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EOR Family med > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

most common cause of dementia

A

Alzheimer dz

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2
Q

Definitive diagnosis Alzheimer’s disease

A

brain biopsy

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3
Q

screening for Alzheimer disease

A

Mini-Mental Status Examination or the Montreal Cognitive Assessment

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4
Q

meds to treat sx in Alzheimers disease

A

cholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine

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5
Q

most common form of facial paralysis

A

bell palsy

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6
Q

what cranial nerve is affected in bell palsy

A

seventh cranial nerve (facial nerve)

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7
Q

bell palsy is believed to be caused by

A

herpes simplex virus activation that leads to nerve inflammation, demyelination, and palsy

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8
Q

sx bell palsy

A

sudden onset of unilateral facial paralysis

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9
Q

PE bell palsy

A

drooping at the affected corner of the mouth, drawing of the mouth to the unaffected side, inability to close the eye, eyebrow sagging, hyperacusis, decreased tearing, loss of taste on anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and disappearance of nasolabial fold

forehead sparing –> stroke

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10
Q

tx bell palsy

A

prednisone 60–80 mg/day for 1 week. Ideally, treatment should be initiated within the first 3 days of symptom onset

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11
Q

how do you differentiate delirium and dementia

A

delirium - evidence the disturbance is caused by a medical condition, substance overdose or withdrawal, or medication side effect

HALLMARK IS INATTENTION

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12
Q

meds associated w delirium

A

sedatives, anticholinergics, opioids, benzodiazepines, and antihistamines

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13
Q

is delirium reversible

A

yes usually

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14
Q

assessment for delirium

A

confusion assessment method

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15
Q

dementia

A

one or more progressive, age-related deficits in cognition and memory that cause difficulty in daily activities and are not the result of delirium or another treatable medical condition

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16
Q

largest risk factors for the development of dementia

A

advanced age and cerebrovascular disease

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17
Q

history for dementia

A

A detailed history should be elicited from both the patient and close relatives regarding the patient’s former functioning, decline in function, velocity of decline, and limitations in daily functioning as the next step. Close relatives should be questioned separately from the patient for more honest answers

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18
Q

tx classes for dementia

A

cholinesterase inhibitors (Donepazil and Rivastigmine) and N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor antagonists (Memantine)

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19
Q

MC stroke/cerebrovascular accident

A

ischemic

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20
Q

RF stroke

A

hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, atrial fibrillation, atherosclerosis, valvular disease, hypercoagulable disorders, and vasculitis. Cigarette smoking and cocaine

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21
Q

common sx stroke

A

facial droop, slurred speech, and contralateral limb weakness
dizziness, vision loss (homonymous hemianopia), and difficulty walking

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22
Q

most sensitive test for stroke

A

MRI

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23
Q

what imaging is performed first mainly in ER for someone w stroke

A

non contrast CT of the head

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24
Q

tx stroke

A

intravenous thrombolytic therapy with alteplase (recombinant tissue-type plasminogen activator) within 3-4.5 hours of sx onset

high-dose statin therapy and antiplatelet therapy, such as aspirin, should be started within 48 hours, as soon as oral medications can be safely started

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25
Q

tx for pts w stroke with large artery occlusions within proximal anterior circulation

A

intra-arterial mechanical thrombectomy

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26
Q

most common movement disorder

A

essential tremor

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27
Q

sx essential tremor

A

high-frequency postural or action tremor (6–12 Hz) that preferentially affects the upper extremities. The tremor is typically present bilaterally and is slightly asymmetric. Tremors can occur in multiple areas, such as the head, voice, tongue, face, and occasionally the lower limbs

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28
Q

what is essential tremor exacerbated by

A

anxiety, excitement, or adrenergic stimulation

worsens w age

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29
Q

what is essential tremor relieved by

A

relieved by small amounts of alcohol

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30
Q

PE essential tremor

A

tremor is activated by voluntary movement or when the arms are held in a fixed posture, and it is exacerbated during goal-directed activities, such as using eating utensils or finger-to-nose testing

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31
Q

dx essential tremor

A

bilateral upper limb action tremor without other motor abnormalities, at least 3 years in duration, with or without tremor in other locations, and absence of other neurological signs

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32
Q

any patient under age 40 with an unexplained tremor or other involuntary movements should be evaluated for

A

Wilson dz

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33
Q

Tx essential tremor

A

First-line treatment is with propranolol. Primidone can also be used if the patient does not respond to propranolol or is unable to tolerate it

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34
Q

in what population are cluster HA more common

A

men

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35
Q

sx cluster HA

A

severe, unilateral orbital, supraorbital, or temporal pain, and restlessness or agitation. Autonomic symptoms occur ipsilateral to the pain and can include ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis, conjunctival injection, nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and lacrimation

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36
Q

how long can attacks last for cluster HA

A

15 and 180 minutes and occur up to eight times per day

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37
Q

how many attacks to be diagnosed w cluster HA

A

at least 5

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38
Q

what should pts undergo during initial evaluation of cluster HA

A

MRI with and without contrast

39
Q

tx cluster HA

A

100% oxygen at 10–12 L/min for 15–20 minutes. Subcutaneous sumatriptan, intranasal sumatriptan, or intranasal zolmitriptan are also effective

40
Q

where should intranasal sumatriptan be sprayed

A

contralateral side

41
Q

preferred agent for long term prevention of cluster HA

A

verapamil

42
Q

cluster HA are associated w

A

depression and decreased quality of life.

43
Q

Migraines occur due to

A

occurs due to primary neuronal dysfunction, which results in cortical spreading depression, activation of the trigeminovascular system, and increased neuronal sensitivity

44
Q

who is more commonly affected by migraines

A

women

45
Q

4 distinct phases of migraine

A

prodrome, aura, headache, and postdrome

46
Q

migraine prodrome

A

occurs 24–48 hours prior to the onset of headache and can include an increase in yawning, food cravings, neck stiffness, or changes in mood (euphoria, depression, and irritability).

Approximately one-fourth of patients with migraine will experience the aura phase (classic migraine), and those who do not experience the aura are diagnosed with common migraine

47
Q

migraine aura sx

A

visual (bright lines, scintillating scotoma), auditory (tinnitus, hearing loss), language (aphasia, paraphasia, dysarthria), somatosensory (burning, paresthesia, numbness), or motor (jerking, repetitive movements, paralysis)

48
Q

sx migraine

A

often unilateral and is described as throbbing or pulsatile. Severity increases over hours. Phonophobia, photophobia, and osmophobia are common. Additionally, nausea is frequent and may be accompanied by vomiting

49
Q

duration of migraine

A

4 hours to several days

50
Q

triggers for migraine

A

stress, menstruation, barometric pressure changes, dehydration, fasting, and wine

51
Q

tx migraines

A

naproxen or acetaminophen (first line)
triptans

52
Q

Migraine prophylaxis should be considered in

A

patients with more than four headaches per month or more than seven days per month with a headache

53
Q

migraine prophylaxis

A

eta-blockers, such as metoprolol or propranolol, and anticonvulsants, such as topiramate or valproate. Other therapies often employed are antidepressants, including tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline), and selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (venlafaxine)

54
Q

most common headache

A

Tension-type headache

55
Q

sx tension type HA

A

mild to moderate, nonthrobbing headache that is bilateral, with pain in the frontal and occipital regions

56
Q

PE tension type HA

A

typically vague and include tenderness of pericranial myofascial tissues and increased myofascial trigger points. Patients do not present with nausea or vomiting but may have photophobia or phonophobia. Patients may also report increased stress or mental tension as well as migraine precipitating or aggravating tension-type headaches in patients who have both.

57
Q

precipitating factors tension type HA

A

fatigue, loud noise, glare, and stress

58
Q

dx tension type HA

A

at least 15 episodes of headache per month lasting 30 minutes to 7 days over 3 months, no nausea or vomiting, either photophobia or phonophobia but not both, and at least two of the following symptoms: bilateral location, pressing or tightening quality, mild to moderate intensity, and not aggravated by routine physical activity

59
Q

tx tension type HA

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and aspirin. Acetaminophen is also an option. Triptans are typically not an effective treatment

60
Q

prophylaxis tension type HA

A

Amitriptyline is the recommended first-line treatment to prevent tension-type headache

61
Q

sx onset Parkinson dz

A

occurring between 45 and 65 years of age

62
Q

Parkinson dz is due to

A

Degeneration of the basal ganglia in the substantia nigra results in dopamine depletion and leads to an imbalance of dopamine and acetylcholine.

63
Q

sx parkinson dz

A

resting or pill-rolling tremor, cogwheel or lead pipe rigidity, bradykinesia, postural instability, masked facies or infrequent blinking, cognitive changes, sleep disorders, shuffling gait, and loss of autonomic arm swing during ambulation. Dysdiadochokinesia is a loss of the ability to perform rapid alternating movements and may be present in patients with Parkinson disease

64
Q

what supports dx of Parkinson disease

A

Unilateral symptoms at onset support the diagnosis of Parkinson disease, as does improvement of the symptoms after high-dose levodopa therapy

65
Q

tx parkinson dz

A

Dopamine agonists (e.g., pramipexole, ropinirole, bromocriptine) should be used in patients < 65 years of age to delay the use of levodopa, which is associated with more adverse effects (e.g., nausea, vomiting, hypotension, dyskinesias). Levodopa with carbidopa is considered the mainstay of treatment for patients > 65 years of age.

66
Q

levodopa is associated w

A

on-off phenomenon, in which transient, abrupt fluctuations in motor symptoms occur in response to falling plasma levels of levodopa

67
Q

What sign seen in Parkinson disease is characterized by a sustained blink response to repetitive tapping over the bridge of the nose?

A

Myerson sign

68
Q

dx epilepsy

A

patient has at least two unprovoked seizures that occur more than 24 hours apart. Seizures are classified as either focal or generalized, referring to the area of onset of electrical activity in the brain.

69
Q

Automatisms

A

common with focal seizures and may include lip smacking, fidgeting with the hands, and chewing. Generalized seizures can be classified as tonic-clonic, absence, myoclonic, and atonic.

70
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures

A

abrupt loss of consciousness followed by stiffening of the arms and legs and jerking or twitching of the muscles. Tongue-biting and incontinence are common

71
Q

Absence seizures

A

more common during childhood and are characterized as frequent brief episodes of sudden staring with impaired consciousness

72
Q

Myoclonic seizures

A

sudden brief muscle contractions affecting a group of muscles, usually the arms, with preserved consciousness

73
Q

Atonic seizures/drop attacks

A

result in a sudden loss of control of muscles, particularly in the legs

74
Q

Seizures can be triggered by

A

flashing lights, hyperventilation, and strong emotions

75
Q

what should be performed in all adults w first onset of seizure

A

Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain with contrast

76
Q

what can be helpful in diagnosing epilepsy, determining seizure type, and evaluating for interictal activity

A

Electroencephalogram

77
Q

tx seizure

A

Following a first-time seizure, patients may not be started on antiepileptic therapy if their neuroimaging and neurological examination are normal

generalized epilepsy: valproate, lamotrigine, and levetiracetam are appropriate first-line options

absence seizures: ethosuximide

focal seizure disorders: lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine, and phenytoin

78
Q

what can worsen some types of generalized seizures

A

Carbamazepine and phenytoin

79
Q

What is the term used to describe periodic paralysis following a seizure?

A

Todd paralysis

80
Q

Simple partial seizures

A

focal seizures in which there is no impairment of consciousness

81
Q

Complex partial seizures

A

type of focal seizure in which consciousness is impaired. They are associated with a postictal state, in which confusion or memory loss is present after the seizure subsides.

82
Q

EEG characteristic of an absence seizure

A

brief 3 Hz spike-and-wave

83
Q

EEG complex partial seizure

A

sharp spikes and slow waves

84
Q

Status epilepticus tx

A

medical emergency.

The airway should be protected, and intravenous dextrose administered if hypoglycemia is present. Intravenous lorazepam, intravenous diazepam, or intramuscular midazolam should be given first line, followed by intravenous phenytoin or fosphenytoin

85
Q

Syncope

A

transient, self-limited loss of consciousness due to inadequate cerebral blood flow

86
Q

main causes of syncope

A

reflex syncope, orthostatic syncope, cardiac dysrhythmias, and structural cardiopulmonary disease

87
Q

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is most common in

A

women > 60

88
Q

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is caused by

A

loose calcium crystals known as otoconia from the utricle that end up in the posterior semicircular canal.

89
Q

sx benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

Episodes of vertigo last < 1 minute and are provoked by sudden changes in head position. Hearing loss and neurologic changes are absent.

90
Q

what is diagnostic for benign positional paroxysmal vertigo

A

Vertigo beginning within 30 seconds and resolving within 30 seconds of performing the Dix-Hallpike maneuver is diagnostic

91
Q

tx benign positional paroxysmal vertigo

A

Epley maneuver is a particle repositioning maneuver

92
Q

transient ischemic attack

A

acute episode of neurologic compromise, which could include slurred speech, vision deficit, or extremity weakness, that resolves on its own without causing tissue damage. Most transient ischemic attacks resolve within 24 hours

93
Q

To identify patients at increased risk for stroke after a transient ischemic attack, the ABCD2 system of risk stratification can be employed

A

A stands for age. Patients over 60 years are awarded 1 point. B stands for blood pressure. Patients with systolic blood pressure ≥ 140 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥ 90 mm Hg receive 1 point. C stands for clinical features. Patients with unilateral weakness during the ischemic episode are awarded 2 points, and patients with speech deficits receive 1 point. D stands for duration. If the transient ischemic attack lasted for ≥ 60 minutes, the patient receives 2 points. Symptom duration of 10 to 59 minutes is awarded 1 point. D also stands for diabetes, so patients with diabetes are awarded 1 point. A total score of 6 to 7 indicates a high 2-day risk of stroke. A score of 2 to 5 indicates a moderate 2-day risk of stroke, and a score of 0 or 1 is indicative of low risk.

94
Q

Patients at moderate to high risk of stroke should receive

A

both aspirin and clopidogrel daily while awaiting results of imaging

EOR Family med (25 decks)

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