Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

8742 – Paraneoplastic syndromes may
1: occur in the absence of a demonstrable primary neoplasm
2: mimic metastatic disease
3: include hypercalcaemia produced by skeletal metastasis
4: be due to hormones indigenous to the tissues of origin of the primary neoplasm

A

TTFF
Robbins, 6th ed, Ch 8

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2
Q

16807 – In the following sequential developments in the ‘metastatic, cascade’ the second event to occur is
A. degradation of collagen and other matrix components
B. tumour embolisation
C. extravasation
D. carcinogenic cell transformation
E. tumour cell interaction with platelets

A

A
The ‘metastatic cascade’ concept is a useful one, in that it takes the whole process and itemises the steps in sequence from cancer cell ‘initiation’ through the concepts of genetic instability, selection of ‘metastatic subclones’, the necessity for acquisition of new characteristics of cells to break down extracellular matrix and so on.

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3
Q

16033, 16819 – In the following steps in the ‘metastatic cascade’, the second occurrence is
A. development of a ‘metastatic subclone’
B. extravasation
C. expansion, growth and diversification
D. passage through extracellular matrix
E. tumour cell embolus

A

A
The concept is, that before cancer cells can invade (or metastasise), there has to be: (1) initiation, (2) promotion, (3) proliferation (clonal expansion, growth) and diversification through subclone selection; via the inherent genetic instability of cancer cells, (4) selection of a ‘metastatic subclone’ (requires eg laminin and fibronectin receptor elaboration, ECM protease synthesis etc, locomotion capability and perhaps chemotaxis), before any of the possible responses (D), (E) or (B) come onto the scene (these last three are in that order of events).

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4
Q

16021 – In the following sequential developments in the ‘metastatic cascade’ the second event to occur is
A. degradation of collagen and other matrix components
B. tumour embolisation
C. extravasation
D. carcinogenic cell transformation
E. tumour cell interaction with platelets

A

A
The ‘metastatic cascade’ concept is a useful one, in that it takes the whole process and itemises the steps in sequence from cancer cell ‘initiation’ through the concepts of genetic instability, selection of ‘metastatic subclones’, the necessity for acquisition of new characteristics of cells to break down extracellular matrix and so on.

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5
Q

24019 – The kinetics of malignant growth include
1: dependency between the growth fraction and the degree of inbalance between cell production and cell loss
2: a progressive increase in the proportion of cells actively cycling
3: tumour cell cycling time is often longer than for corresponding non-neoplastic cells
4: constant cell doubling time

A

TFTF
Robbins 5th ed. Page: 273

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6
Q

13998 – A carcinoma 1 cm in diameter represents approximately how many cell doublings?
A. 30
B. 100
C. 300
D. 1,000
E. 10,000

A

A
Refer to Robbins, 6th Ed, Ch 8, page 300, Ch 7, page 273

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7
Q

15187, 16843 – Using a standard accepted model of theoretical growth of a cancer clone (30 doublings = 1 x 109 cells = 1 gram), this potential is never achieved because cells are lost to the proliferative pool when they
1: enter the Go phase
2: are in the G1 phase
3: enter the G2 phase
4: differentiate

A

TFFT
Refer to Robbins, 6th Ed, Ch 8, page 300-301. The ‘30 doublings = 109 cells = 1 gram; 10 more doublings = 1012 = 1 kg = maximum possible tumour burden’ concept is alive and well! The question asks for the reason(s) why that model is not applicable to clinical cancer. Cells in any of the G1, S, G2 or M phases of the cell cycle are considered to be in the ‘proliferative pool’ by definition; in clinical
cancer, cells are lost to the proliferative pool for many reasons and cell proliferation is not
synchronous. Much of theoretical oncology deals with ‘models’ - try ‘Gompertzian growth curve’!

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8
Q

16896, 22729 – Experimental studies have shown that human cancer cells, when compared with normal tissues derived from labile cell populations
1: have a higher percentage of terminally maturing cells
2: do not have a shorter cell cycle time
3: have a greater proportion of their cells in the replication cycle (growth fraction)
4: replicate at a rate in excess of most labile cell populations

A

FTFF
Robbins 6th ed. Chapter: 7 Pages: 300-301. This is a difficult concept - as discussed in any treatise on neoplasia with which I am familiar. The points are valid - responses 1, 3 and 4 are false and 2 is correct - the explanations for continued growth are, however, not explored in depth and the bland statement ?… there is an imbalance between cell production and cell loss ?? is meant to explain it all! Perhaps a major factor here is that in normal epithelia (for example), mitosing cells are present only in basal layers (skin or gut crypt) and the bulk of the epithelial cells are terminally maturing. In CIN, for example, mitoses are present at all layers of dysplastic epithelium - I suspect that the cells being included for defining the ‘proliferative pool’ stacks the result. Perhaps more importantly, labile cells such as granulocytes and gut epithelia have a very short life span - cancer cells may well be more robust!

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9
Q

16848 – There is a positive experimental and/or clinical correlation between metastatic potential of cancer cells and their
1: elaboration of plasminogen activator
2: blockade of fibronectin receptors on tumour cells
3: secretion of type IV collagenase
4: density of laminin receptors

A

TFTT
Responses 2 and 4 (pages 303-4) relate to the important capacity of tumour cells to bind to collagen of basement membrane (type IV - laminin) and interstitium (type I - fibronectin). Blockade of receptors will decrease metastatic potential (response 2); 1 and 3 refer to breakdown of intercellular matrix, which creates space for cancer cell invasion and probably also growth and chemotactic stimuli (for stromal and perhaps also cancer cells). Experimental fibronectin receptor blockade (using an analogue which occupies the receptor sites for laminin on tumour cells) inhibits lung metastases.

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10
Q

16027 – Each of the following is true of carcinogenic initiation, except
A. effects are rapid
B. effects are reversible
C. induces DNA alteration
D. has ‘memory’
E. can be active when given in divided doses

A

B
This deals with oncogenic initiation and promotion. It relates to chemical carcinogenesis but is applicable, with modification, to radiation and viral oncogenesis. Rigid classification as ‘complete’ carcinogens (oncogens, but not oncogenes), initiators and promoters is conceptually useful, but not always easy. The concept is that initiators damage DNA in a fashion which is not susceptible to repair (either widely, or in individuals with genetic defect in DNA repair capability). Promoters then apparently ‘push’ the cell the extra step(s) to uncontrolled growth. This is central to understanding oncogenesis.

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11
Q

23289 – Chemical carcinogens
1: are intrinsically electrophilic
2: usually produce characteristic molecular fingerprints
3: metabolism may be correlated with genetically determined enzyme levels
4: cause more cell necrosis than proliferation

A

TTTT
Robbins 6th ed. Pages: 305-9

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12
Q

17817 – S: Acquisition of the characteristics of ability to metastasise by cancer cells is presumed to be dependent on multiple different mutations in the cells because R: no single gene has thus far been discovered which appears to code for metastasising behaviour by neoplastic cells.

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
At present, no single ‘metastasis gene’ has been discovered. It is thought that such a ‘master gene’ influencing metastatic (or, indeed, invasive) behaviour is unlikely, because each of these activities involves multiple, apparently individual, processes (eg adhesion, secretion of extracellular matrixdigesting enzymes, locomotion etc). However, some experimental evidence does exist that some genes act to specifically suppress one or more properties which are essential for metastasis. There is some tantalising evidence that one such gene may operate in modulating metastasis behaviour in
human breast cancer.

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13
Q

16952, 22734 – Proto-oncogenes
1: are rendered incapable of transcribing growth-related proteins following chromosomal translocation
2: are, in the normal cell, inactive DNA sequences without physiological action
3: may be activated into functional oncogenes (c-onco-genes) by mutation of a specific gene site
4: may be activated by destruction of adjacent controller genes, which normally suppress their action

A

FFTT
Robbins 5th ed. Chapter: 7 Pages: 259 et seq. Response 1 is false; gene sequences may be
activated (removed from a ‘suppressor’ or inserted near an ‘activator’) by translocation. For response 2, proto-oncogenes are, in the normal cell, the activators and switches (‘on’ and ‘off’) for normal growth. Responses 3 and 4 outline two of the ways in which normal proto-oncogenes may be influenced to become oncogenes (also referred to as c-oncogenes). [Cellular] oncogenes are perverted proto-oncogenes (growth genes).

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14
Q

16795, 16968 – S: DNA damage by chemicals is not necessarily carcinogenic because R: DNA damage can be repaired by cellular enzyme systems.

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
Whether they act as complete, direct or indirect initiators, the action of carcinogenic initiators is presumed to be because they cause permanent alteration to the DNA, by an action which is rapid and irreversible. It also has ‘memory’, in that a threshold dose is effective when given either in a single dose or as divided doses. The written evidence for this statement and reason is, perhaps, not as direct as I would like. The evidence for repair of DNA following radiation injury is very strong. Single strand breaks are rapidly repaired (within minutes) and double strand breaks may also be repaired, usually less promptly. Some are irreparable - these may lead to cell death or become the initial steps of oncogenesis. By implication, the same should be true for chemicals, but a direct and definitive statement to this effect cannot be found in Robbins.

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15
Q

22739 – DNA viral carcinogenesis
1: is usually a single step (single hit) process
2: may act by neutralising the influence of growth-inhibiting gene(s)
3: may involve incorporation of viral oncogene into host DNA
4: may activate growth-promoting gene(s)

A

FTTT
Robbins 6th ed. Pages: 311

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16
Q

17799 – S: Genes controlling apoptosis such as p53 are believed to be important in controlling/preventing growth of potential cancer cells because R: apoptosis genes arrest the mitotic process of cells with DNA damaged by mutagenic agents which allows time for DNA repair or, if repair does not occur, induces cell autodestruction.

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S.
There is no evidence that p53 gene expression is necessary for normal cell division. Once cells are exposed to mutagenic agents such as chemicals or radiation, the p53 protein (normally with very short half-life) is stabilised and accumulates in the nucleus, where it binds to DNA, causing cells to arrest in the G1 phase. This allows time for DNA repair mechanisms to work. If this does not occur, the cell undergoes apoptotic death. p53 is widely active and has been dubbed ‘guardian of the genome’.

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17
Q

10362 – What is the most common genetic change underlying the development of tumours?
A. Somatic activation of the ras proto-oncogene
B. Activation of the c-myc gene by chromosomal rearrangement
C. Inherited inactivation of the p53 gene
D. Loss of the p53 gene by somatic mutation
E. Point mutation of the Rb gene

A

D

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18
Q

25390 – Tumour necrosis factor
1: is synthesized by macrophages
2: is present in lower than normal amounts in HIV infected individuals
3: may induce acute phase protein synthesis in vascular endothelial cells
4: may be an important mediator in endotoxic shock

A

TFFT
Roitt 9th ed. CHAPTER: 7 PAGE: 181 Robbins 5th ed. Page: 226

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19
Q

19761 – Tumour suppressor genes
A. are commonly found to be mutated in the germ cells of cancer patients
B. have no known physiologic function
C. are present in increased copy numbers in tumour cells
D. include p53 and the retinoblastoma gene
E. are each related to a specific type of tumour

A

D
Robbins 6th ed. Pages: 291

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20
Q

23009 – Tumour angiogenesis factor
1: is uniquely tumour derived
2: stimulates fibroblast growth
3: binds to steroid receptors
4: belongs to a family of heparin-binding growth factors

A

FTFT
Robbins 6th ed. Chapter: 8 Pages: 301

21
Q

25458 – The HLA-B27 antigen occurs with unusual frequency in patients with
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. psoriasis
C. diabetes mellitus
D. Reiter’s syndrome
E. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

D
Roitt 8th ed. Page: 356

22
Q

17805 – S: Oncogenic viruses all contain oncogenes which are virtually or actually identical with proto-oncogenes present in normal cells because R: cancer-causing viruses are oncogenic only because of the actions of proto-oncogene- homologous DNA.

A

both S and R and false
Some oncogenic DNA viruses do contain DNA sequences which have close homology with normal proto-oncogenes. However, there are other ways by which oncogenic viruses influence the proliferative activity of the cell. For example, translocation may separate a proto-oncogene from its controlling suppressor gene or may relocate a proto-oncogene gene (usually normally controlled) adjacent to a promoter gene (eg EBV in causation of lymphoma). RNA viruses do not contain DNA and so cannot ‘contain’ oncogenes per se! It is true that they cause transcription of cDNA which may function as a c-oncogene.

23
Q

17811 – S: Oncogenesis probably involves multiple sequential DNA mutations before neoplastic behaviour develops because R: all human cancers which have been analysed in detail have been found to have mutations which involve both activation of promoter genes and loss of cancer suppressor genes.

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
“Every human cancer that has been analysed reveals multiple genetic alterations involving activation of several oncogenes and loss of two or more cancer suppressor genes. Each of these alterations represents a crucial step in the progression from a normal cell to a malignant tumour.” - Robbins.
Robbins also quotes the evidence relating to one or more ‘master mutator genes’ which may point to some overall control (or, more specifically, its loss) of mutation. Note here the APC gene which appears to regulate or influence mutations at hundreds (at least) of other loci.

24
Q
A
25
Q

16931 – Carcinogenesis induced by DNA viruses
1: is usually a single step (‘single hit’) process
2: may act by neutralising growth-inhibiting molecules
3: may involve incorporation of viral oncogene into host DNA
4: may cause stimulation of function of growth-promoting protein(s)

A

FTTT
Each of items 2, 3 and 4 is correct under different circumstances and with various viruses. However ?? studies provide firm evidence that cancer, even when caused by highly oncogenic viruses, is a multistep process?. This section of Robbins also deals with other important concepts of viral oncogenesis eg the cell must survive the infection; early transcribed genes are essential for oncogenic transformation, they are incorporated stably into the host cell genome (and subsequent generations) and they interrupt the subsequent replication of the late viral genes, thus preventing
assembly of the complete virus.

26
Q

16962 – S: The effects of carcinogenic promoters are thought to be potentially reversible because R: tumours do not eventuate if the ‘promoter-effective’ dose is applied prior to the application of the appropriate initiator.

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
Promoters are not electrophilic compounds and do not damage DNA. They induce clonal proliferation of initiated cells and influence their differentiation programmes. They appear to bring about these changes by the use of existing normal growth-promoting physiologic transduction pathways, not by inducing new ones.

27
Q

16855 – Extracellular matrix degradation by tumour cells, together with the products of such matrix breakdown, gives rise to
1: angiogenesis factors
2: chemotaxis factors
3: growth factors
4: a physical passage for tumour cell migration

A

TTTT
The discussion is the same as for the previous question: any increase in matrix/tumour cell binding; anything which increases matrix destruction (response 2); any factor which makes space or growth factors or chemotactic factors, will increase the invasion/metastatic potential of a malignant neoplasm. There is excellent, and increasing, evidence that matrix breakdown products are very active in all of these areas for neoplasia (and for the pathophysiological counterpart - wound healing).

28
Q

17793 – S: Carcinomas develop through ‘dedifferentiation’ of normal, differentiated, cells because R: carcinomas result from repression of normal gene activity in differentiated, mature cells which revert to ‘immature’ cells.

A

both S and R are false
Cancers arise from mutations in the DNA of cells. Such mutations will not induce growth in terminally differentiated cells which are not undergoing proliferation (ie are not dividing). There is general agreement that most, if not all, clinical cancers are the result of multiple mutations occurring sequentially in a clone of proliferating cells ie stem cells from which the resident cell population of the particular tissue derives its adult cell population.

29
Q

12668 – S: Under abnormal circumstances cells produce substances (eg hormones) which differ from their customary products because R: the DNA repression in a differentiated cell is reversible

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
All somatic nucleated cells in a given individual have the same basic content of genes. Sequential repression of selected genes takes place during normal differentiation, in a manner that is characteristic for the tissue in question. These changes are often reversible, and under abnormal conditions (usually neoplasia) a given cell may produce an inappropriate product, eg a hormone (S true, R true and is a valid explanation of S).

30
Q

9815 – The presence of lymph node metastases is associated with a significant reduction in disease-free survival in the following malignancies
1: adenocarcinoma of the colon
2: adenocarcinoma of the breast
3: papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
4: anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid

A

TTFF
Robbins, 6th ed, Ch 18; Ch 25 and Ch 26

31
Q

13047 – Involvement of lymph nodes is characteristically seen in
1: toxoplasmosis
2: secondary syphilis
3: tertiary syphilis
4: pulmonary tuberculosis in childhood

A

TTFT
Involvement of lymph nodes represents an attempt by the body to prevent spread of infection from some local site, and in many cases is a forerunner to and/or a manifestation of haematogenous spread. Microbes are usually readily visible in biopsy material. Lymph node involvement is characteristically seen in a variety of disease, including toxoplasmosis (A true), the secondary stage of syphilis (B true), primary pulmonary tuberculosis (D true), but not in tertiary syphilis, where the clinical manifestations are vasculitis and chronic inflammation (C false). These tertiary lesions (gummas) are presumed to result from the host’s response to treponemal antigens although they usually contain few or no visible spirochaetes.

32
Q

16865 – When complicated by extensive metastatic spread, the following
cancers characteristically cause hypercalcaemia
1: kidney
2: lung
3: breast
4: prostate

A

TTTF
Hypercalcaemia is probably the commonest paraneoplastic syndrome. In some cancers, this is simply a calcaemic effect of rapid osteolysis; in others the elaboration of a calcaemic tumour secretion (PTH-like; TNF-alpha) is either known or assumed to cause raised plasma calcium - in such discussions, the question of why some cancers cause rapid bone destruction obviously raises the same possibilities! With tumours 1, 2 and 3, both mechanisms are thought to be active. Bone lysis is the exception in prostatic cancer (normally osteoblastic), as is the corresponding (presumably) hypercalcemia.

33
Q

14878, 16015, 16801 – The closest association between development of malignancy and radiation is seen with
A. thyroid
B. salivary gland
C. bone
D. leukaemia
E. breast

A

D
Refer to Robbins, 6th Ed, Ch 8, page 310-311.
Thyroid papillary cancer is a major risk following childhood head and neck radiation, often for trivial problems. The story of bone cancer following repeated ingestion of radium in young women who painted watch dials is (in)famous (they ‘pointed’ their brushes by moistening them with their tongues!). Leukaemia > thyroid > breast, lungs, salivary
gland > skin, bone, GI oncogenesis is the hierarchy experience of fluoroscopy, and post-Hiroshima, Nagasaki, Marshall Islands and Chernobyl epidemics. CML does not share the radiation risk seen with other leukaemias.

34
Q

15563 – Recognised sequelae of exposure to ionising radiation include
1: breast cancer
2: pericarditis
3: endarteritis obliterans (subintimal fibrosis)
4: peritibular fibrosis and glomerular hyalinization

A

TTTT
Refer to Robbins, 6th Ed, page 428-429

35
Q

25988 – In which of the following human neoplasms has ionising radiation
been demonstrated as one of the known carcinogens?
1: carcinoma of the lung
2: osteosarcoma
3: carcinoma of thyroid
4: carcinoma of the breast

A

TTTT
Robbins 5th Edition Chapter:7, 27 PAGE: 285; 1236

36
Q

15553 – Examples of metaplasia include
1: myositis ossificans
2: Barretts’ oesophagus
3: skin warts
4: keratoacanthoma

A

TTFF
Refer to Robbins, 6th Ed, page 33, 38, 1181

37
Q

15988 – S: Epithelial metaplasia in considered to be an adaptive response to a change in the cell environment because R: epithelial metaplasia does not revert to normal morphology following cessation of the causal injury.

A

S is true and R is false
Metaplasia is an adaptive response to chronic cell injury. Moreover, influences predisposing to such metaplasia, if persistent, may induce cancerous transformation in the metaplastic epithelium. Metaplasia is thought to be caused by the environmental change inducing, in differentiating progeny of ‘stem cells’, expression of different genes, thus resulting in a different phenotypic expression (ie a different adult cell). With removal of the environmental injury, metaplastic cells die off and the stem cells regenerate under the now normal environmental situation - usually back to normal.

38
Q

14828 – Strong circumstantial evidence suggesting a viral aetiology is available for
1: astrocytoma
2: carcinoma of the nasopharynx
3: carcinoma of the pancreas
4: carcinoma of the liver

A

FTFT
Refer to Robbins, 6th Ed, Ch 8, page 313-314
2: EBV

39
Q

16831 – The human papilloma virus (HPV) has been causally implicated in the genesis of
1: nasopharyngeal cancer
2: cancer of the uterine cervix
3: Hodgkin’s disease, nodular sclerosing type
4: skin cancer in individuals with inherited or induced (renal transplant) cell-mediated immune defects

A

FTFT
There is close association of HPV (types 16, 18 & 31) with anogenital cancers (especially cervix). HPV (multiple strains) causes venereally acquired condyloma acuminatum. High risk HPV strains (16,18 & 31):
(a) Often become incorporated in the host genome
(b) Co-operate in cultured cells with the ras oncogene to form tumourigenic foci; and
(c) The probable transforming sequences of HPV are consistently/mostly found in cancer cells from clinical CIN and invasive cancer.
Defective cell-mediated immunity - CMI (hereditary, renal transplant immunosuppression), HPV (5, 8, 14) and
sunlight appear to interplay in formation of skin cancer.

40
Q

13130 – Neoplasms in which thrombophlebitis migrans is a recognised complication include carcinoma of the
1: stomach
2: pancreas
3: kidney
4: lung

A

TTTT
Thrombophlebitis migrans, sometimes complicates deep seated cancer, eg of the pancreas, stomach, kidney, lung (A,B,C and D true). In these circumstances inflammation of the vessel wall is not a feature, and the lesion may be a manifestation of low grade disseminated intravascular coagulation.

41
Q

9055 – A lung hamartoma may contain
1: cartilage
2: respiratory epithelium
3: neoplastic neuroendocrine cells
4: glial tissue

A

TTFF
Robbins, 6th ed, Ch 8 and Ch 16

42
Q

25992 – Which of the following conditions is/are classifiable as hamartomata?
1: cystic hygroma
2: struma ovarii
3: small intestinal polyp (Peutz-Jehger type)
4: branchial cysts

A

TFTF
Robbins 6th ed. PAGES:263; 483; 533; 826; 1074

43
Q

23024 – Sensitivity of cancers to radiotherapy is enhanced by
1: ability to repair DNA
2: central hypoxia
3: proximity to a radioresponsive tissue of origin
4: decreased level of specialization

A

FFFT
Robbins 6th ed. Chapter: 9 Page: 425-430

44
Q

10488 – A core biopsy on a breast lesion reports the following feature. Answer in each case whether excisional biopsy is required to diagnose or exclude associated invasive carcinoma.
1: A papillary lesion
2: Atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH)
3: Intraduct papilloma
4: Radial scar
5: Ductal carcinoma in-situ (DCIS)

A

TTTTT
All of the above reponses are true. In each case, because the core biopsy has identified a proliferative lesion, there may be adjacent invasive carcinoma and therefore full excision of the lesion is required.

45
Q

25987 – Common sites for metastatic breast carcinoma include
1: liver
2: adrenal gland
3: skin
4: skeletal muscle

A

TTTF
Robbins PAGE: 1200.

46
Q

10478 – In the evaluation of a breast biopsy showing changes of fibrocystic disease, the likelihood of subsequent development of carcinoma is significantly increased by the histological appearance of
1: florid fibroplasia
2: florid epithelial hyperplasia without cellular atypia
3: extensive apocrine metaplasia
4: atypical lobular hyperplasia

A

FTFT
In the pathology of ‘fibrocystic disease’ of the breast , pathological components exhibiting any degree of epithelial hyperplasia (B and D true) and/or epithelial atypia (D true) carry an increased risk of subsequent development of carcinoma. Apocrine metaplasia alone (C false) and fibrosis do not carry cancer risk above the normal (A false).

47
Q

15583 – An increased risk for developing breast cancer is associated with
1: positive family history for breast cancer
2: early first pregnancy
3: late menarche
4: obesity

A

TFFT
Refer to Robbins, 6th Ed, Ch 25, page 1105-1106. Pending review Oct 03.

48
Q

8737 – Paget’s disease of the nipple
1: is not a form of ductal carcinoma in situ
2: has characteristic cells which invade the lower epidermis
3: is associated with underlying adenocarcinoma
4: has Paget cells which often contain mucopolysaccharide

A

FTTT
Robbins, 6th ed, Ch 25