NAVPERS 15560, NAVAL MILITARY PERSONNEL MANUAL Flashcards
1
Q
What consolidates pay, personnel, and Navy-sponsored passenger transportation functions into a central location, which provides all of these services?
A
Pay/Personnel Administrative Support System (PASS)
2
Q
- What provides advice to and performs assistance visits at Personnel Support Activity Detachments (PERSUPPACTDETs) responsible for providing Reserve personnel administration support services?
A
Reserve Personnel Management Assistance Team (RPMAT)
3
Q
- Use the procedures and guidance in what reference for the administration of military pay, personnel, and Navy
sponsored passenger transportation functions for Navy activities supported by PASS?
A
OPNAVINST 1000.23C
4
Q
- In general, the command will make decisions concerning personnel actions, and what will accomplish the paperwork portion of the action?
A
PERSUPPACTDET/CSD
5
Q
- The Personnel Support Activity Detachment (PERSUPPACTDET) and Customer Service Desk (CSD) relationship is established under what reference?
A
OPNAVINST 1000.23C
6
Q
- What maintains pay records for PIM not in a drill status?
A
Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS)
7
Q
- What is responsible for assignment of pay and personnel responsibilities?
A
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-351)
8
Q
- What serves as the critical link between an individual Sailor, his or her command, and the supporting personnel support organization?
A
CPC
9
Q
- The responsibility of what program is to provide Sailors and commands with personnel, pay, passenger transportation, educational services, and other related support?
A
PASS
10
Q
- The CPC shall be a PS3, YN3, or what or higher?
A
NC2
11
Q
- CPCs shall promptly transmit documents (at least how often) to ensure compliance with the timeliness policy established by MILPERSMAN 1000-025?
A
Daily
12
Q
Department of Defense (DoD) policy is to achieve what percent timeliness rate for associated pay transactions?
A
97%
13
Q
- To be consistent with DoD pay policy, Navy policy is to achieve a 97 percent timeliness rate for all personnel transactions within how many working days of the effective date of the transaction?
A
4
14
Q
- Commander, Navy Personnel Command (COMNAVPERSCOM) will monitor and report status of personnel and pay timeliness and accuracy to what?
A
CHNAVPERS
15
Q
What is the actual or adjusted date from which the amount of active military service performed is calculated?
A
ADSD
16
Q
The Board for Corrections of Naval Records (BCNR) was established per what reference to provide a method for correction of error or removal of injustice from naval records without the necessity for private legislation?
A
10 U.S.C. 1552
17
Q
- Applications for review to the BCNR may be submitted, per what instruction only after having exhausted all available administrative remedies afforded by law, unless waived by BCNR?
A
SECNAVINST 5420.193
18
Q
- BCNR applications must be submitted within how many years after the claimant discovers the error or injustice?
A
3
19
Q
- If the BCNR application petition is to be considered and resolved prior to the convening of a selection board, the petition should be received by BCNR at least how long before the selection board convenes?
A
4 months
20
Q
- BCNR applications must be submitted on what form (Rev. 5-05), Application for Correction of Military Record Under the Provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1552?
A
DD 149
21
Q
- Each member serving in the Navy on active duty shall be entitled to accrue leave at the rate of how many calendar days for each month of active duty?
A
2 ½
22
Q
- Each member serving in the Navy on active duty shall be entitled to accrue leave for each month of active duty except active duty of less than how many consecutive days?
A
30
23
Q
- Each member serving in the Navy on active duty shall be entitled to accrue leave for each month of active duty except active duty for training with pay of less than how many consecutive days?
A
30
24
Q
What shall not be granted for the purpose of extending leave?
A
Special liberty
25
Q
- Per what, Leave and Special Liberty shall not be combined?
A
DoD Directive 1327.5
26
Q
- What, Part 1, Chapter 3, details specific leave accounting procedures?
A
DJMS PTG
27
Q
- Personnel records are designated what?
A
For Official Use Only
28
Q
- Information shall be divulged from official personnel records only under SECNAVINST 5211.5D and what else?
A
SECNAVINST 5720.42F
29
Q
- The personnel records are the property of the what?
A
United States Government
30
Q
- The Officer permanent personnel record is maintained by Navy Personnel Command (NAVPERSCOM) in what?
A
Electronic Military Personnel Records System (EMPRS)
31
Q
- Documents that reflect an officer’s character, professional qualifications, fitness for service, performance of duties, entitlements, and affect or influence a member’s career and benefits, will be filed in the Officer permanent personnel record in accordance with what instruction?
A
BUPERSINST 1070.27
32
Q
- Administrative or clerical errors in the officer permanent personnel record may be corrected in accordance with what, or in accordance with regulation governing original document?
A
MILPERSMAN 1070-210
33
Q
- What contains documents which reflect on the character, performance, professional qualifications, and fitness of the member?
A
Enlisted Official Military Personnel File (OMPF)
34
Q
- The OMPF is maintained in the Electronic Military Personnel Records System (EMPRS) at what?
A
NAVPERSCOM
35
Q
- Documents filed in the Enlisted OMPF are placed in 1 of how many categories based on the type of information in the document?
A
16
36
Q
- Personnel Offices/Personnel Support Activity Detachments shall prepare and forward documents, as required by the document’s governing directive and in compliance with what reference, to update the Enlisted OMPF?
A
BUPERSINST 1070.27B
37
Q
- Except for administrative or clerical errors, documents filed in the OMPF may not be removed or changed, except by authorization of the what?
A
Secretary of the Navy
38
Q
- Administrative or clerical errors may be corrected in the OMPF per what or the regulation requiring the original document?
A
MILPERSMAN 1070-210
39
Q
- What (Rev. 05-00), U.S. Navy Enlisted (Field) Service Record (FSR) is maintained for each current enlisted member of the Navy or Naval Reserve?
A
NAVPERS 1070/600
40
Q
- What is available to assist the commanding officer in making daily personnel decisions
A
FSR
41
Q
- What material shall not be filed in the FSR without first affording the member an opportunity to review the material and submit a statement concerning it?
A
Adverse
42
Q
- If no statement or declination has been submitted after how many working days after having been advised of such, the adverse material will be filed directly into the FSR with a notation to that effect?
A
15
43
Q
- The FSR is maintained by the administration office that supports the member’s duty station per what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1000-010
44
Q
Verify the field service record per what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1070-200
45
Q
- The commanding officer, executive officer, or who else signs or initials all service record documents?
A
OIC
46
Q
- When activities are supported by Pay/Personnel Administrative Support System (PASS), the Commanding Officer/Officer in Charge/Petty Officer in Charge/Director, Personnel Support Activity (PERSUPPACT)/Detachment (PERSUPPDET) will administer and maintain service records per what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1000-010
47
Q
- The commanding officer may grant Enlisted paygrades what and above and civilian GS-5 and above, written “By direction” authority to sign all service record documents except DD4, Enlistment/Reenlistment Document - Armed Forces of the United States, and NAVPERS 1070/601 (Rev. 01-00), Immediate Reenlistment Contract?
A
E-5
48
Q
- At the discretion of the commanding officer, what may be used for entries on the NAVPERS 1070/604 (Rev. 03-05), Enlisted Qualification History and accumulative entries on the NAVPERS 1070/613 (Rev.10-81), Administrative Remarks?
A
Facsimile signatures
49
Q
- What is the basic document, which establishes a legal relationship between the U.S. Government and an enlisted member?
A
DD 4
50
Q
- Preparation and distribution of the DD 4 shall be made by the enlisting activity per what instruction?
A
NAVCRUITCOMINST 1130.8F
51
Q
- All signatures of enlisting officers and the member enlisting or reenlisting shall be made per what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1070-190
52
Q
- All signatures of enlisting officers and the member enlisting or reenlisting shall be made per what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1070-190
53
Q
- What, (Rev. 01-00), Agreement to Extend Enlistment is an agreement between the U.S. Government and the enlisted member to extend the current enlistment in the Navy or Naval Reserve?
A
NAVPERS 1070/621
54
Q
- Prepare NAVPERS 1070/621 per what reference?
A
NAVSO P-3069
55
Q
- Enter signatures on the original NAVPERS 1070/621 document per what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1070-190
56
Q
File a copy of the NAVPERS 1070/621 in the enlisted field service record per what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1070-100
57
Q
- What Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data is used for both officer and enlisted members, and serves as an application for dependency allowances and an up-to-date record of emergency data?
A
NAVPERS 1070/602
58
Q
- Members may access or print their NAVPERS 1070/602 via their Electronic Service Record (ESR) in what by clicking on dependency data?
A
NSIPS
59
Q
- What lists those conditions when bedside travel may be authorized to support wounded, ill, or injured Sailors?
A
MILPERSMAN 1770-230
60
Q
- If a situation arises in which a new NAVPERS 1070/602 must be executed expeditiously and NSIPS is not available, what form, Record of Emergency Data shall be used?
A
DD 93
61
Q
- All Sailors shall verify the accuracy of data on the newest NAVPERS 1070/602 in their OMPF, and the data contained on both the emergency contact and dependency data panels within their electronic service record (ESR). At a minimum this information will be reviewed how often?
A
Annually
62
Q
- Selected Reservists will verify the accuracy of data on the newest NAVPERS 1070/602 in their OMPF, and the data contained on both the emergency contact and dependency data panels within their electronic service record (ESR) within the how many-day period immediately prior to reporting for annual training/Active Duty training?
A
180
63
Q
- Members will be directed to update what whenever there is a change of dependent status, addition of new dependent, and or change of address of a dependent?
A
DEERS
64
Q
- Sailors with a military spouse will be counseled that they are obligated to enroll their spouse in DEERS and to make an appropriate election for what for their military spouse?
A
FSGLI
65
Q
- What form, (Rev. 10-89), History of Assignments for USN and USNR enlisted members is a chronological record of duty assignments and is maintained throughout member’s active and inactive duty career?
A
NAVPERS 1070/605
66
Q
- Entries will be initialed on the NAVPERS 1070/605 by an authorized individual per what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1070-190
67
Q
- NAVPERS 1070/605 shall be maintained and filed in FSR, per what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1070-100
68
Q
- What is a brief, clear-cut record of a period or term of active military service
A
DD 214
69
Q
- DD 214 shall be prepared and distributed per this manual and what other reference?
A
BUPERSINST 1900.8A
70
Q
- In all cases, members reenlisting how many months or less prior to the normal expiration of enlistment, or enlistment as extended, will be considered as having completed their initial contract?
A
3
71
Q
- Members on Active Duty are precluded from serving beyond their high year tenure (HYT) date, as outlined in what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1160-120
72
Q
- Full Time Support (FTS) personnel must have a minimum Reserve Active Duty Obligation (RADO)of how long for reenlistment?
A
24-months
73
Q
- FTS personnel may not reenlist in the Regular Navy; likewise Regular Navy into the FTS community, without approval from what?
A
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-91)
74
Q
- To determine reenlistment eligibility for members not in compliance with physical fitness assessment (PFA) refer to what instruction?
A
OPNAVINST 6110.1J
75
Q
- The physical standards for reenlistment are prescribed in Chapter 15 of what reference, which directs use of the periodic health assessment to determine suitability for continued service?
A
NAVMED P-117
76
Q
- Regular members who are within 2 years of qualifying for transfer to the Fleet Reserve, and Reserve members who are entitled to be credited with at least 18 but not less than 20 years of service, may not be separated or denied reenlistment under the provisions of this instruction unless separated under any other provision of law and as set forth in what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1910
77
Q
- The Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) recommends personnel to reenlist at least how long prior to EAOS to avoid possible pay stoppage or discrepancies?
A
30 days
78
Q
- Prior approval from NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811) is not required when reenlistment is within how long of EAOS?
A
1 year
79
Q
- If member fails next official PFA while on conditional reenlistment, consideration will be given to process member for ADSEP within how many days of PFA failure?
A
45
80
Q
- Navy Reservists on inactive duty may be discharged at any time for the purpose of incurring a how many- year Selected Reserve (SELRES) obligation to gain entitlement to the SELRES Montgomery GI Bill (MGIB)?
A
6
81
Q
- Members on inactive duty who are participating in a Navy Reserve Program and who are eligible for reenlistment shall be notified at least how long prior to the expiration of their enlistment or service obligation concerning such expiration and the procedures set up for reenlistment processing?
A
3 months
82
Q
- Individuals who are discharged from the Navy Reserve for reasons of expiration of enlistment, fulfillment of service obligation, or convenience of the Government, and who are recommended for reenlistment, may be immediately reenlisted in the Navy Reserve provided they are physically and otherwise qualified, not to exceed quality control standards set forth in what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1160-130
83
Q
- An immigrant alien who has been in the U.S. for a period of how long beyond the age of majority, who has been lawfully admitted, and who holds an I-151 Alien Registration Receipt Card, is eligible for enlistment or reenlistment in the Navy without being required to apply for U.S. citizenship?
A
4 years
84
Q
- Recoupment of reenlistment bonus is not required in the case of early discharges not more than how long prior to expiration of enlistment?
A
3 months
85
Q
- Active service obligation beyond 30 years normally will be considered for personnel serving in what pay grade only?
A
E-9
86
Q
- Upon reenlistment, a new service record shall be prepared. Refer to what for guidance?
A
MILPERSMAN 1070-140
87
Q
- The UCMJ and 10 U.S.C. 937 require that certain articles of the UCMJ be carefully explained to each enlisted member at the time of enlistment, after the member has completed how many months of active duty, or, in the case of a member of a Reserve component, after the member has completed basic or recruit training, and at the time the member reenlists?
A
6
88
Q
- At reenlistment, and following compliance with the provisions of the UCMJ, each Service member will have “On (date), per UCMJ, article 137; member advised of the required provisions of the UCMJ.” Entry made in the permanent service record on what?
A
NAVPERS 1070/613
89
Q
- At reenlistment, and following compliance with the provisions of the UCMJ, each Service member will have “On (date), per UCMJ, article 137; member advised of the required provisions of the UCMJ.” Entry made in the permanent service record on what?
A
NAVPERS 1070/613
90
Q
- Clerical instructions for preparation of the agreement to extend enlistment are contained in what reference?
A
DJMS PTG
91
Q
- “Agreement to Extend Active Duty” refers to what official form of agreement
A
NAVPERS 1070/622
92
Q
- “Retention eligible member” is defined as a member that meets minimum eligibility criteria outlined per what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1160-030
93
Q
- What manages extensions for active duty USN and Full Time Support Sailors?
A
Enlisted Active Programs (PERS-811)
94
Q
- What manages Fleet Reserve, retirement and High Year Tenure (HYT) matters for Active duty USN, and PERS-91 manages SELRES?
A
Enlisted Retirement Branch (PERS-823)
95
Q
- 10 U.S.C. 509 allows the term of enlistment to be extended up to how long
A
48 months
96
Q
- Extensions shall be executed in monthly increments of 1 to how many months?
A
23
97
Q
- The enlistment contract cannot be extended for more than how many aggregate months?
A
24
98
Q
- A maximum of how many extension agreements per enlistment contract are authorized?
A
Two
99
Q
- Refer to what for early reenlistment authority when a member cannot meet service obligation by extension due to two or more extensions or 24 total aggregate extension months on a current enlistment?
A
MILPERSMAN 1160-030
100
Q
- A list of overmanned ratings by zone is updated how often?
A
Quarterly
101
Q
- A member whose normal EAOS falls within the wife’s pregnancy may execute an extension not to exceed how long beyond spouse’s estimated delivery date?
A
2 months
102
Q
- Refer to what for information about OBLISERV in connection with a PCS transfer?
A
MILPERSMAN 1306-106
103
Q
- Members in receipt of an authorization for transfer to the Fleet Reserve may not extend their enlistment more than how many days beyond approved Fleet Reserve date without specific approval from PERS-823?
A
29
104
Q
- To execute an extension, use what?
A
NAVPERS 1070/621
105
Q
- The CO cannot cancel an extension that gained a significant benefit or has an approved Physical Fitness Assessment Separation Waiver without authority from what?
A
PERS-81
106
Q
- For non-5/6-year obligor members disenrolled, through no fault of their own, from single “A” or “C” service schools, or consecutive service schools, payback will be determined by using the OBLISERV for schools chart in what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1306-604
107
Q
When COs do not have authority to cancel extensions of enlistment and early release warrants consideration (e.g., within force shaping initiatives), the member may consider requesting early release from what?
A
PERS-832
108
Q
- Enlisted members may volunteer to be held beyond expiration of their enlistment or active duty obligation, or other period of OBLISERV. Refer to what?
A
MILPERSMAN 1160-040
109
Q
- The normal date of expiration of enlistment or extension of enlistment of a member serving aboard a ship in foreign waters may be extended until return of the ship to a continental port of the United States (U.S.) or until transfer of member concerned to the separation activity nearest port of debarkation. So retained shall be separated not later than how many days after arrival in the U.S.?
A
30
110
Q
- Enlistments are extended automatically in the case of members whose normal date of expiration of enlistment occurs while they are serving in what temporary capacity?
A
Officer appointment
111
Q
- Members in the Regular Navy, Navy Reserve, and Fleet Reserve on active duty other than training duty of less than how many days, who are in need of medical care or hospitalization as a result of disease or injury incident to service and not due to their own misconduct, may be retained with their consent beyond the date of their normal expiration of active OBLISERV?
A
30
112
Q
- Members for whom tacit consent to retention is assumed ordinarily will not be retained in excess of how long beyond the date of their normal expiration of active obligated service (EAOS)?
A
6 months
113
Q
- Members being processed before a what shall not be released from active duty or discharged until the Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV) has completed the final action on their cases and instructions received from NAVPERSCOM, Retirements Branch, (PERS-482)?
A
PEB
114
Q
- Members of Naval Service awaiting disposition of criminal proceedings by a foreign jurisdiction are afforded statutory and regulatory protection and benefits attendant to their status as members of the Armed Forces. At least how long before EAOS, member will be offered opportunity to extend member’s enlistment voluntarily for the duration of legal proceedings and any subsequent punishment?
A
1 month
115
Q
- What is a vital and effective force shaping tool to properly size and shape the active and Reserve Navy?
A
High Year Tenure (HYT) Program
116
Q
- HYT dates for ACDU and FTS personnel are computed using what?
A
ADSD
117
Q
- What is the HYT for E1 and E2 personnel?
A
4 years
118
Q
- What is the HYT for E3 personnel?
A
5 years
119
Q
- What is the HYT for E4 personnel?
A
8 years
120
Q
- What is the HYT for E5 personnel?
A
14 years
121
Q
- What is the HYT for E6 personnel?
A
20 years
122
Q
- What is the HYT for E7 personnel?
A
24 years
123
Q
- What is the HYT for E8 personnel?
A
26 years
124
Q
- What is the HYT for E9 personnel?
A
30 years
125
Q
- Who may exceed 30 years service provided they meet certain requirements?
A
Command Master Chiefs (CMCs)
126
Q
- What is the HYT for SELRES E1 and E2 personnel?
A
6 years
127
Q
- What is the HYT for SELRES E3 personnel?
A
10 years
128
Q
- What is the HYT for SELRES E4 personnel?
A
12 years
129
Q
- What is the HYT for SELRES E5 personnel?
A
20 years
130
Q
- What is the HYT for SELRES E6 personnel?
A
22 years
131
Q
- What is the HYT for SELRES E7 personnel?
A
24 years
132
Q
- What is the HYT for SELRES E8 personnel?
A
26 years
133
Q
- What is the HYT for SELRES E9 personnel?
A
30 years
134
Q
- E-4 personnel approved for what program are authorized to exceed HYT dates?
A
STAR
135
Q
- Requests for ACDU and FTS HYT waivers shall normally be submitted using what
A
NAVPERS 1306/7
136
Q
- Nuclear-trained Sailors will submit HYT waiver requests to what?
A
OPNAV (N133)
137
Q
- Requests for SELRES personnel HYT waivers shall be submitted to NAVPERSCOM, Reserve Enlisted Status Branch/FTS Recall and Conversions (PERS-913) using NAVPERS 1306/7, and should arrive how long prior to established HYT date?
A
10 months
138
Q
- What is the final disposition authority for cancelling HYT waivers?
A
CNPC
139
Q
- If the previously approved HYT waiver is cancelled, ACDU and FTS Sailors will be separated within how long of cancellation, unless they have sufficient time to transfer to the Fleet Reserve or retire?
A
120 days
140
Q
- ACDU and FTS personnel who are separated due to HYT gates, and are advancement eligible at the time of separation, may be eligible for full what?
A
ISP
141
Q
- In order to be eligible for any amount of ISP, ACDU and FTS members must have completed at least 6, but less than 20 years of active service, and must enter into an agreement to serve in the Ready Reserve for a period of not less than how long?
A
3 years
142
Q
- To preclude unwarranted ISP recoupment action by Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS), commands separating Sailors in pay grades E-5 and below for HYT, who are otherwise fully retainable, shall enter a reentry code of what in Block 27 of member’s DD-214 Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty?
A
RE-6
143
Q
- SELRES E-3 through E-9 personnel may extend or reenlist for any period of time per MILPERSMAN 1160- 030 or what else?
A
MILPERSMAN 1160-040
144
Q
- ACDU and FTS E-9 personnel receiving an HYT waiver will forfeit what eligibility?
A
Twilight tour
145
Q
- What defines and discusses twilight tour eligibility?
A
MILPERSMAN 1300-600
146
Q
- HYT gates for OSVETs in pay grades what and below are computed based on total active Navy service only?
A
E-4
147
Q
- ACDU, FTS, and SELRES personnel shall appear before a career development board how long prior to reaching HYT?
A
24 months
148
Q
- Qualifications for Naval Aircrew Warfare Specialist (NAWS) designation require personnel be qualified as a crewmember per what reference, and maintain a consistent record of above average performance per MILPERSMAN 1220-010 in addition to other requirements?
A
BUPERSINST 1326.4D
149
Q
- Qualifications for Naval Aircrew Warfare Specialist (NAWS) designation require personnel to successfully complete positional qualification requirements for the respective aircraft within how many months of reporting to the permanent duty station (PDS)in addition to other requirements?
A
18
150
Q
- Commanding officers (COs) shall certify in writing the member’s qualifications in aircraft positions per NAVPERS 15560 and what reference?
A
OPNAVINST 3710.7T
151
Q
- A NAWS designation letter should be prepared per what reference and presented to the member when the Aircrew Warfare Breast Insignia is awarded?
A
BUPERSINST 1326.4D
152
Q
- A NAWS designation letter should be prepared per what reference and presented to the member when the Aircrew Warfare Breast Insignia is awarded?
A
BUPERSINST 1326.4D
153
Q
- Only active aircrew, on and after what date, are eligible for certificates of designation for NAWS?
A
1 July 1997
154
Q
- Whenever a member qualifies as a Naval Aircrewman, an entry shall be made on the what in the service record?
A
NAVPERS 1070/613
155
Q
- Whenever a member is disqualified from aircrew duty, an entry shall be made on NAVPERS 1070/613 showing the reason for disqualification and rescinding of authorization to wear the
NAWS Breast Insignia (except in the case of what)?
A
Physical disqualification
156
Q
- The assignment or removal of aircrew NECs shall be per BUPERSINST 1326.4D and what else?
A
NAVPERS 18068F
157
Q
- The NAWS Insignia consists of a Breast Insignia as prescribed by what reference?
A
NAVPERS 15665I
158
Q
- Servicemembers designated as Naval Aircrewmen on or before what date are grandfathered and considered designated as NAWSs?
A
30 September 2009
159
Q
- Service members who are ordered to make a permanent change of station (PCS) move are entitled to personal travel and transportation allowances per what reference?
A
JFTR, Volume 1, Chapter 5
160
Q
- PDS’s are what to each other when they are both in an area ordinarily serviced by the same local transportation system, and Service members could reasonably commute daily from home to either PDS?
A
In proximity
161
Q
- What is a Navy process to obtain permission from an area commander to bring dependents into a specific area?
A
Dependent entry approval (DEA)
162
Q
- DEA must be used in conjunction with additional information/requirements in DOD 4500.54-G and what else?
A
OPNAVINST 4650.15
163
Q
- DEA requests must be submitted at least how long prior to sponsors arrival?
A
4 months
164
Q
- Navy personnel ordered overseas with the what should liaise with the gaining command to determine if DEA is required?
A
PEP
165
Q
- What is payable to a member with family members, when family members perform an authorized move in connection with a permanent change of station?
A
DLA
166
Q
- A member is not entitled to more than how many DLA payments during any fiscal year unless SECNAV approved exigencies arise?
A
One
167
Q
- Requests for a SECNAV approved exception to the one DLA payment during any fiscal year must be submitted at an early date, as approximately how many weeks are required for processing?
A
Four
168
Q
- When PCS orders are received for a member and it is determined at the command level that a SECNAVFIND
is required, but the PCS orders do not indicate that it is approved, pending, or not required, the member’s CO will request one from what?
A
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-451H)
169
Q
- What will maintain the master file of SECNAVFIND requests for statistical and record purposes?
A
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-451H)
170
Q
- When members are retained on active duty and approved for Temporary Limited Duty by NAVPERSCOM (PERS-83) what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
A
L-1
171
Q
- When members are retained on active duty pending physical evaluation board preceedings what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
A
L-2
172
Q
- When members are retained on active duty and are approved for permanent limited duty by NAVPERSCOM (PERS-83) for CONUS or overseas shore duty only what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
A
L-4
173
Q
- When members are retained on active duty and are approved for permanent limited duty by NAVPERSCOM (PERS-83) for CONUS shore duty only what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
A
L-5
174
Q
- When members are retained on active duty and are pending temporary disability retirement what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
A
L-6
175
Q
- When members are retained on active duty and are pending permanent disability retirement what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
A
L-7
176
Q
- When members are retained on active duty and are pending separation for intentional misconduct or willful neglect (IMWN) or incurred during unauthorized absence (IDUA) what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
A
L-8
177
Q
- When members are retained on active duty and are pending disability separation with severance pay what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
A
L-9
178
Q
- When members are retained on active duty and approved assignment limited designation by NAVPERSCOM (PERS-40BB) what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
A
L-M
179
Q
- When members are retained on active duty and pending disability separation without Severance Pay existed prior to service (EPTS/EPTE) what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
A
L-T
180
Q
- Billet control, personnel procurement, training, and distribution are processes in what
A
Enlisted Distribution Management System
