ID Flashcards

1
Q

tx influenza

A

oseltamivir

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2
Q

what type of bacteria is Neisseria meningitidis

A

Gram-negative diplococci

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3
Q

what meningitis causing bacteria is a concern in older adults, immunocompromised individuals, and neonates

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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4
Q

who should not undergo lumbar puncture

A

Patients with findings of increased intracranial pressure, ongoing anticoagulant therapy, or other bleeding disorders

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5
Q

Lumbar puncture meningitis

A

elevated opening pressure
decreased glucose concentration, elevated protein level, and elevated white blood cell count with predominant neutrophils

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6
Q

tx meningitis

A

vancomycin with the addition of ceftriaxone or cefotaxime

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7
Q

tx meningitis in older adults and immunocompromised

A

Ampicillin should be added

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8
Q

what should be added as adjunctive therapy to reduce inflammation and prevent neurologic complications, such as hearing loss, in meningitis

A

dexamethasone

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9
Q

Patients with confirmed or suspected meningococcal meningitis should be placed on

A

droplet precautions

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10
Q

appropriate chemophylaxis for close contacts of n. meningitidis

A

rifampin, ciprofloxacin, or ceftriaxone

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11
Q

what type of bacteria is salmonella

A

motile gram-negative bacillus

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12
Q

salmonella outbreaks are most commonly associated w

A

poultry
eggs
transmission from contact w reptiles and amphibians

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13
Q

sx salmonella

A

abdominal cramping, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting
not usually grossly bloody diarrhea

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14
Q

definitive dx salmonella

A

stool cultures

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15
Q

most important component of therapy for salmonella

A

replacement of fluids and electrolytes

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16
Q

Which virus is associated with outbreaks of gastroenteritis on cruise ships?

A

Norovirus

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17
Q

HIV vaccinations

A

Tetanus and diphtheria vaccination should be performed every 10 years
Hepatitis B vaccination in a three-part series should be given to all patients who are HIV positive who do not demonstrate immunity to hepatitis B
Hepatitis A (2 or 3 doses)
Influenza vaccination in the inactivated or recombinant form should be administered annually
three doses of human papillomavirus vaccination should be administered to those who are ≤ 26 years old
Meningococcal vaccine (A, C, W, and Y type) should be administered in a two-dose series and repeated every 5 years
Pneumococcal vaccination (one dose of either the 20-valent or 15-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine) should also be administered to adult patients between the ages of 19 and 64 who are HIV positive and have never been vaccinated with pneumococcal vaccine. If the 15-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine is administered, a dose of the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine should be given, typically at least 1 year later.

18
Q

labs recs HIV

A

complete metabolic panel and complete blood count every 3 to 6 months
lipid panel and glycosylated hemoglobin are also recommended at least yearly
An annual Pap test with human papillomavirus testing should be performed as well as annual testing for syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, and trichomoniasis in patients who are sexually active
baseline purified protein derivative test for tuberculosis should be performed for patients who are HIV positive, with annual testing of those whose initial test was negative and who continue to have ongoing risk factors

19
Q

cause of Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (gram-negative spirochete)

20
Q

how is Lyme disease spread

A

Ixodes (deer) ticks

21
Q

how long must tick in Lyme disease stick to transmit bacteria

A

24 to 48 hours

22
Q

when and where does Lyme disease commonly occur

A

It most commonly occurs during summer months and is typically concentrated in the northeast and north central United States

23
Q

what type of rash do people with Lyme disease present with

A

erythema migrans

24
Q

common sx Lyme disease

A

erythema migrans
flu-like sx
AV block
cranial nerve palsy
arthritis
encephalopathy
polyneuropathy

25
Q

during the time erythema migrans is present,

A

serologic testing is negative

26
Q

tx Lyme disease

A

doxycycline twice per day for 10–21 days
amoxicillin in pregnant patients, lactating patients, and children younger than 8 years of age
IV ceftriaxone if severe

27
Q

prophylactic tx Lyme disease

A

one-time dose of doxycycline within 72 hours of tick removal

28
Q

acute mononucleosis is caused by

A

Epstein-Barr virus

29
Q

mono is commonly known as

A

the kissing disease

30
Q

MC sx mono

A

low-grade fever, sore throat, and posterior lymphadenopathy

31
Q

dx mono

A

rapid mononuclear spot test, which detects the presence of heterophile antibodies and is very specific for Epstein-Barr virus

CBC will show leukocytosis

32
Q

tx mono

A

refrain from contact sports for 4 weeks due to the risk of splenic rupture

supportive

33
Q

Shigella species

A

nonmotile facultative anaerobe gram-negative rods that contain enterotoxins, such as Shiga toxin

34
Q

how do you get shigella

A

person to person contact
contaminated food and water
daycare centers
residential institutions

35
Q

Shigella predominantly infects the

A

colon

36
Q

sx shigella

A

frequent, small volume diarrhea with stools occurring 8–10 times per day. Fever, abdominal cramping, tenesmus, and bloody and mucoid diarrhea can also be present

37
Q

Stool microscopy shigella

A

leukocytes and red blood cells

38
Q

preferred testing shigella

A

Stool culture

39
Q

tx shigella

A

oral rehydration
fluoroquinolone antibiotic, azithromycin, or third-generation cephalosporin (such as cefixime or ceftriaxone)
azithromycin is first line for kids (they should not take fluoroquinolone)

40
Q

Which Shigella species is associated with the development of reactive arthritis?

A

Shigella flexneri.