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Phase 1 EDF > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by neocortex?

A

A cerebral cortex with 6 layers of grey matter

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2
Q

Give the 4 main subdivisions of the brain

A

Cerebrum
Diencephalon
Brainstem
Cerebellum

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3
Q

What is meant my gyrus?

A

Ridge

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4
Q

What is meant by sulcus?

A

Groove

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5
Q

What are the functions of the frontal lobe?

A 
Personality
Behaviour
Movements (motor cortex)
Planning (pre-motor cortex)
Emotion
*Broca's area (dominant hemisphere)
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6
Q

What are the functions of the parietal lobes?

A

Body sense and position (somatosensory cortex)
Calculations
Reading and writing
Object and space perception

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7
Q

What are the functions of the temporal lobe?

A

Auditory cortex
Memory
*Wernickes area (dominant hemisphere)

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8
Q

What is the function of the occipital lobe?

A

Visual processing

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9
Q

What are the function of the insular cortex?

A

Emotion, self-awarness

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10
Q

What are the functions of the limbic system?

A

Emotion, memory, olfaction, behavior

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11
Q

Name 3 parts of the diencephalon

A

Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Pineal gland

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12
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

Processes and relays sensory information

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13
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Homeostatic regulation

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14
Q

What structure is the pineal gland apart of? And what is its function?

A

Epithalamus

Circadian regulation

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15
Q

What are the 3 components of the hindbrain?

A

Pons
Medulla oblongata
Cerebellum

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16
Q

Where is Broca’s area located?

A

Frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

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17
Q

What is the role of Broca’s area?

A

Speech production - Constructive aphasia

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18
Q

In which Brodmann’s area is Broca’s area found?

A

44 (45)

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19
Q

In which lobe is Wernicke’s area located?

A

Temporal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

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20
Q

What is the role of Wernicke’s area?

A

Speech comprehension - receptive aphasia (can say words fluently but lack meaning)

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21
Q

In which Brodmann’s area is Wernickes area located?

A

22

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22
Q

What is the tectum?

A

The dorsal aspect of the midbrain, made up of the superior and inferior colliculi (aka corpra quadrigemina)

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23
Q

Where are the mamillary bodies found?

A

Ventral aspect of the midbrain

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24
Q

Where are the red nuclei and substantia nigra located

A

Midrain (ventral portion)

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25
Q

What is the ventral portion of the midbrain?

A

Cerebral peduncles and tegmentum

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26
Q

What is the obex?

A

Inferior aspect of the IV ventricle

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27
Q

What is the tentorium cerebelli?

A

Fold of dura mater over lying the cerebellum (tent like)

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28
Q

What are the functions of the cerebellum?

A

Co-ordination of voluntary movements
Balance and equilibrium
Posture/muscle tone
(learning)

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29
Q

Where in the skull does the cerebellum lie?

A

Posterior cranial fossa

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30
Q

What is the falx cerebelli?

A

Fold of dura which projects in between the two cerebellar hemispheres

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31
Q

What are folia? (of the cerebellum)

A

Ridges

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32
Q

What are the main concerns of the flocculonodular lobe?

A

Vestibular information/balance
Vision
?Smell

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33
Q

Give the signs of cerebellar dysfunction (DANISH)

A

Dysdiadochokinesia (unable to perform rapid alternating movements)
Ataxia (uncontrolled movements/lack of balance)
Nystagmus (uncontrolled eye movements)
Intention tremor (increases as approach object)
Slurred speech
Hypotonia

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34
Q

Give the three layers of the cerebellar cortex

A

Molecular
Purkinje
Granular

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35
Q

Where does the cerebellum receive inputs from? And via what type of fibres?

A 
Cerebral cortex (mossy fibres)
Brainstem nuclei and sensory receptors (climbing fibres)
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36
Q

What is the output of the cerebellum? And what is its journey?

A

Purkinje fibres
To dentate nucleus (deep w/i cerebellum), then to red nucleus and thalamus. Info then sent from thalamus to cerebral cortex

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37
Q

True or false the (dorsal) spinocerebellar tract remains ipsilateral

A

True

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38
Q

How many neurones are involved in the spinocerebellar tract?

A

2

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39
Q

What information does the spinocerebellar tract carry?

A

Unconcious proprioception

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40
Q

Where does the (dorsal) spinocerebellar tract enter the cerebellum?

A

Inferior cerebellar peduncles

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41
Q

What does the telencephalon refer to?

A

The cerebral hemispheres

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42
Q

What gives rise to the forebrain?

A

Prosencephalon

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43
Q

What does the rhombencephalon give rise to?`

A

The hindbrain

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44
Q

Name the two parts of the forebrain

A

Cerebrum (telencephalon)

Diencephalon

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45
Q

What does the mesencephalon give rise to?

A

Midbrain

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46
Q

What is the metencephalon part of? And what does it give rise to?

A

Rhombencephalon

  • Pons
  • Cerebellum
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47
Q

What is the myelencephalon part of? And what does it give rise to?

A

Rhombencephalon

-Medulla oblongata

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48
Q

From which germ layer is the CNS derived?

A

Ectoderm

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49
Q

What is the name given to the dorsal portion of the neural tube?

A

Alar plate

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50
Q

From which part of the neural tube is the diencephalon derived?

A

Basal plate (ventral aspect)

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51
Q

True or false the telencephalon is derived from the alar plate of the neural tube?

A

True

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52
Q

Folding of the rhombencephalon gives rise to what structure?

A

IV ventricle

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53
Q

Where is the III ventricle found?

A

Diencephalon

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54
Q

Dilation of the neural tube within the telencephalon gives rise to what?

A

Lateral ventricles

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55
Q

How are the choroid plexi of the ventricles formed?

A

Invaginations of capillary tufts from the prosencephalon (lateral and III) and rhombencephalon (IV)

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56
Q

What is the role of choroid plexus?

A

Secrete CSF

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57
Q

Name the basal ganglia

A 
Caudate nucleus
Putamen
Globus pallidus (internal and external)
Subthalamic nucleus
Substantia nigra
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58
Q

Which basal ganglia make up the lentiform nucleus?

A

Globus pallidus and putamen

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59
Q

Together the caudate nucleus and the putamen make up what?

A

Striatum

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60
Q

Which of the basal ganglia are affected during Parkinson’s disease?

A

Substantia nigra

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61
Q

Parkinson’s disease is associated which too or too little dopamine?

A

Too little

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62
Q

What are the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Tremor
Rigidity (increased muscle tone)
Bradykinesia (reduced/slow movements)

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63
Q

What are the symptoms of Huntington’s disease?

A 
Chorea (twitching)
Overshooting movements
Decreased muscle tone 
Dementia
Personality changes
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64
Q

Which part of the basal ganglia does Huntington’s disease affect?

A

Striatum

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65
Q

What is the treatment for Huntington’s disease?

A

Dopamine receptor blockers

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66
Q

What is the result of increased stimulation of the subthalamic nucleus?

A

Increased inhibition of the thalamus, decreased output back to the cerebral cortex

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67
Q

Describe the different states of the Striatum, Globus Pallidus and Thalamus when the body it not moving (at rest)

A

Striatum - inactive
GP - active
Thalamus - inactive

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68
Q

To which regions of the cerebral cortex does the thalamus relay the outputs of the basal ganglia?

A

Pre-frontal cortex, pre-motor cortex and primary motor cortex

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69
Q

As well as the coordination of voluntary movements what else is the basal ganglia involved with?

A

Cognition, behaviour, decision making

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70
Q

True or false the rostral basal ganglia are excitory

A

False, the rostral basal ganglia consist of the striatum and globus pallidus which are inhibitory

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71
Q

What neurotransmitter is released from the striatum?

A

GABA

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72
Q

Is GABA an excitatory or inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A

Inhibitory

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73
Q

Define what is meant by a motor unit

A

A single motor neurone and all the muscle fibres it innervates

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74
Q

Why can’t action potentials propagate directly from neural to muscular tissue?

A

Because neural and muscular tissues are structurally and physiologically different

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75
Q

What are the 5 key processes in synapses

A 
Manufacture
Storage
Release
Interaction with post-synaptic receptors
Inactivation
76
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is glutamate?

A

Excitatory

77
Q

What neurotransmitter is used at neuromuscular junctions?

A

ACh

78
Q

How is it the middle ear is maintained at atmospheric pressure?

A

It it connected to the pharynx by the eustachian tube (auditory tube) which opens during to yawning, swallowing and sneezing

79
Q

True or false the middle ear is fluid filled

A

False, it is the inner ear that is fluid filled

80
Q

Name the 3 ossicles of the middle ear in order moving towards the inner ear

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

81
Q

What fluid fills the cochlear duct?

A

Endolymph

82
Q

Describe the concentrations of potassium and sodium in endolymph

A

High concentration of potassium
Low concentration of sodium
(This is atypical of ECF)

83
Q

What fluid fills the scala tympani and scala vestibuli?

A

Perilymph

84
Q

Which of the scala tympani and scala vestibuli lies above the cochlear duct

A

Scala vestibuli

85
Q

What is the helicotrema of the cochlear

A

The end of the cochlear, where scala tympani and scala vestibuli are continuous

86
Q

What does the amplitude of a sound wave indicate?

A

Loudness

87
Q

What does the frequency of a sound wave indicate?

A

Pitch

88
Q

At the membrane of which window does the stapes attach?

A

Oval window

89
Q

What is the role of the stereocilia of the inner hair cells?

A

Transduce waves of endolymph into receptor potentials

90
Q

How many layers of inner hair cells are there at the organ of Corti?

A

1

91
Q

How many layers of outer hair cells are there at the organ of Corti?

A

3

92
Q

What happens in the ear in order to protect it from damage due to loud continuous sound?

A

Contraction of the tensor tympani (attached to malleus) and stapedius (attached to stapes). This results in the dampening of bone movement and therefore reduces conduction of vibrations
Also efferent nerve fibres from brainstem regulate the activity of outer hair cells

93
Q

What is temporary hearing loss caused by?

A

Damage to stereocilia (stereocilla can regenerate)

94
Q

What is permanent hearing loss caused by?

A

Death of hair cells

95
Q

The middle ear, cochlear and vestibular apparatus are all found in which bone of the skull?

A

Temporal bone

96
Q

Which part of the basilar membrane has the greatest response to high pitched tones?

A

The part nearest the middle ear. There membrane here is narrower and more stiff and so vibrates more easily

97
Q

Describe the auditory pathway from the vestibulocochlear nerve to the cotex

A 
Cochlear nucleus (ventral)
Superior olive
Inferior colliculus
Medial geniculate nucleus (thalamus)
Auditory cortex (temporal lobe)
98
Q

What do the semicircular canals detect?

A

Angular acceleration and rotation

99
Q

What does the utricle detect?

A

Horizontal acceleration

100
Q

What does the saccule detect?

A

Vertical acceleration

101
Q

The frequency of action potentials generated in the vestibulocochlear nerve from the semicircular canals indicate what?

A

The force and direction of rotational movement

102
Q

Give 3 uses of vestibular information

A

Control of eye movements
Balance
Proprioception

103
Q

Where is the vestibular centre located?

A

Parietal lobe

104
Q

What is meant by chronic pain?

A

Pain lasting for more than 12 weeks (or longer than expected e.g. surgery)

105
Q

Give the two different types of pain

A

Nociceptive

Neuropathic

106
Q

Define pain

A

An unpleasant sensory or emotional experience associated with either actual or potential tissue damage

107
Q

Define nociceptive pain

A

Pain cause by actual or threatened damaged to non-neural tissue and is due to the activation of nocioceptors

108
Q

Define neuropathic pain

A

Pain caused by a primary lesion or dysfunction of the nervous system/ somato-sensory cortex

109
Q

What are the two types of nociceptor? And what afferent fibres are each associated with?

A

Mechanoreceptors e.g. meissener’s/pacinian corpuscles - A-delta fibres
Polymodal receptors e.g. thermo/chemo - C fibres

110
Q

Describe A-delta fibres and their transmission of pain stimuli

A

Myelinated
Fast
Sharp pain
Well localised

111
Q

Describe C fibres and their transmission of pain stimuli

A

Unmyelinated
Slow
Dull
Poorly localised pain

112
Q

Name the neurotransmitters released by the A-detla/C-fibre afferent neurones. What type of potential do theses substances generate

A

Substance P and glutamate

Excitatory post-synaptic stimuli

113
Q

What is hyperanalgesia? And how does it occur?

A

Increased sensitivity to pain stimuli. Substances released from damaged tissue e.g. histamine lower the nociceptive threshold

114
Q

How do descending pathways reduce the effects of painful stimuli?

A

Release opoids that inhibit synaptic transmission between the primary and secondary afferent neurones of the ascending/spinothalamic tract

115
Q

Where does decussation of the spinothalamic tract occur?

A

1 or 2 levels above the spinal segment at which it enters

116
Q

Give the Brodmann areas of the somatosensory cortex

A

3, 1, 2

117
Q

In terms of pain what is the role of the somato-sensory cortex?

A

Localisation and discrimination of pain

118
Q

In terms of pain what is the role of the insular cortex?

A

Detects the degree of pain

119
Q

In terms of pain what is the effect of stimulating the periaqueductal grey (PAG)? And what receptors are found here?

A

Analgesic effect

Opoid receptors

120
Q

Give an example on non-pharmacological treatment of pain

A

Accupuncture
CBT
Physio/massage

121
Q

True or false some antibiotics can damage the stereocillia of hair cells

A

True

122
Q

What is meant by a portal vein system?

A

Veins leading from one capillary bed to another

123
Q

Define a hormone

A

A signalling molecule secreted by specialised endocrine tissue

124
Q

Where does the DCML tract synapse

A

1) Gracile(lower limb)/Cuneate (upper limb) nuclei

2) Ventral posterolateral nucleus of the thalamus

125
Q

Where does the DCML decussate?

A

Medulla

126
Q

What does the DCML carry?

A

Fine touch, proprioception and vibration

127
Q

Give 3 signs of someone w/ a lesion of their DCML tract

A

Wide gait
Downward gaze
Stamping action

128
Q

What sensory information does the spinothalamic tract carry?

A

Pain, temperature and crude touch

129
Q

In which part of the spinothalamic tract are pain and temperature carried?

A

Lateral

130
Q

In which part of the spinothalamic tract is crude touch carried by?

A

Anterior

131
Q

Where does the spinothalamic tract decussate?

A

1-2 levels above where it enters the spinal cord

132
Q

How many neurones are involved in the corticospinal tract?

A

2

133
Q

Which part of the body does the anterior corticospinal tract carry fibres from and where does it decussate?

A

Axial skeleton

At the level (anterior white commissure)

134
Q

Which part of the body does the lateral corticospinal tract carry fibres from and where does it decussate?

A

Limbs

Medulla

135
Q

What does the corticospinal tract carry?

A

Motor (voluntary)

136
Q

What is the function of the dural venous sinuses?

A

Drain cerebral veins -> internal jugular veins (-> SCA ->SVC)

137
Q

What structures are located w/i the carvernous sinus?

A

CN III, IV, V(1), V(2), VI and the internal carotid artery

138
Q

Name the lateral foramen of the IVth ventrical

A

Foramina of Luschka

139
Q

Name the medial foramen of the IVth ventrical

A

Foramen of Magendie

140
Q

Name the foramen connecting the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle

A

Interventricular foramen (of Monroe)

141
Q

Describe the main differences between the somatic and autonomic nervous system

A

Somatic nervous system
- innervates skeletal muscle (voluntary movements)
- always excitatory
- single neurone between CNS and effector(upper and lower motor neurone)
Autonomic nervous system
- innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, abdominal viscera and glands (involuntary responses)
- can be either excitatory or inhibitory
- two neurone chain between CNS and effector (pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic neurone)

142
Q

Give the sympathetic outflow

A

T1-L2 (later horns of the grey matter)

143
Q

Give the parasympathetic outflow

A

CN 3, 7, 9, 10

S 2, 3, 4

144
Q

What venous sinus does the great cerebral vein drain into?

A

Straight sinus

145
Q

Where does the straight sinus lie?

A

Midline of tentorium cerebelli

146
Q

Which cerebral veins to the venous sinuses drain? Internal or external?

A

External (deep and superficial) (internal cerebral veins drain in to the external cerebral veins)

147
Q

Where do the venous sinuses drain into?

A

Internal jugular vein > subclavian > SVC

148
Q

Where are the superior and inferior sagittal sinuses found?

A

Superior and inferior borders of the falx cerebri, respectively

149
Q

Where does the transverse sinus lie?

A

In the posterior fix margin of the tentorium cerebelli

150
Q

Which cerebral artery supplies Broca’s area?

A

Middle

151
Q

Which cerebral artery supplies Wernicke’s area?

A

Middle

152
Q

How is CSF reabsorbed?

A

By the arachnoid villi/granulations in the dural venous sinuses

153
Q

In which lobe is the hipppcampus located?

A

Temporal

154
Q

In which lobe is the amygdala located?

A

Temporal

155
Q

What is the blood supply to the corpus callosum?

A

Anterior cerebral artery

156
Q

What bones make up the anterior cranial fossa?

A

Frontal
Ethmoid bone
Lesser wings of sphenoid bone

157
Q

What type of white matter fibre is the corpus callosum?

A

Commissural fibre

158
Q

What is meant by a commissural fibre?

A

Connects similar functional areas of the two hemispheres

159
Q

What is the name of the aspect of the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone?

A

Anterior clinoid process

160
Q

Which arteries travel through foramen magnum

A

Vertebral

Spinal

161
Q

Where does the facial nerve emerge from the skull? (after travelling through the internal acoustic meatus)

A

Stylomastoid foramina

162
Q

What are the actions of the superior oblique muscle?

A

Depress
Intort
Abduct

163
Q

What are the actions of the inferior oblique muscle?

A

Elevate
Extort
Abduct

164
Q

The cornea is avascular, where does it receive its nutrients from?

A

Tear film

Aqueous humour

165
Q

How of the refraction power does the cornea contribute

A

2/3

166
Q

How much of the refraction power does the lens contribute to?

A

1/3

167
Q

What is the innervation of the cornea?

A

Trigeminal nerve

168
Q

What are the 3 layers of the cornea?

A

1) Epithelium (continually replaced by limbal stem cells)
2) Stroma
3) Endothelium (for life)

169
Q

Name the fibrous component of the eye

A

Sclera

Cornea

170
Q

What is the conjunctiva

A

Clear covering over the sclera (2 cells thick)

171
Q

Name the vascular layers of the eye

A

Choroid
Ciliary
Iris

172
Q

Between which two layers of the eye is the choroid found?

A

Retina and sclera

173
Q

What are the function of the ciliary bodies?

A

Accomodation (adjust refracting power of the lens)

Produce aqueous humour

174
Q

How is C7 vertebra different to the rest (not inc C1/C2) of the cervicle vertebra?

A

Not bifid

175
Q

Which vertebra does the ‘vertebra prominent’ refer to?

A

C7

176
Q

At what level is the highest point of the iliac crest?

A

L3-L4

177
Q

What is the name given to the outer part of an intervertebral disc?

A

Annulus fibrosis

178
Q

What is the name given to the inner part of an intervertebral disc?

A

Nucleus pulposus

179
Q

At what level is the conus medullaris?

A

L1-L2

180
Q

At what level should you take a lumbar puncture?

A

L3/4

181
Q

What are the 3 covering of a spinal nerve

A

Epineurium
Perineurium
Endoneurium

182
Q

What type of Glial cells are responsible for regulation of CNS production/flow

A

Ependymal

183
Q

What in terms of pain what is the function of the somatosensory cortex?

A

Localisation and descrimination of pain

184
Q

In term pain what is the role the insular cortex?

A

Detects the degree of pain

185
Q

Which part of the brain is activated by acupuncture

A

Cingulate gyrus (anterior)

186
Q

Where are opoid receptors found?

A

Periaqueductal grey

Phase 1 EDF (12 decks)

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