterygoid muscle

116
Q

CN 10 lesion

A

Uvula deviates AWAY from side of lesion (weak side collapses and uvula points away)

117
Q

CN 11 lesion

A

Weakness turning head to contralateral side of lesion

Shoulder droop on side of lesion

118
Q

CN 12 lesion

A

Tongue deviates TOWARD side of lesion

119
Q

Weber - lateralizes to left ear

Rinne - normal

A

Sensorineural hearing loss in right ear

120
Q

Weber - lateralizes to left ear

Rinne - can’t hear it in left ear

A

Conductive hearing loss in left ear

121
Q

Rinne - normal in both ears

Weber - lateralizes to right ear

A

Sensorineural hearing loss in left ear

122
Q

What is cholesteatoma?

A

Overgrowth of desquamated keratin debris within middle ear space - may erode ossicles or mastoid air cells –> conductive hearing loss

123
Q

gray white pearly lesion behind tympanic membrane, conductive hearing loss and vertigo

A

Cholesteatoma

124
Q

Facial nerve palsy associations

A 
Lyme disease
Herpes simplex or Herpes zoster (ramsay hunt)
Sarcoidosis
Tumors
Diabetes
AIDS
125
Q

Which mastication muscle is responsible for opening jaw?

A

Lateral pterygoid

126
Q

What produces aqueous humor?

A

Ciliary epithelium of eye

127
Q

a. Innervation of dilator pupillae muscle

b. Innervation of sphincter pupillae muscle

A

a. alpha 1 receptors (IP3) - parasympathetic

b. M3 receptors (IP3) - parasympathetic

128
Q

a. Loss of peripheral vision

b. Loss of central vision

A

a. Glaucoma

b. Age related macular degeneration

129
Q

Causes of secondary closed angle glaucoma

A

Diabetes or vein occlusion -> induces vasoproliferation in iris that contracts angle

130
Q

Rock hard eye, frontal headache, vision loss

A

Acute closure glaucoma = EMERGENCY

DON’T give epinephrine because of mydriasis effect

131
Q

Treatment of glaucoma

a. Increase outflow
b. Decrease aqueous humor production
c. acute angle closure

A

a. Prostaglandins, alpha agonists, cholinergic agonists (Pilocarpine)
b. Beta blockers, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, alpha agonists
c. add Mannitol

132
Q

Types of Diabetic nephropathy

A
  1. Nonproliferative - damaged capillaries leak blood –> lipids and fluid seep into retina –> hemorrhages and macular edema (treat with blood sugar control and macular laser)
  2. Proliferative - chronic hypoxia results in formation of new vessels with resultant traction of retina –> treat with peripheral retinal photocoagulation or anti-VEGF (bevacizumab)
133
Q

Schwannomas and Meningiomas

A

Neurofibromatosis 2

134
Q

Painless monocular vision loss with cherry red spot at fovea

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

135
Q

Risk of early ONSET alzheimers

A

APP, Presenilin 1 and Presenilin 2

136
Q

Increased risk of alzheimers

A

ApoE4

137
Q

Where is there decreased Ach activity in Alzheimers?

A

Decreased choline acetyltransferase activity in nucleus baseless of Meynert and hippocampus

138
Q

What makes up neurofibrillary tangles? What do they correlate with?

A

They are intracellular hyperphosphorylated tau protein; number of tangles correlates with degree of dementia

139
Q

Silver staining spherical tau protein aggregates

A

Pick bodies

140
Q

alpha synuclein defect

A

Lewy body dementia

141
Q 
Increased protein (IgG) in CSF
Oligoclonal bands
A

Multiple sclerosis

Oligoclonal bands are diagnostic

142
Q

Mechanism of Baclofen

A

Inhibits GABAb receptors at spinal cord level –> leads to skeletal muscle relaxation
-Can treat MS, spasticity

143
Q

LP findings for Guillain Barre syndrome

A

Increased CSF protein with NORMAL cell count

144
Q

Most common cause of viral meningitis

A

Coxsackievirus A virus

145
Q

LP with increased lymphocytes and low glucose

A

Fungal

146
Q

Scoliosis and foot deformities

A

Charcot Marie Tooth disease (autosomal dominant)

=hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy

147
Q

Galactocerebrosidase deficiency

A

Krabbe disease (autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease) Build up of galactocerebroside destroys myelin sheath

148
Q

Peripheral neuropathy, developmental delay, optic atrophy, globoid cells

A

Krabbe disease

149
Q

Arylsulfatase A deficiency

A

Metachromatic Leukodystrophy (autosomal recessive) buildup of sulfates destroys myelin sheath; central AND peripheral demyelination with ataxia, dementia

150
Q

Central and peripheral demyelination with ataxia, dementia

A

Metachromatic Leukodystrophy

151
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

A

Demyelination of CNS due to destruction of oligodendrocytes; associated with JC virus

152
Q

Drugs that cause increased risk of PML

A

Natalizumab (anti alpha 4 integrin), Rituximab (anti CD20)

153
Q

Build up of very long chain fatty acids in nervous system, adrenal gland and testes

A

Adrenoleukodystrophy (X linked recessive)

154
Q

Treatment for focal (partial) seizures

A

Carbamazepine
Gabapentin
Phenobarbital
Phenytoin

155
Q

Drugs that treat broad spectrum of seizure disorders

A

Valproic acid
Topiramate
Lamotrigine

156
Q

Cause of migraine

A

Irritation of CN V, meninges or blood vessels –> release of Substance P, calcitonin gene related peptide, vasoactive peptides

157
Q

Prophylatic treatment of migraines

A

Propranol
Topiramate
Ca channel blockers
Amitriptyline

158
Q

Abortive treatment of migraines

A

Triptans

NSAIDs

159
Q

Delayed horizontal nystagmus

A

Peripheral vertigo

160
Q

Tinnitus, vertigo, hearing loss

A

Meniere disease (Increased volume of endolymph)

161
Q

Developmental anomaly of neural crest derivatives due to activating mutation of GNAQ gene

A

Sturge Weber syndrome

162
Q

Port wine stain of face
Seizures/epilepsy
Intellectual disability
Episcleral hemangioma

A

Sturge Weber Syndrome (non-inherited)

163
Q

Nevus flammeus, a non-neoplastic birthmark in V1-V2 distribution

A

Port Wine stain (seen in Sturge Weber syndrome)

164
Q

STURGE mmnemonic

A 
Sporadic, port wine Stain
Tram track calcifications (opposing gyri)
Unilateral
Retardataion
GNAQ mutation, Glaucoma
Epilepsy
165
Q

Tuberous Sclerosis findings (HAMARTOMAS)

A 
Hamartomas in CNS, skin
Angiofibromas
Mitral regurgitation
Ash-leaf spots
cardiac Rhabdomyoma
Tuberous sclerosis
autosomal dOminant
Mental retardation
renal Angiomyolipoma
Seizures, Shagreen patches
166
Q

Cafe au lait spots
Lisch nodules
Optic gliomas
Pheochromocytomas

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1 (von Recklinghausen)

Also see cutaneous neurofibromas

167
Q

Mutation in Neurofibromatosis type 1

A

Neurofibromin - a negative regulator of RAS - on chromosome 17

168
Q

von Hippel Lindau findings

A

Hemangioblastomas
Bilateral renal cell carcinoma
Pheochromocytoma
Angiomatosis (hemangioblastomas in skin, organs)

169
Q

What does histology of hemangioblastoma look like?

A

High vascularity with hyperchromatic nuclei

170
Q

Pseudopalisading pelomorphic tumor cells with necrosis and hemorrhage - brain tumor

A

Glioblastoma multiforme (grade 4 astrocytoma)

171
Q

Brain tumor - spindle cells arranged in whorled pattern; psammoma bodies (laminated calcifications)

A

Meningioma

172
Q

Brain tumor arising from arachnoid cells and has dural attachment

A

Meningioma

173
Q

Location of hemangioblastomas

A

Most often cerebellar

174
Q

Histology of hemangioblastomas

A

Closely arranged, thin walled capillaries with minimally intervening parenchyma

175
Q

S-100 +

A

Schwannoma

176
Q

Synaptophysin stain

A

in CNS tumors of NEURONAL origin

177
Q

Brain tumor with rosenthal fibers

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma

178
Q

Highly malignant cerebellar tumor seen in childhood

A

Medulloblastoma (primitive neuroectodermal tumor)

179
Q

Drop metastases to spinal cord

A

Medulloblastoma

180
Q

Brain tumor with Homer Wright rosettes

A

Medulloblastoma

181
Q

Brain tumor with perivascular rosettes

A

Ependymoma

182
Q

Supratentorial tumor with cystic spaces filled with brownish fluid rich in cholesterol

A

Craniopharyngioma

183
Q

Herniation that compresses anterior cerebral artery

A

Cingulate herniation (subfalcine) under falx cerebri

184
Q

Herniation causing duret hemorrhage (rupture of paramedian basilar artery branches)

A

Downward transtentorial herniation

185
Q

Herniation causing ipsilateral blown pupil, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, ipsilateral paresis

A

Uncal herniation
CN III = ipsilateral blown pupil
ipsilateral PCA = contralateral homonymous hemianopia
contralateral crus cerebri = ipsilateral paresis

186
Q

Herniation causing coma and death

A

Cerebellar tonsillar herniation into foramen magnum compressing brainstem

Step 1 AB (29 decks)

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