Gastrointestinal pathology Flashcards

1
Q

8687 – The disorders of haemostasis seen in cirrhotic liver failure may include
1: disseminated intravascular coagulation
2: hypoprothrombinaemia
3: secondary thrombocytopenia
4: impaired synthesis of several clotting factors

A

TTTT
Robbins, 6th ed, Ch 14 and Ch 19

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2
Q

15821 – Pathogenetic mechanisms in development of generalised oedema in chronic liver failure include
1: increased microvascular permeability
2: increased renal sodium retention
3: increased renal renin secretion
4: reduced plasma colloid osmotic pressure

A

FTTT
There is not enough sodium and water aboard the normal individual to produce generalised oedema under any circumstances. When there is sudden loss of fluid from the plasma (without extra being loaded aboard first), the result is shock (anaphylactic, if the loss was due to histamine release, with increased permeability). While the fluid accumulation of ascites in the cirrhotic may or may not involve increased vascular permeability, the generalised oedema does not.

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3
Q

19138 – In severe liver disease, the dose of all of the following drugs should be reduced EXCEPT
A. heparin
B. acyclovir
C. morphine
D. propranolol
E. phenytoin

A

B
A.C.P. 1996

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4
Q

22129 – When generalised oedema complicates chronic hepatic failure, pathogenetic mechanisms include
1: increased renal sodium retention
2: reduced plasma colloid osmotic pressure
3: increased renal renin secretion
4: increased microvascular permeability

A

TTTF
Robbins 6th ed. Pages: 113-11

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5
Q

15661 – Fatty change in the liver (hepatic steatosis)
1: is characteristically seen with active hepatitis B infection
2: will cause dangerous derangement of the coagulation profile
3: when due to alcohol abuse, does not regress with abstention
4: is seen in persons suffering from protein malnutrition

A

FFFT
Fatty change in the liver though common with active hepatitis C, is not part of hepatitis B infection. With simple (uncomplicated) fatty liver, even when quite extensive, significant derangement of function is exceptional. Hepatic fat in the alcoholic usually ‘melts away’ with abstention. The enlarged liver of kwashiorkor and other protein malnutrition states is, paradoxically, due to storage, in the liver, of the (unavailable) calorie source.

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6
Q

15666 – Hepatic steatosis (fatty liver)
1: is the major liver injury resulting acutely from hypovolaemic shock
2: may be due to poorly controlled diabetes mellitus
3: is potentially reversible
4: if discovered in liver biopsy (ie without ‘toxic hepatitis’), has no sinister long term implications for the chronic alcoholic

A

FTTF
Hypovolaemic shock, when severe, causes hepatic hypoperfusion, with centrilobular degeneration/ necrosis of hepatocytes - this is an acute injury situation. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus almost always causes prominent fatty liver. If the stimulus to fatty change is reversed, resolution always will occur. However, there is strong evidence that alcoholic fatty liver (even without hepatocyte acute necrosis) of very long standing will stimulate fibrosis (perhaps via activation of the Ito cell) with eventual progression to ‘fatty alcoholic cirrhosis’.

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7
Q

15758 – Hepatic steatosis is commonly seen in
1: chronic congestive heart failure
2: malnutrition
3: chronic hepatitis B carrier state
4: paracetamol (acetaminophen) poisoning

A

TTFT
Of the viral hepatitides, only hepatitis C is said to be associated with fatty change in the liver - it is quite a common finding on biopsy. I see no reason why someone with alcoholic (or other) steatosis should not contract hepatitis B, but the finding of significant steatosis in active hepatitis B is quite exceptional and off-putting to the histopathologist. It is certainly not a feature of the disease (but is of hepatitis C). The others are ‘givens’.

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8
Q

23039 – Hepatic steatosis (fatty change of the liver) may be caused by
1: chronic venous congestion
2: alcohol excess
3: protein malnutrition
4: alpha-1-antitrypsin in liver cells

A

TTTF
Robbins 5th ed. Chapter: 1 Page: 25, 27

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9
Q

17768 – Most carcinomas of the gallbladder
1: are squamous or adenosquamous carcinomas
2: present clinically with pain plus an enlarged gallbladder
3: have invaded the liver at the time of operation
4: are always associated with presence of gall bladder calculi

A

FFTF
Most cancers of the gallbladder are adenocarcinomas. Clinical presentation is typically insidious and indistinguishable from the symptoms and signs of benign gallbladder disease - palpable enlargement of the gallbladder is distinctly unusual. According to Robbins, 60-90% of carcinoma of the gallbladder is associated with gallstones - the point is that there is a very significant incidence of cases occurring without gallstones and the overall incidence of gallbladder carcinoma in patients with gallstones is so low that prophylactic cholecystectomy for gallstones is considered unjustified. By the time these cancers are discovered, most have invaded the liver.

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10
Q

15671 – Calcification occurring during the acute phase of haemorrhagic pancreatic necrosis
1: occurs predominantly in necrotic pancreatic acinar cells
2: commonly causes severe hypocalcaemia
3: may eventually extensively involve peripancreatic tissues
4: commonly resolves rapidly following recovery from the acute event

A

FTTF
Calcification is due to reaction of calcium ions with fatty acids formed by lipase action on triglyceride released from cells due to the action of phospholipases released from the necrotic pancreatic parenchymal cells. This commonly results in severe hypocalcaemia and a more or less permanent presence of calcium soaps replacing the retroperitoneal and other fat involved.

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11
Q

23554 – Carcinoma of the extrahepatic bile ducts
1: commonly causes obstructive jaundice
2: causes palpable gallbladder enlargement in most cases
3: is surgically resectable in most instances
4: has a prognostic outlook similar to that of colonic carcinoma

A

TFFF
Robbins 5th ed. Chapter: 18 Pages: 893

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12
Q

17773 – Carcinoma of the extrahepatic bile ducts
1: in most cases does not cause palpable gallbladder enlargement
2: has a prognostic outlook similar to that of colonic carcinoma
3: is curably resectable in most instances
4: commonly causes obstructive jaundice

A

TFFT
Only approximately 25% of patients have palpable gallbladder, but obstructive jaundice is the rule, often with stool decolourisation. The majority of ductal cancers are not resectable at the time of diagnosis, despite their small size; mean survival times range from 6 to 18 months, no matter what the treatment given; this is in sharp contrast to the considerably superior survival rates for colonic cancer.

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13
Q

15588 – Adenocarcinoma of the pancreas
1: usually presents at a stage of development when it is incurable
2: commonly presents with secondary diabetes attributable to carcinomatous pancreatic destruction
3: can be reliably predicted in a person presenting with migratory thrombophlebitis
4: most commonly follows a prolonged history of recurrent or ‘chronic’ pancreatitis

A

TFFF
Refer to Robbins, 6th Ed, Ch 19, page 910-911

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14
Q

893 – Reduction in the mortality of acute pancreatitis is most likely to result from
A. administration of glucagon.
B. administration of aprotinin.
C. early correction of fluid and electrolyte losses.
D. total parenteral nutrition.
E. peritoneal lavage.

A

C
Acute pancreatitis exhibits a spectrum of severity. Severe acute pancreatitis is accompanied by hypovolaemia with massive sequestration of fluid and electrolytes in the abdomen and retroperitoneum. Early correction of such losses is of major importance in treatment, and is the most likely of the responses to influence mortality (C correct). Aprotinin and glucagon have been widely used in treatment, but have not been demonstrated effective in influencing mortality in clinical trials (A and B incorrect). Parenteral nutrition is helpful in treating the complications of acute pancreatitis such as prolonged ileus and abscess formation, but is not so relevant to early mortality (D incorrect). Peritoneal lavage and dialysis have a role in management of acute pancreatitis (particularly when acute pancreatitis is diagnosed at operation) and in the management of local and systemic complications (pancreatic abscess and renal failure). There is no evidence that they reduce the early mortality (E incorrect).

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15
Q

899 – Which of the following problems does NOT accompany the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube inserted for balloon tamponade of bleeding oesophageal varices?
A. Aspiration.
B. Asphyxia.
C. Oesophageal rupture.
D. Rebleeding upon balloon deflation.
E. Vagal-induced bradycardia.

A

E
The Sengstaken-Blakemore tube can give effective control of acute bleeding from oesophageal varices. There are a of hazards and complications of its use. Aspiration or asphyxia during insertion, oesophageal pressure necrosis or rupture, and rebleeding after balloon deflation are the most important. The tube should preferably be inserted, and the patient managed, in an intensive-care environment. Vagal-induced bradycardia is not a complication. Stimulation of afferent vagal fibres related to the oesophagus or stomach does not evoke cardio-inhibitory reflexes, whereas hypovolaemic tachycardia is common. E is thus the correct response.

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16
Q

16891, 22744 – Gastrointestinal carcinoid tumours
1: show neuroendocrine differentiation
2: are most commonly found incidentally at surgery or autopsy
3: are clinically innocuous neoplasms
4: most commonly grow “within the range of the competent sigmoidoscopist”

A

TTFF
Robbins 5th ed. Chapter: 17 Pages: 819-820.
Options 1 and 2 are clearly correct. However, despite the truth of option 1, carcinoids presenting with symptoms referable to the presence of the tumour (either its mass effect or due to its secretory products) present a formidable problem thereafter. Obstructing gut carcinoids usually eventually metastasise and bronchial carcinoids are often
locally invasive or occasionally capable of metastasis. Option 4 is wildly optimistic, even for exhibitionists!

17
Q

25990 – Recognised accompaniments of carcinoid syndrome include
1: cramping abdominal pains
2: facial flushes
3: tachycardia
4: pulmonary stenosis

A

TTTT
Robbins 5th ed. Chapter:17 PAGE:820 (Table 17-15)

18
Q

19701 – The carcinoid syndrome
A. is seen in association with renal cancer
B. often causes paroxysmal hypertension
C. is associated with eosinophilia
D. is associated with pulmonary stenosis
E. often occurs with phaeochromocytoma

A

D
Robbins 5th ed. CHAPTER: 17 PAGE: 820

19
Q

17763 – Most colorectal carcinomas
1: arise within pre-existing adenomas
2: occur in the absence of pre-existing ulcerative colitis or familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome
3: present clinically in individuals under age 55 years
4: arise in the distal 15 cm of colon/rectum

A

TTFF
Colonic adenomas are premalignant and most adenocarcinomas arise from pre-existing adenomas - the larger the adenoma, the greater the risk that adenocarcinoma has developed in it. Less than 5% of cases of colorectal cancer arise in the setting of pre-existing familial adenomatous polyposis or inflammatory bowel disease - responses (1 and 2) are correct. Peak incidence for colorectal carcinoma is 60-70 years ie the incidence increases with increasing age. Less than 25% are located in the rectosigmoid and this trend of higher incidence of proximal involvement is more prevalent in Australasia.

20
Q

23014 – Lesions known to predispose to colonic adenocarcinoma include
1: hyperplastic polyps
2: diverticulosis
3: tubular adenomas
4: chronic ulcerative colitis

A

FFTT
Robbins 5th ed. Chapter: 17 Pages: 809 & 815

21
Q

16901 – Colonic carcinoma has an increased incidence in individuals with
1: hyperplastic polyps
2: Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome
3: tubular adenomas
4: chronic ulcerative colitis

A

FFTT
Chronic ulcerative colitis is the most significant non-neoplastic precursor of carcinoma and the debate over whether or not adenomas (tubular or villous) are precancerous has long been settled! Hyperplastic polyps are generally agreed to have no premalignant potential in their own makeup, but may be admixed with adenoma whereupon the lesion takes on the premalignant mantle of the adenoma. Peutz-Jegher’s polyps are considered to be hamartomas with no innate premalignant potential. The syndrome is, however, associated with an increased incidence of cancers of other sites.

22
Q

17753 – Precursor lesions of colonic adenocarcinoma include
1: hyperplastic polyps
2: Peutz-Jegher polyps
3: adenomatous polyps
4: juvenile polyps

A

FFTF
The usual small hyperplastic polyp has virtually no malignant potential. Large hyperplastic polyps occasionally contain foci of admixed adenoma - as may any part of the colonic mucosa; the ‘hyperplastic’ component is considered to be innocuous. Adenomatous polyps are on the ‘normal mucosa to adenoma to carcinoma’ trail and have already undergone the initial mutation(s) which will occur progressively if carcinoma is to eventually develop. The other two polyps are examples of hamartoma (responses 2 and 4) and have no known pre-malignant potential.

23
Q

14833 – Malignant change is likely to occur in individual examples of colonic
1: juvenile polyps
2: hyperplastic polyps
3: adenomatous polyp
4: Peutz-Jegher polyps

A

FFTF
Refer to Robbins, 6th Ed, Ch 18, page 828-829

24
Q

19731 – The jejunal polyps found in the Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are
A. adenomatous
B. premalignant
C. carcinomatous
D. hamartomatous
E. sarcomatous

A

D
Robbins 4th ed. Page: 892

25
Q

15978 – Chronic colitis is more likely to be due to Crohn disease if
1: epithelial cell dysplasia is present out of proportion to the degree of inflammation in that area of mucosa
2: submucosal oedema and lymphocytic infiltrate are prominent
3: multiple biopsies show progressive distal increase in mucosal disease severity
4: colonoscopic biopsy shows focal epithelioid cell granulomas

A

FTFT
Non-inflammatory epithelial dysplasia is said to be the hallmark of developing carcinoma in longstanding active ulcerative colitis - cancer incidence is probably increased in all long-standing IBD, but this is disproportionately so in UC. Mucosal inflammation is present in involved zones in both UC and Crohn disease and there may be some superficial submucosal lymphocytic infiltration in UC, but prominent submucosal lymphocytic infiltration and oedema are strong hallmarks of Crohn disease. Crohn’s disease is random and discontinuous; UC involvement is progressively distally severe. Granulomas are regarded as a virtually pathognomonic diagnostic feature of Crohn disease.

26
Q

23319 – Crohn’s disease is strongly indicated as the diagnosis in a case of inflammatory disease of the colon if
1: mucosal biopsies show increasing disease severity more distal in the colon
2 : there is prominent oedema and lymphocytic infiltrate of the submucosa
3: focal epithelioid cell collections are present in the mucosa
4: epithelial cell dysplasia is present out of proportion to the degree of inflammation in that area of mucosa

A

FTTF
Robbins 6th ed. Chapter: 18 Pages: 816-818

27
Q

17758 – Colonic epithelial neoplasia is considered as not having significant metastatic potential if adequate histological examination shows
1: adenoma with carcinoma in situ
2: adenoma showing severe epithelial dysplasia with focal intramucosal carcinoma
3: adenocarcinoma, invasive into submucosa only
4: invasive adenocarcinoma to superficial muscularis propria, without demonstrable vascular or lymphatic permeation

A

TTFF
Carcinoma in situ is still, for pragmatic purposes, a benign lesion. It has not yet acquired the attributes which will cause metastasis. Because lymphatic channels are largely absent from colonic mucosa, intramucosal carcinoma is regarded as having little or no metastatic potential. Invasion into submucosa indicates adenocarcinoma which has now acquired metastatic potential - real in all cases.
Likewise for response (4).

28
Q

7737 – S: Gardner’s syndrome is a clinically more sinister variant of familial polyposis coli(FPC) because R: aggressive neoplasms, other than colonic carcinoma, may determine mortality in Gardner’s syndrome.

A

S is true, R is true and a valid explanation of S
Because of co-existence of other ‘tumours’, Gardner’s syndrome has a deservedly sinister reputation. The fatal problem in many of these patients becomes intra-abdominal fibromatosis which often follows surgery for polyposis and may not be clinically obvious before this. Regarding the time onset of the malignancies, there is no difference between those with and those without extra-colonic manifestations.

29
Q

17731 – S: Gardner’s syndrome is a clinically more sinister variant of familial polyposis coli (FPC) because R: in Gardner’s syndrome, colonic malignancies occur, on average, about one decade earlier than when FPC
occurs alone.

A

S is true and R is false
875 – The frequency of post-

30
Q

875 – The frequency of post-operative adhesions is lowest when parietal peritoneal defects which are created intra-operatively are
A. closed with plain catgut.
B. closed with chromic catgut.
C. closed with silk.
D. closed with nylon.
E. not closed.

A

E
Adhesion formation is a response to ischaemia and irritation so that suturing peritoneal defects is more likely to increase than to reduce adhesion formation, especially if the sutures are inserted under tension (E correct). The type of suture material is less relevant.

31
Q

20535 – S. Aluminium hydroxide and magnesium trisilicate used in an antacid mixture may cause diarrhoea BECAUSE R. gastric bacterial overgrowth occurs with altered intra-luminal pH

A

S is true, R is true but not a valid explanation of S
Syllabus Extension & Update ACP1 - ACP39

32
Q

25722 – Concerning the gut as a potential source of sepsis
A. enteral glutamine has little protective effect
B. translocation of bacteria can occur with an intact gut
C. early enteral feeding is more likely to cause ileus than be of benefit
D. sucralfate is cytoprotective throughout the GI tract
E. oral antibiotic regimens with gut decontamination have little effect on the incidence of pneumonia

A

B