Infection Flashcards

1
Q

25595 – In relation to the toxins of Staphylococcus aureus
1: the enterotoxins are superantigens
2: most are cell wall associated
3: the systemic effects of toxic shock syndrome toxin are mediated by the release of cytokines
4: none have haemolytic activity

A

TFTF
Robbins 5th ed. Page: 335

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2
Q

13992 – Virulence factors found associated with Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except
A. the enzyme coagulase
B. surface receptors that enable them to bind to host cells
C. enterotoxins
D. a variety of lytic enzymes (lysins)
E. lipid A endotoxin

A

E
Refer to Textbook of Surgery, Robbins, 6th Ed, Ch 9, page 365

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3
Q

22124 – Pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumonia
1: commonly causes residual fibrosis in the affected area of lung
2: is uniformly responsive to penicillin therapy
3: results in blood shunting through affected lung
4: is usually a community acquired infection

A

FFTT
Robbins 5th ed. Chapter: 15 Pages: 694-696

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4
Q

15949 – S: Pneumococcal pneumonia causes inflammation without significant lung necrosis because R: pneumococci induce chemotaxis, but elaborate no major toxins.

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
There is some necrosis of pneumocytes - probably more from the attentions of leukocyte enzymes and oxidising free radicals than from the pneumococci. However, there is no tissue necrosis as we mean the term (eg staphylococcal abscess; infarct), with destruction of alveolar wall lattice-work. Therefore, regeneration of pneumocytes and resolution of inflammation leads to restoration of normality. Pneumococci produce a-haemolysis ie there is some tissue damage possible, but this is negligible - hence elaborate no major toxins.

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5
Q

8707 – The bacterium Enterococcus faecalis
1: is an increasingly important nosocomial pathogen
2: is susceptible to cephalosporins
3: reveals increasing resistance to vancomycin
4: should be considered in intra-abdominal sepsis originating from the upper gastrointestinal tract

A

TFTT
Smith & Payne, Aust NZJ, Surgery 1994; Smith & Payne, Integrated Basic Surgical Sciences, Ch
37.2

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6
Q

11672, 25984 – Cell walls of Gram-negative bacteria
1: have proteinaceous pores (porins) in the outer membrane
2: are a useful taxonomic aid
3: contain endotoxin in the form of lipopolysaccharide
4: may act as a barrier to the entry of antimicrobials

A

TTTT
J.M.B. Smith.
Although thinner than the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria, the cell wall of Gram-negatives is more complex and is responsible for many of the intrinsic properties of Gram-negatives. This applies especially to the so-called outer membrane (OM) - a lipid bilayer external to the peptidoglycan structural backbone. Most antibiotics are not lipid soluble and have difficulty diffusing passively through this membrane; in order to penetrate they must disrupt the layer (eg cationic compounds such as gentamicin), be carried actively through the membrane, or pass through it via the water filled porin channels that bisect the membrane (eg water soluble antibiotics of sufficiently small molecular size). Extruding from the surface of the OM is the polysaccharide ‘tail’ of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS). The lipid A component of LPS is the classical endotoxin of Gram-negatives (although endotoxin and LPS are often used synonymously), while the polysaccharide portion is used in the taxonomy of many Gram-negatives (O or somatic antigen).

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7
Q

21788 – Gram negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide complexes, when injected intravenously
1: produce arteriolar dilatation
2: activate complement through the alternate pathway
3: injure endothelial cell membranes
4: inhibit intrinsic pathways of coagulation

A

TTTF
Robbins 6th ed. Page: 134-136

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8
Q

12991 – In patients with Gram-negative septicaemia, shock is commonly caused by
1: bacterial endotoxins
2: bacterial exotoxins
3: bacterial lipopolysaccharide
4: products of complement activation

A

TFTT
Endotoxins are a feature of Gram negative bacteria, and are associated with the lipopolysaccharide portion, in particular the lipid A (glycolipid), of the outer membrane of the cell wall. Liberation of these endotoxins from dying bacteria is responsible for the classical ‘shock’ seen in Gram negative septicaemia (A and C true); exotoxins are only rarely of significance in Gram negative bacteria (eg exotoxin A of Pseudomonas aeruginosa) and have more specific actions (B false). Pathophysiological features associated with the liberation of endotoxin include complement activation (D true), fever, and irreversible collapse of the microvascular circulation.

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9
Q

14813 – The bowel commensal Escherichia coli is a major causative agent of
1: haemorrhagic colitis
2: bacteraemic episodes in the early stages of peritonitis
3: vaginitis
4: osteomyelitis in IV drug abusers

A

TTFT
Refer to Robbins, 6th Ed, Ch 18, 24, page 807-809, 1039, 793, 1230.

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10
Q

25579 – Pseudomonas aeruginosa is
1: one of the few Gram negatives to elaborate a significant exotoxin
2: widely distributed in the hospital environment
3: readily contained by normal host defences
4: an important pathogen in burns units

A

TTTT
Robbins 5th ed. Pages: 352-353

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11
Q

25584 – Anaerobic Gram negative bacteria
1: are important pathogens following faecal leakage during colonic surgery
2: are important pathogens in lung abscesses following aspiration
3: are frequently associated with more oxygen tolerant microbes in lesions
4: include Clostridium perfringens

A

TTTF
Robbins 5th ed. Pages: 338-340
4: gram-positive anaerobes

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12
Q

25564 – The obligate anaerobe Bacteroides fragilis
1: is seldom resistant to clindamycin
2: has a capsule which is significant in abscess formation
3: is the most common anaerobe associated with intra-abdominal sepsis
4: is the only gut anaerobe associated with intra-abdominal abscesses

A

FTTF
Robbins 5th ed. Page: 339-340 Aust. NZ Journal Surgery

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13
Q

8717 – With intra-abdominal abscesses involving Bacteroides fragilis
1: surgical intervention is required wherever possible
2: the presence of the microbes polysaccharide capsule is an important virulence factor
3: metronidazole alone is satisfactory cover during any attempted needle aspiration process
4: other microbes are unlikely to be involved

A

TTFF
Smith & Payne, Aust, NZ Journal 1994; Smith & Payne, Integrated Basic Surgical Sciences, Ch 37.2

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14
Q

12986 – Bacterial exotoxins
1: sometimes produce severe local and distant effects
2: are generally more toxic than endotoxins
3: often stimulate the production of antibodies which provide a good measure of immunity
4: are characteristically complex lipopolysaccharide molecules

A

TTTF
Exotoxins may produce severe local effects, as in gas gangrene, and serious effects at sites distant from the portal of entry, as in tetanus (A true). Bacterial exotoxins are classically proteinaceous in nature (D false), as compared to endotoxins which are lipopolysaccharide. They are highly immunogenic (C true). They are secreted during the growth of many Gram positive bacteria (eg staphylococci, streptococci, corynebacteria, clostridia), unlike endotoxins which are liberated from the
cell wall of Gram negative bacteria following lysis. As a general rule, exotoxins are more potent than endotoxins (B true) and tend to have a more specific site of action.

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15
Q

25484 – Bacterial exotoxins differ from endotoxins in being
1: lipopolysaccharide in nature
2: convertible into toxoids
3: predominantly heat stable
4: cell wall associated

A

FTFT
Update Mp PAGE: 8 IBSS, Ch 37.2, p782-793.

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16
Q

11682, 25479 – Exotoxins are produced by
1: Corynebacterium diphtheria
2: Clostridium difficile
3: Staphylococcus aureus
4: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

TTTT
Robbins 5th ed. Pages: 318; 319; 335-340 Microbiology Update: PMP8.
Bacteria classically elaborate two types of toxins - exotoxins which are proteinaceous high molecular weight, antigenic compounds actively secreted by growing bacterial cells and which can have a variety of functions (eg tetanus toxin, staphylococcal enterotoxins), and endotoxins which are the lipid A portion of the outer membrane lipopolysaccharide component of the Gram-negative cell wall. Endotoxins are highly inflammatory compounds and initiate a series of events (starting with activation of excessive amounts
of cytokines such as tumour necrosis factor with subsequent vascular endothelial damage) leading to the classic endotoxic or septic shock syndrome (NB a similar series of events can be induced by some toxins from Gram-positive bacteria). As Gram-positives do not posses an outer membrane in the cell wall structure, endotoxins are limited to Gram-negative bacteria (eg E. coli, pseudomonads). In comparison, few Gram-negatives elaborate exotoxins which are a feature of Gram-positive bacteria (eg staphylococci, clostridia). Pseudomonas aeruginosa is one of the few Gram-negatives to excrete a significant exotoxin.

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17
Q

22063 – Lesions in which negligible polymorph infiltration accompanies extensive tissue injury include
1: streptococcal myositis
2: clostridial myositis
3: Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis
4: tuberculosis lymphadenitis

A

FTTT
Robbins 6th ed. CHAPTER: 9 Pages: 367; 369; 379

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18
Q

10383, 15177 – Necrotising fasciitis
1: commonly involves the deep underlying muscle
2: can be monomicrobial in aetiology
3: has diabetes mellitus as one of the common predisposing factors
4: always involves obligate anaerobes

A

FTTF
Refer to Smith & Payne, ANZ Journal of Surgery 1994.
Necrotising fasciitis involves the areolar
tissue layers under the skin [really the fibrous tissue overlying muscles (superficial) and structures such as nerves and blood vessels (deep fascia)]. Where muscle is involved, the term myositis is applicable; in contrast to fasciitis, the primary location of infection is skeletal muscle. Although group A streptococcal (Streptococcus pyogenes) necrotising fasciitis has received recent publicity world wide (‘the flesh eating bug’), this bacterium is not the dominant cause of necrotising fasciitis. The microbial aetiology is usually polymicrobial, involving at least one obligate anaerobe (eg peptostreptococci) in combination with one or more facultative anaerobes (eg Gram-negative enteric bacilli, Staphylococcus aureus, St. pyogenes) or aerobic (eg Pseudomonas aeruginosa) species. S. aureus and St. pyogenes appear more commonly when infections involve the extremities or head and neck region. Monomicrobial infections (eg with S. aureus) occurs in only about 10% of cases. Predisposing associations include diabetes and peripheral vascular disease, trauma, alcoholism, surgery and the use of anti-inflammatory agents (eg NSAIDs). Treatment strategies include excision (with a margin) of involved tissues, and appropriate antimicrobial therapy. In light of the known causal agents, empiric therapy with the likes of cefuroxime (anti-staphylococcal and streptococcal) plus
ciprofloxacin (anti-Gram negative bacilli) plus clindamycin or metronidazole (for anaerobes) makes sense. On a pharmacokinetic bases, penicillin and flucloxacillin would appear inferior to the likes of cefuroxime for staphylococci and streptococci. Following microbiological investigations, more specific
therapy can be initiated.

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19
Q

25589 – Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to gas gangrene (clostridial myonecrosis)
A. disease is exacerbated by the presence of foreign bodies
B. is associated with marked oedema and necrosis of involved muscle
C. lesions reveal marked infiltration by neutrophils
D. blood may appear completely haemolysed in the terminal stages
E. gas bubbles appear early in the gangrenous tissues

A

C
Robbins 5th ed. Page: 339

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20
Q

25605 – Clostridial myonecrosis
1: is most commonly caused by Clostridium septicum
2: commonly involves tissues with an impaired blood supply
3: has a mortality rate less than 5%
4: apart from debridement, requires the use of high dose gentamicin therapy

A

FTFF
Aust. N.Z.J. Surgery Paper Textbook Surgery - Clunie 97
1: c. perfringens
4: gent not effective in anaeorobes

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21
Q

25509 – Clostridium perfringens
1: is an obligate aerobe
2: relies on the presence of a capsule for its virulence
3: is susceptible to metronidazole
4: is an important microbe to be considered when formulating antibiotic prophylaxis for lower limb amputation

A

FFTT
Robbins 5th ed. Antibiotic Supplement
1/2: gram +ve anaerobes

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22
Q

18304 – Which one of the following statements applies most correctly to synergistic gangrene (chronic progressive bacterial gangrene)?
A. Crepitus is an early physical sign
B. The presence of crepitus confirms clostridial infection
C. The overall mortality rate is about 10%
D. Hyperbaric oxygen is the treatment of choice
E. Clostridium perfringens is usually involved in the process

A

C
Synergistic gangrene occurs in debilitated patients and has a significant mortality of around 10% (C). Crepitus is not usually an early sign and if present, does not confirm clostridial infection. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is adjunctive to surgery, and Clostridium perfringens is not the common organism.

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23
Q

12674 – S: Synergistic gangrene responds dramatically to high doses of penicillin because R: Synergistic gangrene is typically due to clostridial infection

A

both S and R are false
Synergistic bacterial gangrene is caused by anaerobic streptococci in association with other bacteria, eg Proteus, pseudomonas, Staphylococcus aureus, beta-haemolytic streptococci, anaerobes (R false). The condition presents with swelling and pain followed by necrosis of local skin and subcutaneous tissues. Wide excision and drainage are mandatory; antibiotic therapy is only complementary (S false).

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24
Q

12969 – Principles to be followed in the treatment of tetanus include
1: surgical excision of the wound which is left open
2: administration of penicillin intravenously
3: administration of human hyperimmune globulin intramuscularly
4: sedation of the patient and respiratory support

A

TTTT
Tetanus is attributed to the anaerobic spore former, Clostridium tetani. Spores in the environment enter cutaneous wounds, and if conditions for germination and growth of the microbe occur - eg necrotic devitalised tissue, anaerobic conditions - the tetanus exotoxin is produced and liberated. This is a neurotoxin which has been referred to as tetanospasmin. Prevention of such infections, which may follow apparently minor skin trauma, therefore, relies on preventing conditions suitable for the growth of the anaerobe. Dead tissue should be excised from wounds which should be left open, ie aerobic (A true). Treatment consists of high doses of penicillin (B true) and the use of hyperimmune globulin (C true) in an attempt to convey some degree of passive immunity to the toxin. The main effect of the toxin is muscle hyperirritability. The toxin blocks inhibitory neurones in the CNS so that stimulatory signals remain unopposed and muscles, including those in the jaw and respiratory system, are constantly stimulated (D true). NB. IV for clinical (active) desease, but in prophylaxis/prevention give IM (C true).

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25
Q

15960 – In viral hepatitis A, the main clinical effects are due to damage to hepatocytes, caused by
A. competitive cell receptor blockade by viral capsid
B. subversion of cell metabolism to virus production
C. inactivation of cyclic-AMP by lymphokines
D. lymphocyte-mediated cytolysis
E. gamma-interferon production by lymphocytes

A

D
The clinical manifestations of hepatitis (A, B, C, etc) are insignificant during the prodromal phase while an immune response is being mounted. Following the immune reaction, the main event is the Tc-mediated destruction of infected hepatocytes (virus-MHC-I/Tc interaction). There may also be some effects of immune complex deposition with the usual common manifestations in skin, joints etc. as the free virus gets ‘mopped up’ by the immunoglobulin which is manufactured by plasma cells, synchronous with T cell production.

26
Q

11763 – In relation to hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection
1: the presence of antibody to the HBV surface antigen, HBsAg, is considered to represent an immune state
2: antibody to HBsAg (anti-HBs) is formed following successful vaccination with Hepatitis B vaccine
3: a positive test for HBs Ag indicates potential infectivity
4: the Hepatitis B vaccine utilises a live attenuated virus

A

TTTF
Hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection is one of the most important blood borne diseases of relevance to surgeons. Health care workers may be immune to this disease: ie they possess antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs), due to prior immunisation or infection. Those who suspect or know they have had significant contact and/or exposure (eg needle stick injury) with a HBV carrier (ie a person who is positive for the hepatitis B surface antigen, HBsAg) should be directed to an appropriate clinician for testing of their immunological status to HBV. At present, there are three hepatitis B vaccines available - all are non-infectious sub-unit vaccines derived from genetically engineered yeast cells. Seroconversion (immunity) occurs in most subjects after two vaccine doses but should never be assumed without serological proof. Three doses are normally given. Booster doses are presently recommended, at 5-year intervals for health care workers. Protective immunity is recognised by an anti-HBs response (ie development of antibody to HBsAg). This test becomes positive in most people after recovery from acute infection with HBV, and also in persons successfully vaccinated. A positive test for HBs Ag indicates active infection and potential infectivity. A low percentage of acutely infected individuals develop chronic infection and remain HBsAg positive. Such ‘carrier’ rates may reach around 1:1000 or greater in some populations.

The other HBV antigen of importance is the ‘e’ or early antigen (HBeAg). Persons with circulating ‘e’ antigen (HBeAg positive) pose a greater risk of infection to contacts than those who are HBsAg positive but HBeAg negative. While HBeAg has been recommended as identifying infectious individuals, it does not reliably identify all infectious people. HBV contains double stranded DNA and detection of HBV DNA provides a measure of how much HBV is present in a sample, and is therefore
a direct marker of infectivity. Rules for recipients to follow after exposure to possible HBV-containing (donor) blood:
* If recipient HBsAg positive - already infected, no prophylaxis.
* If recipient anti-HBs positive (> 10iu|L) - immune, no prophylaxis.
* If recipient anti-HBs negative or <10iu|L (and HBsAg negative) - possibly susceptible, give hepatitis B vaccine regardless of donor (source) status. If donor (source) blood available and is infectious (ie HBsAg positive), give as well hepatitis B immunoglobulin (as soon as possible but within 7 days). If donor blood unavailable, the use of immunoglobulin is controversial, and depends on the perceived risk of the exposure.

27
Q

15573 – Herpes viruses
1: are important pathogens following organ transplantation
2: have been associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma
3: have a tendency to become latent following primary infection
4: do not induce a characteristic cytopathic change in infected cells

A

TTTF
Refer to Robbins, 6th, Ch 8, page 313; Ch 9, page 359-361

28
Q

12981 – Hydatid disease in Australasia
1: is a zoonosis
2: follows ingestion of ova
3: is acquired from dogs
4: cannot be effectively treated chemotherapeutically

A

TTTT
Hydatid disease has a primary sheep/dog cycle in Australasia, ie. It is a zoonosis (A true). Human disease results from ingestion or inhalation of ova of the tapeworm (Echinococcus granulosus) which resides in the dog intestine. Tape worm segments (proglottids) containing eggs (ova) are in the dog’s faeces (C true). Dogs, but not humans, become infected by eating sheep offal (eg. Liver, lungs) containing hydatid cysts (B false). The only really effective treatment of hydatid disease in humans, is surgical removal of cysts. Chemotherapy (eg. Mebendazole type drugs) is generally ineffective (D true).

29
Q

9780 – In relation to hydatid disease in humans
1: infection occurs following ingestion of infected sheep meat
2: albendazole is a chemotherapeutic consideration in some cases
3: the parasite involved is Taenia solium
4: less than 10% of cysts are found in the liver

A

FTFF
Robbins, 6th ed, Ch 9. Question updated 2 Dec 2002.
3: Echinococcus granulosus

30
Q

12974 – Lobar pneumonia
1: is classically due to the organism Streptococcus pneumoniae
2: on resolution, leaves few functional abnormalities
3: is a disease, especially, of otherwise healthy young adults
4: is usually not accompanied by a bacteraemia

A

TTTF
Lobar pneumonia is classically due to the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae (the pneumococcus) a microbe which owes its virulence to the presence of a capsule (A true). No bacterial toxins are involved. This capsule allows the bacteria to escape the process of phagocytosis by inhibiting attachment; hence bacteraemia and blood borne spread are features of major pneumococcal infections such as lobar pneumonia (D false). The pathogenesis centres around survival and growth of the microbe in the lung parenchyma, the resulting host inflammatory response to this foreign material being responsible for lung consolidation. The exudate is absorbed once the bacteria are removed leaving few, if any, functional abnormalities (B true). The disease appears to occur predominantly in otherwise healthy adolescents and young adults (C true), in contrast to most other pneumonias which tend to have a predilection for the extremes of age and for those with underlying lung pathology (eg virus disease, CORD).

31
Q

15944 – Pneumocystis carinii infection
1: is due to a microbe which results in intracellular colonisation of host cells (Type 2 pneumocytes)
2: causes disease only in immunocompromised hosts
3: commonly causes respiratory failure
4: induces granulomatous inflammation

A

FTTF
The organism (classified currently as fungal) exists within the lung of an infected patients in an extracellular environment, virtually exclusively confined to the alveolar spaces, causing death from progressive respiratory failure. It causes disease only in immunocompromised patients (AIDS; anticancer chemotherapy; patients receiving organ transplants; steroid therapy; severe malnutrition). In the clinical situations outlined, there is generally no recognisable inflammatory response of any sort.

32
Q

23284 – Pneumocystis carinii infection
1: usually produces a protective immune reaction in childhood
2: characteristically produces around 20 micron cysts
3: is usually cleared by treatment with folic acid
4: induces granulomatous inflammation

A

TFFF
Robbins 6th ed. Chapter: 7; 9 Pages: 247; 381-382

33
Q

25574 – Regarding tuberculosis
1: most primary cases are self-terminating
2: tuberculin anergy may be seen with overwhelming disseminated disease
3: Mycobacterium tuberculosis has no known exotoxins
4: disease in AIDS patients is often widely disseminated and atypical

A

TTTT
Robbins 5th ed. Pages: 324-327

34
Q

25529 – Candida albicans
1: is an important microbe to consider with intra-abdominal infections arising following gastric surgery
2: cannot induce septic shock and multiorgan failure
3: reveals increasing resistance to fluconazole
4: is an important catheter-related pathogen

A

TFTT
ANZ Journal of Surgery Smith & Payne

35
Q

25610 – Infection by the yeast Candida albicans
1: is frequently associated with long-term intravascular catheterization
2: may be spread via hands in hospitals
3: invariably results in positive blood cultures
4: can be treated with metronidazole

A

TTFF
Smith & Payne A.N.Z. Journal ‘94

36
Q

25534 – Invasive Candida infection
1: is often associated with colonized intravascular lines
2: is invariably caused by Candida krusei
3: can be treated with fluconazole in most surgical patients
4: results in positive blood cultures in over 80% of patients

A

TFTF
Aust. N.Z.J. Surgery paper Textbook Surgery - Clunie ‘97

37
Q

13057 – ‘Slow viruses’ (prions) are
1: characterised by a long incubation period
2: responsible for Creutzfeldt-Jakob encephalopathy
3: resistant to normal autoclaving procedures ie.15psi (121 degrees C) for 15 minutes
4: so called because the resultant diseases are chronic

A

TTTF
‘Slow viruses’ are so named because of their long incubation period; the disease appears gradually and progresses to death months or years after the agent enters the body (A true). In slow virus infections, the replicative cycle of the agent is not necessarily slow; rather, manifestation of the signs and symptoms of disease is slow (D false). The best studied slow virus infections of man involve CNS degeneration and include kuru, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) (B true) and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE). The agents in the first two are regarded as unconventional ‘viruses’, having never been visualised or cultured, while those of the latter are regarded as convention viruses (eg measles virus). The agent responsible may be highly resistant to normal sterilising procedures (C true): eg CJD agent requires autoclaving for one hour, rather than 15-20 minutes, and is not susceptible to ethylene oxide gas.
NB. (Accumulating evidence that even at higher temps/pressure for larger intervals - eg 138 degrees C for 30 minutes - that prions may “survive”. There is really no satisfactory sterilizing procedure.)

38
Q

14808 – The protozoan parasite, Toxoplasma gondii
1: is an important cause of brain infection in patients with AIDS
2: is an obligate human parasite
3: cannot be transmitted congenitally
4: is capable of infecting all types of cells

A

TFFT
Refer to Robbins, 6th Ed, page 382-383

39
Q

25349 – Intracellular parasites such as mycobacteria may survive by
A. preventing activation of proto-oncogenes
B. preventing the formation of phagolysosomes
C. scavenging activated complement components
D. inhibiting the activation of T lymphocytes
E. neutralising specific antibodies

A

B
Roitt 9th ed. Page: 267-268

40
Q

10388 – Significant microbe/disease causative associations include
1: Bacteroides fragilis/pelvic abscess
2: Enterococcus faecalis/early onset bacteraemia following rupture of the appendix
3: Staphylococcus aureus/osteomyelitis
4: Streptococcus pyogenes/necrotising fasciitis

A

TFTT
Intra-abdominal abscesses involving the pelvic region are invariably polymicrobial with obligate anaerobes such as Bacteroides fragilis being major causative agents. Other more important participating microbes include Gram-negative bacilli such as E.coli, and to a lesser degree, streptococci (eg Streptococcus anginosus). Early onset bacteraemia following rupture of the appendix usually involves Gram negative enteric bacilli (eg E. coli) or less often the Gram-negative bacillus Pseudomonas aeruginosa (a gut transient). However, the role of Gram-negative anaerobes such as Bacteroides fragilis, and other obligate anaerobes (eg clostridia) cannot be ignored, especially if the appendix is gangrenous. Enterococci are insignificant in early onset problems, especially where the stomach or upper small intestine is not involved. By far the major microbe associated with all forms of osteomyelitis is Staphylococcus aureus, followed by coagulase - negative species (eg Staphylococcus epidermidis). Streptococcus pyogenes is a significant causal agent of necrotising fasciitis, although its importance is often over-dramatised (eg the ‘flesh eating bug’). Empiric antimicrobial cover in necrotising fasciitis should always include activity against streptococci.

41
Q

25764 – In managing a patient with severe intra-abdominal sepsis after breakdown of a colonic anastomosis
A. IVN should be delayed until all sepsis has resolved
B. definitive abdominal closure is essential to protect the bowel from risk of fistula formation
C. limited exploration with drainage is the most important aspect of reoperative surgery
D. feeding jejuonostomy is contraindicated because of the risk of leakage
E. second look laparotomy is essential if viability of the gut was in doubt at the time of operation

A

E

42
Q

15578 – Intra-abdominal abscesses
1: wherever possible require drainage in addition to antimicrobial therapy
2: are predominantly polymicrobial in origin
3: contain clostridia as the dominant obligate anaerobe
4: most commonly occur under the diaphragm and in the pelvis of recumbent patients

A

TTFT
Refer to Textbook of Surgery, 1997; Aust NZJ Surgery, 1994; STEM Module: Surgical Infections and Antimicrobials

43
Q

9790 – The microbial flora of the body
1: is an important reservoir of post-surgical sepsis
2: is found predominantly in the large bowel
3: may be influenced in composition by hospitalization
4: is composed predominantly of anaerobes

A

TTTT
Toouli et al, Integrated Basic Surgical Sciences, Ch 37.2

44
Q

11692 – Regarding the body’s normal flora
1: obligate anaerobes predominate
2: Enterococcus faecalis is found in the upper intestinal tract
3: Candida albicans is a common skin commensal
4: anaerobes found in the mouth are usually susceptible to co-amoxyclav

A

TTFT
By far the majority of the body’s normal flora exists in the large intestine where numbers exceed 1014. The skin is home to over 1010 microbes and the oral cavity to more than 1012 microbes. Over 99.9% of microbes in the gastrointestinal tract, oral cavity, and areas of skin with hair (eg scalp) are obligate anaerobes and these clearly dominate the mucocutaneous normal flora. Compared to the large bowel, only small numbers of microbes inhabit the small intestine of which coliforms such as E. coli, enterococci (eg Enterococcus faecalis) and yeasts (eg Candida albicans) dominate. Commensals found on the skin consist predominantly of staphylococci - eg S. epidermidis, coryneforms (both aerobic, eg Brevibacterium and Corynebacterium species, and anaerobic, eg Propionibacterium forms), and lipophilic yeasts (eg Malassezia furfur). Under normal conditions Candida albicans is not found, ie it is not part of the normal skin flora, although excessive hydration may allow this yeast to transiently colonise skin (eg nappy rash). The predominant oral anaerobes are members of the Porphyromonas, Prevotella and Peptostreptococcus genera (historically often listed as pigmented ‘Bacteroides’ species) which are invariably susceptible to
amoxycillin/clavulanic acid (coamoxyclav) combinations. This antibiotic is a good choice for cutaneous lesions arising following bite wounds. Many of the oral anaerobes, however, now elaborate Β-lactamases, and are not susceptible to penicillin G (or amoxycillin). Also present in the oral cavity are more aerotolerant streptococci, staphylococci, Neisseria species, Moraxella catarrhalis and Haemophilus influenzae.

45
Q

11698 – Surgical-site infection rates are increased
1: in the presence of obesity
2: when the skin is left unshaved
3: in non-vascular tissue
4: in patients with advanced malignancy

A

TFTT
It is accepted (and proven) that surgical-site infection rates undoubtedly increase with the degree of contamination (eg contaminated versus clean surgery), the duration of the operation over 2 hours, and the ‘physiological’ status of the patient (eg presence of other diseases such as diabetes and cancer, malnutrition). Other accepted, but less significant factors include increasing age and obesity, while skin shaving clearly results in increased local microbial growth (attributable in traumatic injury/increased fluid) and the potential for subsequent wound infection. Hairs should be clipped (rather than shaved at any time) with this being carried out immediately prior to incision. Blood with its associated cells, fluid and oxygen, is a primary host defence ‘barrier’ against infection, which more readily becomes established in non vascularised/necrotic tissue. Most (eg over 70%) of wound infections only become apparent after the patient has left hospital.

46
Q

11703 – Important infection control measures shown to reduce the incidence of operation-related patient infections include
1: restriction in the numbers and movement of theatre staff
2: wearing of face masks
3: 12-hour rather than 24-hour preoperative skin shaving
4: cleansing of the skin in the operation field by antiseptics

A

TFFT
A few operating room ‘rituals’ have been shown to have no significant effect on post-operative patient sepsis, ie surgical site infection. These include the wearing of face masks and gowns. On the other hand, preoperative skin shaving of the incisional area does significantly increase the likelihood of subsequent wound sepsis, as does increased staff numbers and movement in the operating theatre (perhaps related to movement of air). Hair clipping immediately prior to incision is less likely to result in subsequent wound sepsis, than any form of razor shaving. A reduction in the numbers of microbes colonising the incisional area by the use of topical antiseptics does reduce subsequent wound infection rates, which are invariably endogenous and which may take several weeks to become apparent.

47
Q

18255 – Which one of the following statements about wound infection in a clean, uncontaminated wound, is most correct?
A. It is usually associated with deep wound dehiscence
B. Pyrexia typically occurs on the second post-operative day
C. The incidence of sepsis is in proportion to the number of sutures inserted
D. Infection is commonly due to skin commensals
E. The infecting organism is most commonly Escherichia coli

A

D
In clean uncontaminated wounds the incidence of infection should be low. When infection occurs it is most commonly due to skin commensals (eg staphylococcus epidermidis) (D).

48
Q

9091 – Control measures proven to reduce risk of endogenous infection following intraabdominal surgery include
1: pre-operative cleansing of the skin
2: the administration of prophylactic antibiotics prior to skin incision
3: extensive skin shaving 24 hours prior to surgery
4: a pulse of antibiotics 12 hours after wound closure

A

TTFF
Toouli et al, Integrated Basic Surgical Sciences; Smith, Payne, Berne, The Surgeon’s Guide to
Antimicrobial Chemotherapy; STEM Module: Surgical Infections/Antimicrobials; Smith & Payne, Integrated Basic Surgical Sciences, Ch 37.2

49
Q

582 – Which of the following circumstances would have LEAST effect on impeding wound healing?
A. A 56 year old alcoholic with a serum albumin of 20 gm/L.
B. A 35 year old asthmatic on prednisolone 10 mg daily.
C. A 72 year old smoker with a arterial pO2 of 80 mm Hg.
D. A 65 year old man with a serum bilirubin of 80 umol/L.
E. A 42 year old man with a serum creatinine of 0.31mmol/L

A

C
Significant hypo-albuminaemia, significant hyperbilirubinaemia, significant renal insufficiency and long-term steroid therapy all impede wound healing significantly. Hypoxaemia of mild degree (pO2 80 mm) would have the least effect (C).

50
Q

18286 – In all the following circumstances wound healing may be impaired. Which would cause the least impediment to healing?
A. A 56 year old alcoholic with a serum albumin of 26 gm/L
B. A 35 year old asthmatic on long term prednisolone, 10 mg daily
C. A 72 year old smoker with an arterial pO2 of 80 mm Hg
D. A 65 year old man with a serum bilirubin of 80 micromol/L
E. A 42 year old man with a serum creatinine of 0.21mmol/L

A

C
Significant hypo-albuminaemia, significant hyperbilirubinaemia, significant renal insufficiency and long-term steroid therapy all impede wound healing significantly. Hypoxaemia of mild degree (pO2 80
mm) would have the least effect (C).

51
Q

881, 18310 – Which of the following is MOST often found to be a contributing factor in patients with postoperative abdominal wound disruption?
A. Advanced age.
B. Increased intra-abdominal pressure.
C. Sepsis.
D. Anaemia.
E. Hypoproteinaemia.

A

B
Local factors are more commonly a cause of postoperative wound disruption than general factors, although these latter can be important. Hypoproteinaemia and anaemia, if severe, may contribute, and advanced age is usually associated with other factors such as malnutrition or carcinoma. Local sepsis or a digestive fistula can contribute to wound necrosis. Adequate techniques of wound closure using strong nonabsorbable sutures can minimise the risk of disruption. Increased intra-abdominal pressure (coughing, sneezing, ileus, distension) is the most common contributor of those listed (B correct). Although all of the responses can contribute to wound dehiscence, increased intraabdominal pressure (from coughing and straining, or from abdominal distension due to ileus), is the most common contributing factor of those listed (B).

52
Q

25615 – Wound infection rates are increased
1: in the presence of obesity
2: when the skin is left unshaved
3: in nonvascular tissue
4: in those with advanced malignancy

A

TFTT
C.S.S. 2nd Ed. PAGE: 151-153

53
Q

23604 – Wound contraction is delayed by
1: corticosteroid administration
2: the changes occuring in a burn
3: skin grafting
4: X-radiation

A

TTTT

54
Q

21063 – Factors known to inhibit wound contraction include
1: X-irradiation
2: hyperbaric oxygen
3: glucocorticoid therapy
4: anabolic steroid therapy

A

TFTF
Robbins 5th ed.

55
Q

24139 – Reduction in size of large traumatic skin defects (wound contraction) occurring during the first two weeks following injury probably
results from
1: surface dehydration
2: epithelial ingrowth into the wound
3: actions of ingrowing myofibroblasts
4: enzyme-induced contraction of type IV collagen

A

FFTF
Robbins 5th ed. Chapter: 3 Page: 86

56
Q

9071 – In healing wounds
1: newly formed collagen has a high content of soluble collagen
2: in the first three months the tensile strength corresponds directly to the amount of collagen present
3: fibronectin plays an important role in healing
4: cross-linkage and reorganisation of collagen is achieved by oxidation of proline

A

TFTF
Robbins, 6th ed, Ch 4

57
Q

8702 – In epithelial cells involved in the healing of a sutured skin wound
1: migration begins 48-60 hours after injury
2: mitoses are evident in migrating cells
3: cells migrate over the surface of the clot
4: the major stimulus to cell division is transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-b)

A

FFFF
Robbins, 6th ed, Ch 4

58
Q

11758, 25985 – Which of the following is/are adequate for sterilisation?
1: Steam at 121oC for 15 minutes (autoclaving)
2: Filtration through an 0.45μm pore size membrane
3: Ethylene oxide gas for 24 hours
4: Boiling for 10 minutes

A

TFTF
Update (size of viruses) Chapter: MP.31 Page:MP.20.
Sterilisation implies the removal of all microbes, or at least removing the viability of all microbes. The most accepted method is the use of steam under pressure, ie moist heat. The presence of water allows heat to penetrate much better than under dry conditions. For instance, you will all be aware of the difference in picking up a hot object with a dry or wet cloth. Heat travels in waves and needs a ‘ vehicle to carry it ‘- eg poor / nil penetration through a vacuum. Autoclaving is the usual form of sterilisation where the product is to be discarded or is heat stable. Steam under pressure of 15lbs per square inch (103 Kpa) reaches a temperature of 121oC. Exposure of microbes to these conditions for 15 minutes will result in a loss of viability, ie death, although some concern has been expressed concerning whether prions can remain viable after such exposure. Thus where suspect Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease (CJD) contaminated material is involved, it is recommended that autoclaving be at 134oC (29 psi or 205 Kpa) for at least 18 minutes (sterile supply departments frequently have such high pre-vacuum sterilisers). Most autoclaves have a final vacuum drying cycle which can be applied when surgical gowns are being sterilised (come out dry). Where dry heat (eg hot air oven) is used for sterilising, a temperature of 160oC for at least 2 hours is required. Clearly boiling for 10 minutes or so while killing many vegetative bacteria, is unsuitable for killing some microbial forms eg sporing bacilli. Ethylene oxide gas is suitable for items which cannot withstand heating above 60oC, eg instruments with electrical, fibre optic or electronic components, and non-disposable heat sensitive plastics. The gas is only effective if it can penetrate the packaging and reach all surfaces of the article. The process is carried
out at 54o-60o in 60-75% humidity for at least 12 hours, which includes time for aeration to rid the article of residual toxic ethylene oxide gas. With most plastics, the aeration time has to be extended for several hours. While most bacteria are readily removed by filtration through a 0.45μm membrane, mycoplasmas and viruses will pass through. Reducing the pore diameter to 0.2μm will result in removal of all bacteria, including mycoplasmas. However filtration as a means of removing viruses, which may be as small as 0.02μm (20 nm) in size (eg poliovirus is 28 nm in diameter), is not really a feasible method of sterilisation as filters block very readily with pore diameters in the 0.02mm range. Certainly viruses and mycoplasmas will pass through a 0.45mm grid membrane - the filtrate from such filtration cannot be taken as sterile.

59
Q

13135 – Sterilisation of materials for operation can be achieved by
1: pressurised steam
2: subatmospheric steam and formaldehyde
3: ethylene oxide gas
4: dry heat

A

TTTT
Sterilisation implies the complete removal or destruction of all living material, including viruses and spores (0.45 micrometres pore size membranes remove most bacteria but not viruses and the like). The important methods of sterilisation are steam under pressure (15 lbs/sq inch) as with the autoclave (A true); dry heat, which takes longer than steam under pressure (D true); certain chemicals such as ethylene oxide gas, which is slow and highly combustible (C true); and formaldehyde or glutaraldehyde vapour (B true).

60
Q

25559 – The clinical signs associated with septic shock can be attributed to
1: peripheral vasodilation
2: diffuse endothelial damage
3: release of interleukin 1 (IL1)
4: stimulation of tumour necrosis factor (TNF)

A

TTTT
C.S.S. 2nd ed. Page: 151 Roitt 7th ed. Page: 142 Robbins 5th ed. Page: 70-71; 117-120

61
Q

25872 – Diagnosis of SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome) requires the presence of which two of the following?
1: lactate > 1.2mmol/l
2: tachycardia >90 bpm in the absence of a beta-blocker
3: white cell count >20 or <1 (x109/L)
4: pyrexia >38oC or hypothermia <36oC
5: urine output <240 ml over 4 hours

A

FTFTF