Neoplastic conditions of bone and soft tissue Flashcards

1
Q

What is a neoplasm

A

a group of cells which continue to proliferate indefinitely in an uncontrolled fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name the 5 commonest types of bone tumours

A
Haemartomas 
Benign bone tumours 
Malignant bone tumours 
Haematological malignancies 
Metastases to bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some examples of haemartomas

A

fibrous cortical defect
fibrous dysplasia
simple bone cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some benign tumours

A
aneurysmal bone cyst 
enchondroma 
osteochondroma 
chondroblastoma 
giant cell tumour 
osteoid osteoma/ osteoblastoma 
chondromyxoid fibroma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some examples of malignant bone tumours

A

osteosarcoma
Ewing’s sarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
Spindle cell sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some examples of Haematological malignancies

A

plasmacytoma/ myeloma

non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What tumours metastasise to bone

A
epithelial cancers 
breast
bronchus 
prostate
thyroid and 
kidney
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the key investigation for any patient with non-specific pain, particularly non-mechanical pain

A

plain Xray of the affected part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What radiological features warrant further investigation

A

bone destruction
new bone formation
periosteal reaction
soft tissue swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What bones are most commonly affected with metastases

A

Spine
pelvis
ribs
femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the aim of orthopaedic management

A

relieve symptoms
restore function
supporting treatment from an oncologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the median survival for a patient with bone metastases

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can be done to restore function in a patient with bone mets

A

Fixation of a bone either to prevent fracture or to fix a fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What technique is preferred for internal fixation devices in bone cancer

A

Intramedullary nails and bone cement rather than plate and screw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are Hamartomata

A

Lesions of bone which are developments but which often heal with time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a fibrous cortical defect

A

asymtpomatic defect in the cortex of bone which heal with skeletal maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a fibrous dysplasia

A

A developmental abnormality of bone where the bone does not form properly and is weaker than normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are common in fibrous dysplasia

A

stress fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do Xrays typically show of a fibrous dysplasia

A

ground glass appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the treatment for fibrous dysplasia

A

conservative but prophylactic stabilisation may be helpful if persistent symptoms are present
Bisphosphonates may help reduce symptoms also

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where do simple bone cysts arise

A

in long bones in the skeletally immature patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the advice for a patient with a simple bone cyst

A

avoid contact sports until the cyst heals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is an osteochondroma

A

benign bone tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why do symptoms of osteochondromas exist

A

pressure on adjacent structures eg muscle cause pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the risk of an osteochondroma becoming malignant
very low
26
What is the difference between an aneurysmal bone cyst and a simple bone cyst
Aneurysmal can also arise in axial bones
27
What is the treatment for aneurysmal bone cyst and why should they be treated
curettage | If left the bone cyst will progress
28
What are Enchondromas
Benign cartilage growths inside the bone
29
Where do enchondromas most commonly arise
Fingers but also the long bone
30
What do X-rays of Enchdonromas show
Popcorn calcification
31
What is the treatment for enchondromas
Asymptomatic - no treatment | Symptomatic - curettage
32
What is Ollier's disease
when the patient suffers from multiple enchondromas affecting many bones
33
What is a chondroblastoma
a benign cartilage tumour which typically arises in the epiphysis of the femur, tibia and humerus
34
What is the treatment for chondroblastoma
curettage
35
What is an osteoid osteoma
bone forming tumour that typically arises in the cortex of a long bone
36
what is the most commonly affected site for an osteoid esteem
mid-tibia
37
What is the typical presentation for a patient with an osteoid osteoma
Prolonged pain especially at night | relieves with aspirin or other NSAIDs
38
What do X-rays of osteoid osteomas show
central nidus with dense sclerosis around it
39
What is the treatment for an osteoid osteoma
ablation of the nidus by radio frequency or heat ablation under CT guidance
40
Where do osteoblastomas arise
in the spine
41
Where do giant cell tumours arise
in the epiphysis after growth has finished
42
Where do giant cell tumours typically involve
the knee region with a lytic defect affecting either the femoral or tibial condyle extending right up to the joint line
43
Why are giant cell tumours called giant cell tumours
The multinucleate giant cells which are in the tumour and which are stimulated to destroy bone
44
What is the treatment for a giant cell tumour
Detailed curettage and can be supplemebted with adjuncts such as phenol or cryotherapy followed by either bone grafting or cementation
45
What is an osteosarcoma
A malignant neoplasm arising form bone cells which are undifferentiated and capable of forming bone, cartilage and collagenous tissue
46
Who is affected by osteosarcomas
Under 30s | boys more than girls
47
What is the commonest bone to be affected by an osteosarcoma
femur | also upper end of tibia and humerus
48
What is a typical feature on Xray of an osteosarcoma
destructive lesion in the metaphysis - usually translucent and often with reactive peristyle new bone or rays of ossification with the expanding tumour
49
What is the treatment for an osteosarcoma
chemotherapy - immediately treats the micro-metastases and shrinks the primary tumour After 6-9 weeks, surgery is performed Sometimes amputation is required
50
What are the 2 most important prognostic factors for osteosarcoma
Size of tumour and response to chemotherapy
51
What is a chondrosarcoma
a tumour that arises from chondroblasts and can only produce chondroid and collagen not bone
52
What bones are affected by chondrosarcoma
bones of the trunk and the proximal needs of long bones
53
What age are people more likely to develop a chondrosarcoma
over 30
54
Describe the radiological appearance of a chondromata
translucent area which may expand the bone and is often criss-crossed by spicules of calcification
55
What is the treatment for chondrosarcomas
Surfical excision is essential for a cure as they don't respond to surgery or chemotherapy
56
What is the prognosis for a patient with a chondrosarcoma
depends - based on the grade of the tumour and the ability to completely surgically remove it
57
What is Ewing's sarcoma
a malignant tumour arising in bone marrow
58
Where are Ewing's sarcomas confined to
ends of long bones
59
What are the radiological features of Ewing's sarcoma
bone destruction and often soft-tissue swelling | onion skin layers of new bone formation around he lesion
60
How can we make a diagnosis of Ewing's sarcoma
Biopsy
61
What is the treatment for Ewing's sarcoma
Chemotherapy --> dramatic response with necrosis of the tumour and reduction of symptoms Surgical resection and radiotherapy
62
What is non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
Destructive bone tumour of adults
63
What is the treatment of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
chemo and radio
64
What is a plasmacytoma
a solitary form of myeloma both being tumours of plasma cells
65
What is the treatment for a plasmacytoma
radiotherapy
66
What happens to the serum immunoglobulins in myeloma
the patient has elevated serum immunoglobulins
67
What are some highly suggestive features of malignancy
``` Lump >5cm Increasing in size recently painful deep to fascia recurrence after previous excision ```
68
What is the management of soft-tissue sarcomas
surgical excision with a wide margin around the tumour followed by radiotherapy