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Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of bacteria is Staph aureus?

A 
Gram + cocci in clusters
Catalase + (Strep is Catalase (-)) 
Coagulase + (converts fibrinogen to fibrin; compared to other Staph)
Beta hemolytic
Ferments mannitol (turns agar yellow)
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2
Q

What is the main virulence factor of Staph aureus? What is it’s function?

A

Protein A; it is part of the cell wall and binds FC portion of antibody; inhibits phagocytosis and complement activation

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3
Q

What part of the body is normally colonized with Staph aureus?

A

Nares (opening of nose)

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4
Q

Inflammatory diseases caused by Staph aureus (5)

A
  1. Pneumonia - patchy infiltrate on X-ray; secondary post viral super infection most often
  2. Joint problems - septic arthritis
  3. Skin infections - cellulitis, boils, abscesses
  4. Acute bacterial endocarditis - IV drug user (Right sided heart infection - tricuspid) (rapid onset, acute)
  5. Osteomyelitis - Most common cause
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5
Q

Toxin mediated diseases caused by Staph aureus

A
  1. Scalded skin syndrome - mediated by exfoliative toxin
  2. Toxic shock syndrome - super antigen; from foreign package being left in too long
  3. Food poisoning - Rapid onset from preformed toxin (1-8 hours); vomiting; from meats and cream based foods (mayonnaise)
  4. MRSA - Alters PBP’s to get away from Methicillin; treatment is Vancomycin or Nafcillin
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6
Q

What should you use to treat MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

Nafcillin

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7
Q

What kind of bacteria is Staph epidermidis? (5)

A 
Gram + cocci 
Catalase +
Coagulase -
Urease +
Novobiocin sensitive (opposite of Staph saprophyticus)
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8
Q

What kind of bacteria is Staph saprophyticus? (5)

A 
Gram + cocci
Catalase +
Urease +
Coagulase - 
Novobiocin resistant (opposite of Staph epidermidis
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9
Q

What does Staph epidermidis classically infect?

A
  1. Artificial joints and catheters; covers everywhere

2. Endocarditis for artificial heart valves - most common cause of artificial valves

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10
Q

What do you treat Staph epidermidis endocarditis? Why?

A

Vancomycin; it is resistant to many ABx

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11
Q

Why is Staph epidermidis so good at infecting plastic/foreign surfaces?

A

Can produce adherent biofilms

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12
Q

What disease does Staph saprophyticus cause?

A

UTI in sexually active females - SECOND most common cause behind E. coli

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13
Q

What does Staph epidermidis contaminate?

A

Blood cultures; component of normal skin flora

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14
Q

What kind of bacteria is Strep pyogenes?

A

Gram positive cocci in chains/pairs (Group A)
Catalase -
Beta hemolytic
Bacitracin sensitive

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15
Q

What kind of bacteria is Strep agalactiae?

A

Gram positive cocci in chains (Group B)
Catalase -
Beta hemolytic
Bacitracin RESISTANT

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16
Q

Pyogenic diseases that Strep pyogenes causes (2)

A
  1. Pharyngitis - strep throat
  2. Impetigo - honey crusted
  3. Cellulitis
  4. Erysipelas - most common cause of
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17
Q

Toxigenic diseases that Strep pyogenes causes (2)

A
  1. Scarlet fever - strawberry tongue, pharyngitis, rash that spares face
  2. Toxic shock like syndrome - super antigen - SpeA, SpeC
  3. Necrotizing fasciitis - SpeB
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18
Q

Immunologic diseases that Strep pyogenes causes (2)

A
  1. Rheumatic fever

2. Post-Strep Glomerulonephritis

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19
Q

Impetigo more commonly precedes __________ than ________.

A

Impetigo more commonly precedes glomerulonephritis than pharyngitis.

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20
Q

How do you detect Strep pyogenes infection?

A

ASO titer

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21
Q

Treating S. pyogenes with Penicillin can prevent which complications?

A

Penicillin can prevent Acute Rheumatic Fever

It CANNOT prevent Acute Glomerulonephritis

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22
Q

Signs of Post-Strep Glomerulonephritis

A

Type III hypersensitivity

Coca cola colored urine and facial puffiness 2 weeks after Strep infection

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23
Q

What is responsible for Acute Rheumatic Fever after Strep infection?

A

M protein - it interferes with opsonization and is similar to antigen on cardiac myocytes (Strong humoral response created against it)

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24
Q

What does Streptokinase do? What bacteria has it?

A

Strep pyogenes; it converts plasminogen to plasmin

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25
Q

What kind of capsule does Strep pyogenes have?

A

Hyaluronic acid capsule (not immunogenic)

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26
Q

Defining characteristics of Strep agalctiae

A 
Gram + cocci
Group B strep
Beta hemolytic
Bacitracin RESISTANT 
Polysaccharide capsule 
CAMP test positive
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27
Q

What is the significance of CAMP factor?

What bacteria produces CAMP factor?

A

Enlarges the area of hemolysis formed by S. aureus

Strep agalactiae

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28
Q

Diseases in Strep agalactiae

A

Neonatal meningitis + sepsis + pneumonia

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29
Q

Why do you need to screen pregnant women for Strep agalactiae? When do you screen them? How do you treat if infected?

A

It colonizes vagina and there is no vaccine so babies passing through vaginal canal can become infected
Screen at 35-37 weeks; treat with intrapartum penicillin prophylaxis

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30
Q

1 cause of meningitis in neonates

A

Strep agalactiae (other causes are Listeria and K1 E. coli)

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31
Q

Alpha hemolytic strep

A

Strep pneumoniae

Strep viridans

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32
Q

Strep pneumo characteristics

A 
Polysaccharide capsule
Optochin sensitive
Lancet shaped diplococci
Bile soluble
IgA protease
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33
Q

Strep pneumo is the most common cause of:

A
  1. Meningitis
  2. Otitis media
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Sinusitis
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34
Q

What is treatment of choice for outpatient CAP?

A

Azithromycin

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35
Q

What is pneumococcus associated with in sickle cell disease and splenectomy patients?

A

Rusty sputum and sepsis

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36
Q

What accounts for Strep pneumo resistance?

A

Polysaccharide capsule

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37
Q

Treatment for Strep pneumo

A

Macrolide (Erythromycin)

3rd gen. Cephalosporin (Ceftriaxone)

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38
Q

Vaccines for Strep pneumo

A

Adults - 23 talent polysaccharide; T cell independent (only IgM)
Children - 7 talent conjugation; more robust T cell response (IgG)

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39
Q

Strep viridans characteristics

A

No capsule
Optochin resistant
Bile resistant

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40
Q

What diseases do viridans Strep cause?

A 
Dental caries (mutans)
subacute bacterial endocarditis (sanguinis)
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41
Q

Makes dextrans, which bind to fibrin-platelet aggregates on damaged heart valves

A

Viridans strep

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42
Q

Group D Strep

A

Enterococci (E. faecalis and E. faecium)

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43
Q

What are enterococci found?

A

Normal colonic flora

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44
Q

What diseases do enterococci cause?

A

UTI
Biliary tract infections
Subacute endocarditis (following GI/GU procedures)

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45
Q

Which enterococci species is more common?

A

E. faecalis

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46
Q

Which enterococci species is more dangerous?

A

E. faecium (bile resistant)

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47
Q

Why are nosocomial enterococci infections dangerous?

A

They are resistant to everything

Vancomycin-resistant enterococci

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48
Q

How do you treat Vancomycin-resistant enterococci?

A

Linezolid

Tigecycline

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49
Q

Which bacteria is associated with colon cancer?

A 
Strep Bovis (group D strep)
-Can also cause bacteremia and subacute endocarditis
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50
Q

What kind of toxin does Corynebacterium diphtheriae cause diphtheria with?

A

Via exotoxin encoded by B-prophage –> inhibits protein synthesis via ADP-ribosylation of EF-2

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51
Q

Pseudomembranous pharyngitis (gray-white membrane) with lymphadenoapthy, myocarditis and arrhythmias

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

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52
Q

How is Corynebacterium transmitted?

A

By respiratory droplets

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53
Q

Gram positive rods with metachromatic granules and + Elek test for toxin

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

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54
Q

ABCDEFG of Corynebacterium

A 
ADP ribosylation
B-prophage
Corynebacterium
Diphtheriae
Elongation Factor 2
Granules
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55
Q

Black colonies on cystine-tellurite agar (plated on Loeffler’s medium)

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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56
Q

Bacterial spores; cause which disease?

a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Bacillus cereus
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium difficile
e. Clostidium perfringens
f. Clostridium tetani
g. Coxiella burnetii

A

a. Anthrax
b. Food poisoning
c. Botulism
d. Antibiotic-associated colitis
e. Gas gangrene
f. Tetanus
g. Q fever

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57
Q

How does Bordetella pertussis toxin work?

A

It ADP ribosylates Gi (inactivates it) and causes over activation of adenylate cyclase that elevates cAMP production and increases secretions and mucus production –> makes it more difficult to clear bacteria

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58
Q

Black eschar

A

Bacillus anthracis (cutaneous)

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59
Q

What kind of bacteria is Bacillus anthracis?

A

Gram positive rods in CHAINS

Obligate AEROBE

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60
Q

What kind of capsule does Bacillus anthracis have?

A

polypeptide capsule (contains D-glutamate) - ONLY BACTERIUM with this

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61
Q

Bacillus anthracis toxins

A
  1. Edema factor: adenylate cyclase causes increased cAMP and fluid enters extracellular space –> inhibits host defenses and phagocytosis
  2. Lethal factor: Exotoxin that cleaves MAP kinase (normally controls cell growth) and causes tissue necrosis
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62
Q

a. What does edema factor do?

b. What bacteria is it associated with?

A

a. It activates adenylate cyclase to cause increased cAMP and fluid enters the extracellular space –> inhibits host defenses and phagocytosis
b. Bacillus anthracis

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63
Q

a. What does lethal factor do?

b. What bacteria is it associated with?

A

a. Exotoxin that cleaves MAP kinase and causes tissue necrosis

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64
Q

What diseases does Bacillus anthracis cause?

A

a. Cutaneous anthrax - painless papule –> black eschar

b. Pulmonary anthrax - Wool sorter disease

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65
Q

What is presentation of cutaneous anthrax?

A

Painless papule surrounded by vesicles –> ulcer with black eschar 5 f

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66
Q

What is presentation of cutaneous anthrax?

A

Painless papule surrounded by vesicles –> ulcer with black eschar (can uncommonly progress to bacteremia and death)

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67
Q

What is presentation of pulmonary anthrax? How do you get it?

A

Inhalation of spores –>

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68
Q

What is presentation of pulmonary anthrax? How do you get it?

A

Inhalation of spores –> flu like symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, mediastinitis and shock

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69
Q

How do you treat pulmonary anthrax (wool sorter’s disease)?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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70
Q

How do you treat pulmonary anthrax (wool sorter’s disease)?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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71
Q

How do you treat pulmonary anthrax (wool sorter’s disease)?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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72
Q

Characteristics of Clostridia bacteria

A

Gram positive, spore forming, obligate anaerobic bacilli

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73
Q

Characteristics of Clostridia bacteria

A

Gram positive, spore forming, obligate anaerobic bacilli

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74
Q

Who is at risk for Listeria infection?

A

Infants
Pregnant women
Immunocompromised
Elderly

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75
Q

Who is at risk for Listeria infection?

A

Infants
Pregnant women
Immunocompromised
Elderly

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76
Q

Branching, filamentous gram positive rods with SULFUR GRANULES

A

Actinomyces israelii

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77
Q

Reheated rice syndrome

A

Bacillus cereus

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78
Q

Food poisoning caused by spores that survive cooking rice/pasta

A

Bacillus cereus

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79
Q

a. What types of food poisoning does Bacillus cereus cause and how long is the incubation period?

A
  1. Emetic type - Nausea and vomiting within 1-5 hours

b. Diarrheal type causes watery, non-bloody diarrhea and GI pain within 8-18 hours

80
Q

Function of tetanus toxin

A

Protease that cleaves SNARE proteins for neurotransmitters; blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitters, GABA and glycine (from Renshaw cells in spinal cord)

81
Q

Tetanus toxin presentation

A

Spastic paralysis, trismus (lock jaw), risus sardonicus (raised eyebrows and open grin)

82
Q

Tetanus toxin presentation

A

Spastic paralysis, trismus (lock jaw), risus sardonicus (raised eyebrows and open grin)

83
Q

What kind of vaccine is the tetanus vaccine?

A

Toxoid vaccine (toxin conjugated to protein)

84
Q

Clostridium botulinum toxin?

A

Produces a preformed, heat-labile toxin that inhibits Ach release at the neuromuscular junction (flaccid paralysis)

85
Q

How is C. botulinum transmitted? In adults? In Kids?

A

Adults - ingestion of preformed toxin

Babies - ingestion of spores in honey

86
Q

C. botulinum presentation

A

Adults - Descending paralysis, Mydriasis/muscle weakness

Kids - floppy baby syndrome

87
Q

Why can C. botulinum spores cause disease in babies?

A

Babies lack enteric flora so spores can germinate after they are ingested

88
Q

Why can C. botulinum spores cause disease in babies?

A

Babies lack enteric flora so spores can germinate after they are ingested

89
Q

Spore forming bacteria

A

Clostridium species
Bacillus species
Coxiella burnetii

90
Q

C. difficile toxins

A

ExoA: enterotoxin that binds to brush border of gut and causes inflammation, cell death and watery diarrhea
ExoB: cytotoxin that causes cytoskeletal disruption via actin depolymerization –> pseudomembranous colitis –> diarrhea

91
Q

C. difficile toxins

A

ExoA: enterotoxin that binds to brush border of gut and causes inflammation, cell death and watery diarrhea
ExoB: cytotoxin that causes cytoskeletal disruption via actin depolymerization –> pseudomembranous colitis –> diarrhea

92
Q

Antibiotics that commonly cause C. difficile enterocolitis

A

Clindamycin

Ampicillin

93
Q

How is C. difficile diagnosed?

A

Detection of one or both toxins in stool by PCR

94
Q

C. difficile treatment

A

Metronidazole
ORAL Vancomycin
Fidaxomicin - recurrent cases
Fecal microbiota transplant

95
Q

C. difficile treatment

A

Metronidazole
ORAL Vancomycin
Fidaxomicin - recurrent cases
Fecal microbiota transplant

96
Q

Motor cycle accidents and deep penetrating wounds from military combat

A

Clostridium perfringens

97
Q

C. perfringens toxin

A

Alpha toxin (lecithinase - a phospholipase) –> causes damage to cell membranes –> myonecrosis

98
Q

Causes gas gangrene and double zone of hemolysis

A

Clostridium perfringens

99
Q

Treatment for C. perfringens

A

IV penicillin G

100
Q

Diseases caused by C. perfringens

A
  1. Gas gangrene (crackling and crepitus)
  2. Hemolysis (double zone)
  3. Food poisoning - late onset diarrhea (from ingestion of spores and spores germinate in gut, producing toxin)
101
Q

Diseases caused by C. perfringens

A
  1. Gas gangrene (crackling and crepitus)
  2. Hemolysis (double zone)
  3. Food poisoning - late onset diarrhea (from ingestion of spores and spores germinate in gut, producing toxin)
102
Q

Cells that are susceptible to Corynebacterium toxin

A 
Heart (myocarditis, HF)
Brain tissue (neurologic toxicity)
103
Q

Cells that are susceptible to Corynebacterium toxin

A 
Heart (myocarditis, HF)
Brain tissue (neurologic toxicity)
104
Q

What kind of bacteria is Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Gram positive rod
BETA HEMOLYTIC
Facultative intracellular

105
Q

Beta hemolytic gram positive rod

A

Listeria monocytogenes

106
Q

How is Listeria acquired?

A

Ingestion of unpasteurized dairy products or cold deli meats

Via transplacental transmission or vaginal transmission during birth

107
Q

What kind of bacteria is Listeria monocytogenes?

A 
Gram positive rod 
BETA HEMOLYTIC
Facultative intracellular
MOTILE (tumbling extracellularly)
Catalase positive
Can survive in near freezing temps (refrigerator)
108
Q

What kind of bacteria is Listeria monocytogenes?

A 
Gram positive rod 
BETA HEMOLYTIC
Facultative intracellular
MOTILE (tumbling extracellularly)
Catalase positive
Can survive in near freezing temps (refrigerator)
109
Q

How does Listeria move intracellularly and extracellularly?

A

Forms “rocket tails” via actin polymerization that allow intracellular movement and cell to cell spread
Characteristic tumbling motility

110
Q

Diseases that Listeria can cause

A 
Amnionitis
Septicemia
Spontaneous abortion in pregnant women
Granulomatous infantiseptica
Neonatal meningitis 
Meningitis in immunocompromised patients
Mild gastroenteritis in healthy
111
Q

Gram positive rod causing spontaneous abortion in pregnant women

A

Listeria monocytogenes

112
Q

Treatment for Listeria infection

A

In healthy - self limited

In infants, immunocompromised, elderly - Ampicillin for meningitis

113
Q

Treatment for Listeria infection

A

In healthy - self limited

In infants, immunocompromised, elderly - Ampicillin for meningitis

114
Q

Gram negative diplococci that ferments maltose

A

Neisseria meningitidis

115
Q

Gram negative rods that ferment lactose (Pink on MacConkey agar)

A

Fast - Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter

Slow - Serratia, Citrobacter

116
Q

Gram negative diplococci that does NOT ferment maltose

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

117
Q

Gram negative “Coccoid” rods

A

Haemophilus influenzae (requires factor V and X)
Pasteurella
Brucella
Bordetella pertussis

118
Q

Gram negative Oxidase Positive comma shaped bacteria

A

Campylobacter
Vibrio cholerae
Helicobacter pylori

119
Q

Gram negative oxidase positive, comma shaped bacteria that grows at 42 degrees celsius

A

Campylobacter jejuni

120
Q

Gram negative oxidase positive, comma shaped bacteria that grows in alkaline media

A

Vibrio cholerar

121
Q

Gram negative oxidase positive comma shaped bacteria that produces urease

A

Helicobacter pylori

122
Q

Gram negative rod, NON lactose fermenting, Oxidase positive

A

Pseudomonas

123
Q

What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Adrenal hemorrhage caused by Neisseria meningitidis

124
Q

What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Adrenal hemorrhage caused by Neisseria meningitidis

125
Q

What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Adrenal hemorrhage caused by Neisseria meningitidis

126
Q

Which Neisseria species has a capsule and ferments maltose?

A

Meningococci

127
Q

a. Transmission of N. meningococci

b. Transmission of N. gonococci

A

a. respiratory and oral secretions

b. sexually or perinatally transmitted

128
Q

a. diseases of meningococci

b. diseases of gonococci

A

a. meningococcemia, meningitis, Waterhouse-Friderischsen syndrome
b. Gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjunctivitis, PID, Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (liver capsule)

129
Q

Prophylaxis of N. meningococci infectedclose contacts

A

Rifampin, Ciprofloxacin or Ceftriaxone

130
Q

Treatment for N. meningococci

A

Ceftriaxone or Penicillin G

131
Q

Treatment for N. gonococci

A

Ceftriaxone + (Azithroycin or Doxycycline) for possible chlamydial confection

132
Q

Treatment for N. gonococci

A

Ceftriaxone + (Azithroycin or Doxycycline) for possible chlamydial co-infection

133
Q

Small gram negative coccobacillary rod transmitted by aerosols

A

Haemophilus influenzae

134
Q

What does H. influenzae require for growth on chocolate agar?

A

Factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin) (can also be grown with S. aureus that provides factor V through hemolysis of RBCs)

135
Q

Diseases caused by H. influenzae

A

Epiglottitis
Meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia

136
Q

Treatment of H. influenzae mucosal infections

A

Amoxicillin +/- Clavulanate

137
Q

Treatment of H. flu meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone

138
Q

Prophylaxis in close contacts of H. flu meningitis patients

139
Q

Prophylaxis in close contacts of H. flu meningitis patients

140
Q

Rose spots on abdomen

A

Salmonella typhi

141
Q

Associated with Guillain Barre syndrome

A

Campylobacter jejuni

142
Q

Associated with Guillain Barre syndrome

A

Campylobacter jejuni

143
Q

Food poisoning due to exotoxin

A

Staph aureus and Bacillus cereus

144
Q

Food poisoning due to exotoxin

A

Staph aureus and Bacillus cereus

145
Q

Most common causes of UTIs

A

E. coli (80%)
Staph saprophyticus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Serratia marcescens

146
Q

Most common causes of UTIs

A

E. coli (80%)
Staph saprophyticus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Proteus

147
Q

Most common causes of UTIs

A

E. coli (80%)
Staph saprophyticus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Proteus

148
Q

4 A’s of KlebsiellA

A

Aspiration pneumonia
Abscess in lungs and liver
Alcoholics
Di-A-betics

149
Q

Diseases that Klebsiella causes:

4 A’s of KlebsiellA

A 
Aspiration pneumonia
Abscess in lungs and liver
Alcoholics
Di-A-betics
UTI's
150
Q

Diseases that Klebsiella causes:

4 A’s of KlebsiellA

A 
Aspiration pneumonia
Abscess in lungs and liver
Alcoholics
Di-A-betics
UTI's
151
Q

Most common bacteria in a patient with strive kidney stones

152
Q

Most common bacteria in a patient with strive kidney stones

153
Q

a. animal urine

b. rat urine

A

a. Leptospira interrogans

b. Hantavirus

154
Q

a. animal urine

b. rat urine

A

a. Leptospira interrogans

b. Hantavirus

155
Q

Cat scratch fever

A

Bartonella spp.

156
Q

Lyme disease bug and source

A

Borrelia burgdorferi, Ixodes tick

157
Q

Undulant fever bug and source

A

Brucella and unpasteurized dairy

158
Q

Psittacosis bug, source

A

Chlamydophila psittaci, parrots/birds

159
Q

Q fever bug, source

A

Coxiella burnetii, aerosols of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid

160
Q

Ehrlichiosis bug, source

A

Ehrliche chaffeensis, Lone star tick (ambylomma)

161
Q

Tularemia (lymphadenopathy and site specific ulcer, granuloma formation) bug and source

A

Francisella tularensis, ticks and rabbits

162
Q

Leptospirosis bug and source

A

Leptospira spp. and animal urine

163
Q

Leprosy bug and source

A

Mycobacterium leprae, armadillo

164
Q

Cellulitis and osteomyelitis bug and source

A

Pasteurella multocida, animal bites

165
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever bug and source

A

Rickettsia rickettsii, dermacenter dog tick

166
Q

Tularemia (lymphadenopathy and site specific ulcer, granuloma formation) bug and source

A

Francisella tularensis, ticks and rabbits (think rabbit hunter)

167
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever bug and source

A

Rickettsia rickettsii, dermacenter dog tick

168
Q

Standard treatment for T. pallidum

A

Penicillin

169
Q

Cellulitis from dog or cat bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

170
Q

Non-painful, indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

Chancre of primary syphilis

171
Q

Moist, smooth, flat white genital lesion

A

Condylomata late of secondary syphilis

172
Q

Large bull’s eye rash

A

Erythema migrants due to Lyme disease

173
Q

R’s of Rifampin

A

RNA polymerase inhibitor
Ramps up microsomal cytochrome P450
Red/orange body fluids
Rapid resistance is used alone

174
Q

Prophylaxis for MAC when CD4 counts

A

Azithromycin

175
Q

Prophylaxis for MAC when CD4 counts

A

Azithromycin

176
Q

S/E of Ethambutol

A

Optic neuropathy

177
Q

Ethambutol mechanism

A

Blocks arabinosyltransferase causing decreased carbohydrate polymerization

178
Q

a. What is a Ghon complex?

b. What is a Ghon focus?

A

a. Calcified lung scar (ghon focus) + hilar lymphadenopathy
b. Calcified lung scar
- Seen in Primary TB

179
Q

Ethambutol mechanism

A

Blocks arabinosyltransferase causing decreased carbohydrate polymerization of mycobacterium cell wall

180
Q

a. What is a Ghon complex?

b. What is a Ghon focus?

A

a. Calcified lung scar (ghon focus) + hilar lymphadenopathy
b. Calcified lung scar
- Seen in Primary TB

181
Q

What can be given with Isoniazid to prevent neurotoxicity?

A

Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)

182
Q

What can be given with Isoniazid to prevent neurotoxicity?

A

Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)

183
Q

Calcified granuloma in lung + hilar lymphadenopathy

A

Ghon complex (TB)

184
Q

Calcified granuloma in lung + hilar lymphadenopathy

A

Ghon complex (TB)

185
Q

Back pain, fever, night sweats, weight loss

A

Potts disease (TB)

186
Q

Back pain, fever, night sweats, weight loss

A

Potts disease (TB)

187
Q

How are all Rickettsial diseases treated?

A

Doxycycline

188
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae cell membrane consists of:

A

Sterols

NO CELL WALL = NO GRAM STAIN

189
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae cell membrane consists of:

A

Sterols

NO CELL WALL = NO GRAM STAIN

190
Q

Fishy discharge, clue cells, bacterial overgrowth

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

191
Q

Starts with rash on palms and soles, fever, spread by ticks

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

192
Q

Starts with rash on palms and soles, fever, spread by ticks

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

193
Q

Fever, spread by ticks, starts with central rash and spreads outward

A

Rickettsia prowazeki and typhi

194
Q

Fever, spread by ticks, starts with central rash and spreads outward

A

Rickettsia prowazeki and typhi

195
Q

Treatment for bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

Step 1 AB (29 decks)

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