Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

a radiculopathy involving lumbar nerves 2-4 causes what?

A

creased hip flexion and knee extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a non-dermatomal neuropathy that often follows soft tissue injuries or fractures. Presents with limb pain, swelling, reduced ROM, skin changes.

A

Complex regional pain syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tx for complex regional pain syndrome

A

gabapentin, TCAs, bisphosphnates, steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what may an x-ray show with complex regional pain syndrome

A

patchy demineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

causes of slow onset peripheral neuropathy

A

DM, uremia, B12 deficiency, HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hereditary peripheral neuropathy. Early distal muscles weakness/ difficultly running. Loss of reflexes, “stork leg deformity” and hammer toe. WIll have sensory loss. Sleep apnea common

A

Hereditary Charcot-Marie Tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

sponaneous, continuous leg movement at rest. Associated with unpleasent paresthesiasas. Associated with iron def anemia, end stage renal dz, MS, DM

A

Restless leg syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tx for RLS

A

dopaine agonist (pramipexole, ropinirole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is ramsay hunt syndrome?

A

zoster + bell’s palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Tx for bell’s palsy

A

oral steroids, antivirals in severe cases. need artifical tears/ eye ointments at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the most common cranial neuropathy associated with lyme meningitits

A

facial nerve plasy (CN VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pnuemonic for warfarin indications

A

CHADs(2) CHF, HTN, >75, DM Stroke (2 point), if any are greater than 2= warfarin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pneumonic for posterior circulation stroke (VANISH’D)

A

Vertigo, ataxia, nystamus, intention tremor, slurred speech, hell-shin test, dysdiadochkinesia, broad based gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

location of brain tumor that presents with kip smakcing, olfactory or gustatotry hallucinations

A

temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

lobe with sensory seizures or sensory loss

A

parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

shape of epidural bleed on CT

A

biconvex lens shaped appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

shape of subdural bleed on CT

A

crescent-shapped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tx for subdural hematoma

A

burr holes or craniotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hallmark of sturge weber syndrome

A

port wine stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

type of simple partial motor seizure where there are small jerking movements at the hand or face then spread to other motor areas.

A

Jacksonian seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

first line drug for partial seizures

A

carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

first line drug for absence seizures

A

ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

antiepileptic taht is teratogenic, can result in gum hypertophy.

A

phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

antiepileptic that is highly teratogenic and will reduce efficacy of OCPs

A

sodium valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
how do most antiepileptic drugs work?
inhibit sodium channels
26
tx for status epilepticus
lorazepam IV, IV phenytoin to follow .I f refractory then phenobarbital
27
hyperkinetic moement disorder that occurs w/ delayed onset after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs, and meotclopramide
tardive dyskinesia
28
Tx for guillain-Barre
plasma exhcange, IVIG
29
LP findings with guillain-barre
elevated CSF protein with normal CSF WBC
30
Most common infection that proceededs guillain barre
campylobacter jejuni (also CMV, epstein-Barr, HIV)
31
Signs of autonomic dysfunction with guillain barre
tachycardia, urinary retnteion, loss of sweating, ileus
32
Tx for myasthenia gravis
pyridostigmine, immunosupressants, thymectomy, acute plasmapharesis and IVIG (short duration)
33
4 meds that can cause guillain barre
aminoglycoside abx, mag sulfate, penicillamine, interferson alpha
34
tx for bacterial meningitits
dexamethasone, ceftriaxone, vanco, amipcillin
35
number of cause of asepctic meningitits
enterovirus
36
flexion of the hips during attempted passive flexion of the neck
Brudzinskis sign
37
inability to allow full extension of the knee when hip is flexed at ninety degrees
Kernig's sign
38
negri bodies are associated with with?
rabies
39
dementia with fluctuating cognition, recurrent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous motor features of parkinsonism
dementia w/ lewy bodies
40
dementia with fluctuating cognition, recurrent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous motor features of parkinsonism
dementia w/ lewy bodies
41
CN palsy that presents with medial turning of affected eye
CN VI (abducens
42
CN palsy that presents with vertical diploplia
CN IV (trochlear)
43
Radiating electrical sensation down the spine with neck flexion seen in patients with MS
Lhermitte's phenomenon
44
Dx test for myasthenia gravis
Edrophonium (Tensilon) test
45
CSF findings w/ myasthenia gravis
albuminocytologic dissociation
46
Tx for huntington's chorea
tetrabenazine
47
reflexive, sustained eye blinking in response to repetitive taping just above the nasal bridge between the eyes. Observed in individuals with parkinsons
Myerson sign
48
nerve that supplies the 4th and 5th digits
ulnar nerve
49
injuries to this area cause pain and weakness of the shoulder and sensory problems of the lateral arm
bracial plexus
50
nerve that supplies the dorsal hand
radial
51
DOC in trigeminal neuralgia
carbamazepina/ oxcarbazepine
52
presents with foot drop and lateral paresthesais. Often due to compress of the nerve at the head and neck of the fibula
peroneal nere contusion
53
presents with pain or paresthesia of the outer aspect of teh thigh
meralgia paresthetica
54
presents with weakness and wasting of the quadriceps muscles
femoral neuropathy
55
what will an absence seizures show on EEG
spike and wave activity
56
what will an absence seizures show on EEG
spike and wave activity
57
are anticholinergics helpful with bradykinesia in parkinson
No, only helpful with tremor and rigidity
58
condition with cavitary destruction within the spinal cord resulting in both motor and sensory deficits
syringomyelia
59
what PE finding supports a diagnosis of mesencephalic lesion
downward conjugate deviation
60
a lateral conjugate deviation supports a lesion where?
pontine lesion
61
a lack of doll's eye response indicates a lesion where?
brainstem
62
long-standing prion disease. manifests with parkinsonian features, dementia, jerking movements
creutzfeldt-jakob syndrome
63
an occlusion in what artery often results in homonymous hemianopia
middle cerebral artery
64
what is alexia?
inability to understand written words
65
alexia is seen in what type of occlusion?
posterior cerebral artery
66
most common organism isolated in dog or cat bites
pasturella
67
dopamine agonist that is initial treatment of choice for prolactinoma
cabergoline
68
what does sciatic nerve impingement cause?
loss of ankle deep tendon reflex, weakness of hamstring muscles, decreased sensation over the lateral calf and heel
69
what does sciatic nerve impingement cause?
loss of ankle deep tendon reflex, weakness of hamstring muscles, decreased sensation over the lateral calf and heel
70
weakness of the gastrocnemius muscle (plantar flexion) Is specific for what radiculopathy?
S1
71
antidote for atropine poisoning
physostigmine
72
which CN moves eye down and medial
trochlear (IV)
73
which CN does lateral eye movement
abducens (VI)
74
constant, generalized HA with possible visual loss. Will have elevated CSF opening pressure.
pseudotumor cerebri (idiopathic intracrnail HTN)
75
type of partial seizure that often has an aura
complex partial seizure
76
Tremor that improves with alcohol
essential tremor
77
what can make an essential tremor worse
stress, lack of sleep, caffeine
78
tx for essential tremor
beta blockers, primidone
79
4 cardinal signs of parkinsons
rigidity, bradykinesia, restin tremor postural instability
80
2 treatments for MS
steroids, interferon-B
81
impaired attention and cognition, motor hyper or hypoactivity, altered states of arousal
delirium
82
impaired attention and cognition, motor hyper or hypoactivity, altered states of arousal
delirium
83
most common cause of bacterial meningitits in adults
strep pneumoniae
84
if mengitits is caused by listeria (common in immunocomprpomised people) what must be added?
ampicillin
85
Upper and lower motor neuron dysfuction. Loss of speech, progressive weakness
ALS
86
what growth can be present in patients with myastehnia gravis?
Thymoma
87
presents with dry mouth, diploplia, dysphagia, dyarthria, descending weakness
botulism
88
most common neuroectodermal tumor
astrocytoma
89
agressive anaplastic type of astrocytoma, enhancing irregular mass, poor prognosis
glioblastoma multiforme
90
Most common mesodermal trumor, usually benign and slow growing. can cause HA, seizure, focal signs
meningiomas
91
most common CN tumor
schwannomas
92
most common brian tumor overall
metastatic tumors
93
How do MAO-B inhibitors help with parkinsons
inhibit catabolism of dopamine
94
examples of MAO-B inhibitors
rasagiline, selegiline
95
examples of MAO-B inhibitors
rasagiline, selegiline
96
condition associated with AVM
osler-weber-rendu
97
encephalitits with falccid paralysis + maculopapular rash is due to what?
west nile virus