NAVEDTRA 14145/BMR--EDIT LATER--663/246 Flashcards
- Deterrence, Forward Defense, along with what else are the three basic pillars that National military strategy rests on?
Alliance Solidarity
- What enables us to deny the enemy any advantage through expansion?
Maritime superiority
- Deterrence of war has been the sole mission and basic reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine since its inception in what year?
1960
- How many Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles (SLBMs) do Trident class submarines carry?
24
- What type of attack is intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective?
Strike
- What is the key member of a powerful and mobile naval task force?
Aircraft carrier
- What type of attack on supply lines is an attempt to destroy railroads, bridges, electric power plants, and so forth, and is used to cripple the support of enemy front lines with minimum effort?
Interdiction
- What year did the Chief of Naval Operations order the development of a weapons system capable of launching a missile from a submerged submarine?
1955
- What was the United States first fleet ballistic missile (FBM) submarine launched in June of 1959?
George Washington (SSBN-598)
- What type of warfare integrates nearly all types of ships, aircraft, weapons, and landing forces in a concerted military effort against a hostile shore?
Amphibious
- What type of warfare is a conflict in which at least one of the opponents is operating from the sea with surface ships, submarines, or sea-based aircraft?
Naval
- What are the three major areas involved in Naval warfare?
Surface, Subsurface, and Air
- What is the destruction of enemy aircraft and airborne weapons, whether launched from air, surface, subsurface, or land?
AAW
- What is the destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines?
ASW
- What is the destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships?
ASUW
- What type of warfare uses conventional or nuclear weapons in the destruction or neutralization of the enemy targets ashore? (
Strike
- What type of naval operations are generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature and, in many cases, conducted with secrecy?
Special warfare
- What is the assessment and management of information obtained via surveillance, reconnaissance, and other means called?
Intelligence
- What provides the means to exercise the authority and direction of naval forces in the accomplishment of their mission?
NCCS
- What ensures the effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum by friendly forces while determining, reducing, or preventing its use by an enemy?
Electronic warfare
- What is defined as resupplying combat consumables to combatant forces during operations?
Logistics
- AEGIS can perform search, track, and missile-guidance functions simultaneously with a track capacity of over how many targets?
100
- What is the Navy’s first all-weather, automatic-controlled gun system designed to provide defense against close-in, sea-skimming cruise missiles that penetrate outer defense systems?
Phalanx
- What year was the Phoenix air-to-air missile introduced into the fleet with the F-14 aircraft?
1974
- What is an all-weather submarine-launched or surface combatant-launched antiship or land-attack cruise missile?
Tomahawk
- What is defined as the ability of a force, a unit, a weapons system, or an equipment to deliver the output for which it was designed?
Readiness
- What is designed to turn a materially ready and manned ship into a ship that is fully capable of performing its assigned mission?
Refresher training
- Which instruction outlines the basic bills that all ships base drills on?
OPNAVINST 3120.32B
- What is the most important type of drill held aboard ships?
General Quarters
- What type of inspection tests the ability of the crew and ship to operate in battle under wartime conditions?
ORI
- What type of inspection determines the adequacy of the administrative and operating procedures directly related to the propulsion plant and the capability of assigned personnel to maintain equipment and systems?
PEB
- Naval ships should be examined by INSURV at least once every how many years if practical?
3
- Division personnel and material readiness should be assessed daily at a minimum and in more detail at least how often?
Weekly
- Work habits, knowledge, along with what else will be the three areas looked at while assessing worker performance?
Attitude
- What does each division or department use to make formal supply inventories?
OPTAR Log
- Which log describes deficiencies and missing equipment in each space?
Equipment Deficiency Log (EDL)
- What is the computer printout of the number of personnel in each rate aboard the command
EDVR
- What lists the planned operations, assist visits, inspections, and ports of call for the fiscal year?
Annual Employment Schedule
- What is the most effective way to inform subordinates of their standing in the division?
Counseling
- What are used to note discrepancies, recommend solutions to problems, and provide a follow-up date for reevaluation?
Counseling sheet
- What identifies a number of discrepancies individually and gives recommended solutions in addition to dates for reevaluation?
Letter of Instruction
- What is the administrative remarks page of the enlisted service record used to provide a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries not provided on other pages of the record?
Page 13
- What should be used to prepare written input from yourself to the responsible party in your chain of command via your division officer and department head?
Memorandum
- How many types of recognition can subordinates be recommended for?
Five
- What format should subordinates’ accomplishments be in to make them stronger?
Bullet
- What are the two categories of authority?
General and Organizational
- What should be used when the CO delegates signature authority in writing?
Titles
- How do subordinates usually sign documents under delegated authority?
By direction
- What instruction gives specific guidance on signature authority?
SECNAVINST 5216.5C
- How many different types of naval communications are senior petty officers required to compose?
Two
- What is used for urgent communication where speed is of primary importance
Naval message
- What type of message is sent to one addressee only and may be either for action or information?
Single-address
- Which type of message is sent to two or more addressees, each of whom is aware of the other addressee(s)?
Multiple-address
- What type of message is sent to two or more addressees and is of such a nature that no addressee needs to know who the others are?
Book
- What type of message has a wide standard distribution to all commands in an area under one command or to types of commands and activities?
General
- What is the authority (command or activity) in whose name messages are sent?
Originator
- Who is responsible for validating message content, affirming message compliance with message-drafting instructions, and for determining whether the draft of the message should be released as a message or as a NAVGRAM?
Releaser
- What is the title of the message composer?
Drafter
- How many common precedence categories are messages divided into?
Four
- Which publication contains message precedence information?
NTP-3
- Which message precedence is assigned to all types of traffic that justify electrical transmission but are not of sufficient urgency to require a higher precedence?
Routine
- Which message precedence is reserved for messages that furnish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress?
Priority
- What is the highest message precedence normally authorized for administrative messages?
Priority
- Which message precedence is reserved for messages relating to situations that gravely affect the national forces or populace and require immediate delivery to addressees?
Immediate
- What prosign identifies Immediate message precedence
O
- Which message precedence is reserved for initial enemy contact reports or operational combat messages of extreme urgency?
Flash
- Which prosign identifies messages with Flash precedence?
Z
- How many digits followed by a time-zone suffix does a DTG consist of?
Six
- What phrase is used to denote the format and ordinary language spelling of command short titles and geographical locations used in message addresses?
Plain Language Address
- What are single-address, alphabetically sorted, common-interest groups called?
Collective Address Designators
- What are used to represent predetermined lists of specific and frequently recurring combinations of action and information addressees or both?
Address Indicating Groups
- What are used as alternatives to the repeating of lengthy references within the text of the message?
Reference lines
- What process is used to transmit a message to an activity that was not an addressee of the message as it was originally drafted?
Message readdressal
- How many days following the release date, except under certain circumstances, are all message directives automatically canceled?
90
- What condition imposed by proper authority is used to reduce and control electrical message and telephone traffic?
Minimize
- Which instruction contains regulations and guidance for classifying and safeguarding classified information?
OPNAVINST 5510.1H
- What is a brief form of a naval letter on which an official recommends action or makes comments, forwards a letter, redirects a misaddressed letter, or endorses a letter back to the originator for further information?
Endorsement
- What are used for urgent communications between department of defense (DOD) addressees?
NAVGRAMs
- What provide a standard system of numbers used throughout the Navy to categorize, subject classify, and identify directives, letters, messages, forms, and reports?
Standard Subject Identification Codes (SSICs)
- How many major subject groups does the SSIC system consist of?
14
- What means that when you use a coordinating conjunction (and, but, nor, yet), nouns, adjectives, dependent clauses, and so on, should match in each part of the sentence?
Parallelism
- Generally, sentences should be restricted to how many words or less?
20
- “It is” along with what other phrase hurt naval writing more than anything else?
“There are”
- What program ensures that commands do not wait for discriminatory incidents to occur before taking corrective action?
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)
- From what two perspectives can equal opportunity be observed?
Personnel and Administration
- What team evaluates command members knowledge about equal opportunity?
Command Assessment Team (CAT)
- What team assesses command compliance with the Navy’s equal opportunity objectives as a whole?
Command Training Team (CTT)
- What means are used for determining what people actually do or how they behave and interact?
Observations
- How many methods can be used by commands to enforce equal opportunity?
Three
- Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) grants Commanding Officers the power to award punishment for minor offenses without the intervention of a court-martial?
Article 15
- What publication contains details concerning required premast advice to an accused?
Judge Advocate General (JAG) Manual
- Who is responsible for collecting all available facts concerning the offense itself and the background of the accused?
PIO
- How many types of punishment under article 15 of the UCMJ, under appropriate circumstances, can be imposed by Commanding Officers?
Nine
- What is the least severe form of liberty denial
Restriction
- What is the physical restraint of persons during duty or nonduty hours, or both called?
Correctional custody
- How many days is the maximum duration that confinement sentences on bread and water may be imposed on nonrated personnel attached or embarked on vessels?
3
- What is considered to be the most severe form of NJP?
Reduction in grade
- What is the maximum number of hours per day that extra duty can be assigned?
2
- Detention of pay may not exceed how many years and may not extend beyond the expiration of the member’s current enlistment?
1 year
- Up to how many days may Commanders defer confinement on bread and water or correctional custody if the needs of the naval service dictate such deferment?
15
- How many days do members have to appeal NJP punishment to a higher authority?
5
- What has become the most valuable drug detection and deterrence tool used by the Navy?
Urinalysis
- Natural and synthetic morphine-like drugs that are derived from what source are the most effective pain relievers known?
Opiates
- What is a white or brown powder known to the addict as H, horse, caballo, white stuff, white lade, Harry, joy powder, doojee, sugar, stag, or smack?
Heroin
- How many times more potent than morphine is heroin?
10
- What year was Methadone invented by German chemists?
1941
- What type of substances produce excitation, increased activity, and an ability to go without sleep for extended periods?
Stimulants
- Which drug induces euphoria, excitation, anxiety, a sense of increased muscular strength, and talkativeness?
Cocaine
- What is street cocaine that is mixed with baking soda and water to remove impurities called?
Crack
- What type of substance distorts the user’s perception of objective reality?
Hallucinogens
- What is the number one drug problem in the United States today?
Alcohol
- Which instruction provides the Navy’s policy on drug and alcohol abuse?
OPNAVINST 5350.4B
- The first consistent changes in mood and behavior appear at blood-alcohol levels of approximately what percent?
0.05
- Voluntary motor actions-hand and arm movements, walking, and sometimes speech-become clumsy at what blood-alcohol level?
0.10%
- A blood-alcohol level of what percent measurably impairs the controls of the entire motor area of the brain as well as that part of the brain that guides emotional behavior?
0.20
- Drinking large amounts of alcohol for an extended length of time reduces the brain’s sensitivity to the alcohol. Therefore, a person must drink greater amounts of alcohol to feel its effects. What is this change in the sensitivity of the brain called?
Tolerance
- What process do our bodies use to transform drugs into other substances and eventually eliminate them through normal bodily functions?
Metabolic
- How many times more often among alcoholics as among nonalcoholics does Cirrhosis of the liver occur?
Eight
- People with blood-alcohol levels of what percent have a reduced white blood cell mobilization as great as that in people suffering from severe shock?
0.15 to 0.25
- How many different levels does the Navy provide alcohol abuse prevention and rehabilitation programs on?
Three
- What is the maximum time allotted for members to a Level II alcohol abuse counseling program
4 weeks
- Residential rehabilitation for alcohol abuse involves a multidisciplinary therapeutic approach that normally lasts how many weeks?
6
- How many days do persons remain in an “aftercare” status following a successful completion of a Level II or III alcohol abuse program before they return to their command?
180
- Who is the command representative responsible to the commanding officer for carrying out the NADAP?
DAPA
- What is a nonresidential facility providing counseling services, clinical screening/referral, and local outreach programs for commands in the immediate geographic area?
CAAC
- What are the two distinct types of authority?
General and Organizational
- Which Standard Organization and Regulations of the United States Navy article contains the general responsibilities and duties of all officers and petty officers in the Navy?
141.4
- What type of authority held by all officers and petty officers is derived from each person’s assigned billet within a particular command?
Organizational
- Which Navy Regulations article grants petty officers at each level the necessary authority for the performance of their duties?
Article 1037
- What grants the right to require actions of others?
Authority
- Withholding of privileges along with what else are two of the most common measures used to correct military duty deficiencies?
Extra Military Instruction (EMI)
- EMI will not normally be assigned for more than how many hours per day
2
- The authority to assign EMI is normally not delegated below what level?
CPO
- What is a benefit provided for the convenience or enjoyment of an individual?
Privilege
- Depriving an individual of liberty or privileges as a punishment for any offense or substandard performance of duty is illegal, except as specifically authorized under the what?
UCMJ
- What is defined as something that a person is expected or required to do by moral or legal obligation—an action or task required by one’s position?
Duty
- What is the commanding officer’s summary of personnel duty assignments and stations called
Watch, Quarter, and Station (WQS) bill
- Who is responsible for maintaining the ships master WQS bill?
Executive Officer
- What is used for transferring information from the battle bill and ship’s bills to the WQS bill?
Division notebook
- What is probably the most important of all the shipboard bills
Emergency bills
- Which bill organizes the crew to handle the effects of a major emergency or disaster aboard ship?
General emergency bill
- Which PQS section covers the basic knowledge needed to understand the specific equipment or duties and provides an analysis of those fundamentals that broadly apply?
Fundamentals (100 series)
- Which PQS section breaks down the subject equipment or duties into smaller, more easily understood sections called systems?
Systems (200 Series)
- Which PQS section tests the trainee’s readiness to perform a designated task?
Watch Station/Maintenance Action (300 Series)
- PQS oral examination boards could have as few as two or as many as how many members
Eight
- What is normally the minimum paygrade required to be a PQS qualifier
E-5
- Who introduces trainee’s to the PQS program and recommends and monitors the goals for each individual?
Work Center Supervisor
- Who qualifies personnel for watch stations and equipment/systems operations?
Department head
- Which side of the service record folder is the actual service record on?
Right
- What are used to verify a members ability to perform tasks required by occupational standards (OCCSTDs)?
PARs
- What are the primary enlisted-to-officer programs sponsored by the Navy that do not require a college education?
Limited Duty Officer and Chief Warrant Officer
- CWO candidates must have completed at least 12 years, but not more than how many years, of active service on 16 January of the year in which application is made?
24
- LDO candidates must have completed at least 8 years but not more than how many years of active naval service on 16 January of the year in which application is made?
16
- CPOs and SCPOs with at least how many years, but not more than 16 years, of naval service may apply for LDO and CWO in the same application year, but only one designator for each program may be requested?
12
- An active service obligation of how many years will be incurred by ECP selectees?
6
- To be eligible, ECP applicants must be at least 22 years of age, able to complete degree requirements, and commissioned before reaching what age?
33
- Which program provides 16 weeks of officer indoctrination training for enlisted personnel who possess a baccalaureate degree or higher?
OCS
- OCS applicants must be at least 19 years old and not have reached what age by their commissioning date?
29
- Who ensures that personnel are trained to operate and maintain their equipment and related systems?
TPO
- Quarters for muster and inspection are held each workday before what time depending upon the type of ship and its operating schedule?
0800
- Who is the most important person aboard the ship while in port next to the Captain and the Executive Officer?
OOD
- What publication should be used by all watch standers as a general guide for standards that should be met?
SORN
- What occurs when watch conditions change within the ship?
Setting the watch
- Who supervises the quarterdeck watch, anchor watch, fog look-outs, brow and dock sentries
POOW
- What is the term for taking a person into custody
Apprehension
- What is the term for the moral or physical restraint of a person’s liberty?
Restraint
- What is the term for restraining a person by an oral or written order which directs the person to remain within specified limits of an area?
Restriction in lieu of arrest
- What is the term for restraining a person by an oral or written order that is not imposed as punishment and directs the person to remain within the specified limits of an area?
Arrest
- What is the term for depriving a person of his or her freedom pending the disposition of offenses by means of physical restraint that is imposed by order of competent authority?
Confinement
- What is the official daily record of a ship maintained by watches?
Deck log
- How many months are deck log copies retained onboard prior to being destroyed?
12
- Who is responsible for examining the ship’s deck log daily to ensure it is properly kept?
Navigator
- What type of visit refers to visits on board by individuals or specific groups as differentiated from the general public?
Casual visiting
- What are the normal shipboard general visiting hours?
1300-1600
- What is the maximum visitor group size that departmental personnel should be responsible for when they are detailed to act as shipboard tour guides?
15
- How long before the scheduled commencement of general visiting should the chief master-at-arms muster sentries and guides for inspection and instruction?
30 minutes
- What hours are officers normally permitted to have personal guests come onboard?
1600-2200
- After what time and until the expiration of visiting hours on Sundays and during general visiting are Chief petty officers permitted to entertain guests in their messroom and lounge?
1100
- Who is responsible for authorizing classified ship visits
CNO
- Who is directly responsible to the commanding officer for the posting of all security watches and sentries?
OOD
- What name is given to the 1600-1800 and the 1800-2000 watches aboard ship?
Dog watch
- Which instruction encompasses all safety disciplines?
OPNAVINST 5100.23
- Which instruction provides general shipboard safety precautions?
OPNAVINST 5100.19
- Which instruction outlines the safety program and the safety organization?
OPNAVINST 3120.32
- Which instruction provides motor vehicle safety policy and guidance?
OPNAVINST 5100.12
- How many types of safety observations can be used?
Three
- Which type of safety observation occurs when safety hazards are noticed without deliberately taking time to look for them?
Incidental
- Which type of safety observation do observers intentionally pause in whatever they are doing to see if a person does some part of a job safely?
Deliberate
- Which type of safety observation is deliberately scheduled to watch for safety violations by a person performing a specific job?
Planned
- What makes command safety program recommendations?
Enlisted Safety Committee
- What acts as a roving inspector for hazards and risks (unsafe work practices) that could result in injury to personnel or damage to equipment?
MAA/Safety Force
- Which program specifically addresses the maintenance of safe and healthful conditions in the work place?
NAVOSH
- Personnel working in hazardous noise areas must be entered in a hearing test program when they are exposed to sound levels greater than 84 dB or peak sound pressure levels exceeding what level?
140 dB
- What type of strain is placed on the body as it attempts to regulate its temperature as a result of any combination of air temperature, thermal radiation, humidity, air flow, and work load?
Heat stress
- Heat stress surveys must be conducted in work areas when the watch or work station’s dry-bulb temperature
exceeds what temperature?
100°F
- Any person found to have vision in one eye of what level or worse to be visually impaired by Naval standards?
20/200
- How often should tag-out system audits be performed?
Every 2 weeks
- Navy Regulations along with which Code of Conduct article give the senior person in a survival situation the authority to take charge?
Article IV
- What permits personnel to see without being seen?
Camouflage
- How many yards can enemy observers see under favorable conditions in open woods?
100
- Who made the defiant reply “I have not yet begun to fight”?
John Paul Jones
- Prevention, minimization, along with what else make up the three basic objectives of shipboard damage control?
Restoration
- Who is responsible for carrying out command damage control requirements including training?
Executive Officer
- Who is the senior member of the underway watch team and is the primary assistant to the commanding officer on the bridge?
Officer Of the Deck (OOD)
- How many months do DCPOs normally serve?
6
- Who maintains a list of all the personnel assigned to repair parties?
DCA
- What material condition is used for maximum protection in battle?
Zebra
- What coordinates setting material condition Zebra for X-ray and Yoke fittings that were previously logged as open in the damage control closure log?
DCC
- What provides personnel immediately to fight fires during action?
Repair parties
- How many battle dressing stations at a minimum do most ships have that are equipped for emergency handling of battle casualties?
Two
- Who takes charge of damage repair at the immediate scene and is directly in charge of the fire-fighting party?
On-scene leader
- Who is responsible for training and organizing the at-sea fire party?
DCA
- How many principles of investigation should be considered during damage investigation?
Four
- What is the nominal distance from the point of impact that damage should spread if the underwater protective system is initially intact?
Fifty feet
- CO2 flooded compartments should not be opened for at least how many minutes after they have been flooded except in case of emergencies?
15
- What temperatures cause the decomposition of Halon 1301?
900°+F
- How many gallons per minute (gpm) of water will a hole in the hull, with an area of only 1 square foot, 15 feet below the surface admit?
13,900
- What refers to a compartment that is completely filled with water from deck to overhead?
Solid flooding
- What are the bulkheads and decks called that restrict the partially flooded area from the flooding boundary?
Flooding boundaries
- What are used as the primary means of communications during battle or while combating damage?
Sound-powered telephones
- Which circuit is the main damage control circuit that is common to the damage control station and all repair parties?
2JZ
- Which circuit connects the conn, pilot house, interior communications (IC) room, combat information center (CIC), and damage control central (DCC)?
JA (Captain’s battle circuit)
- Which circuit connects the pilot house, bridge wings, main engine control, forecastle, fantail, steering gear room, IC room, and DCC?
JV (Maneuvering circuit)
- Which circuit connects all the machinery spaces, engineer log room, IC room, emergency diesel generator space, main distribution switchboards, smoke watch, fueling station, and DCC?
2JV (Engineer’s circuit)
- Which circuit provides a means of rigging communication lines between vital stations during an emergency condition?
X-40J (Casualty communication circuit)
- What is the damage control intercom system circuit
4MC
- What is emergency treatment of the sick or injured before regular medical or surgical attention can be obtained called?
First aid
- Up to how many miles from the burst can an air blast from a nuclear detonation can general damage?
10
- What name is given to the pressure pulse created in water as a result of an explosion on or below the water surface?
Underwater shock
- Over how many feet in height can waves from a surface or underwater burst be?
100
- Up to how many minutes can flash blindness from a nuclear attack last?
30
- Over what distance is the casualty range of from the initial radiation of a normal kiloton burst?
1 mile
- Alpha, Beta, along with what else are the three types of ionizing nuclear radiation that can be emitted from radioactive contamination?
Gamma
- What type of radiation has a range in the air of only a few feet and has limited penetrating power?
Beta
- Which type of radiation has an effective range in the air of many hundreds of feet and is highly penetrating?
Gamma
- Which type of warfare intentionally uses living infectious microorganisms (germs) to reduce or destroy the military effectiveness of personnel?
Biological
- Up to how many hours can it take for results to show from BW agents
72
- Which agents are intended for use in military operations to kill, injure seriously, or incapacitate people through physiological effects?
Chemical warfare (CW)
- Which type of agents produce temporary physiological or mental effects that render individuals incapable of performing their assigned duties?
Incapacitating
- Which type of agents produce temporary irritating or incapacitating effects when contact is made with the eyes or when inhaled?
Riot control
- Which type of agents are considered to be the most dangerous because of their ability, even in small amounts, to cause casualties?
Nerve
- Unless under the direct supervision of medical personnel, what is the maximum number of 2-PAM chloride injections that can be given?
Three
- Which type of agents smell of garlic, fish, or geraniums and may appear as colorless to dark brown oily liquid or droplets?
Blister
- How many minutes after exposure to blister agents do personnel have to perform effective treatment?
2
- Which type of agents smell like freshly mown hay or grass?
Choking
- Which type of agents are colorless but may have a slight odor of bitter almonds?
Blood
- What is a flexible system of protection against chemical agents that is used in chemical warfare defense
MOPP
- How many phases are disaster relief operations normally conducted in?
Five
- Which type of plan contains general goals and broad guidelines?
Policy
- What is a plan or system under which action may be taken towards a goal?
Program
- What is the altering of the natural environment in an adverse way called?
Environmental pollution
- Which type of pollutants include insecticides, herbicides, pesticides, natural and chemical fertilizers, drainage from animal feedlots, salts from field irrigation, and silts from uncontrolled soil erosion?
Agricultural
- Which type of pollutants include acids from mines and factories, thermal discharges from power plants, and radioactive wastes from mining and processing certain ores?
Industrial
- Which type of pollutants include refuse, storm-water overflows, and salts used on streets in wintertime?
Municipal
- Which type of pollutants include emissions from aircraft, trains, waterborne vessels, and cars and trucks?
Transportation
- How many fathoms under the sea must submarines be before compacted trash can be discharged?
1,000
- How many nautical miles away from any foreign coastline must vessels be before discharging any trash?
25
- Which program directs federal facilities, including naval shore stations, to comply with all substantive or procedural requirements applying to environmental noise reduction?
Noise Prevention
- What type of fuel do most of the Navy’s ships and all of its aircraft use?
Petroleum
- Who set up the Navy Sponsor Program to ease the relocation of naval personnel and their families when transferred on permanent change of station (PCS) orders?
CNO
- Which form can personnel use to request a sponsor?
NAVPERS 1330/2
- What program provides information and support to help personnel who are guests in foreign lands?
Overseas Duty Support Program (ODSP)
- What gives up-to-date information of the country personnel will be visiting?
SITES
- Which program was designed to find new ideas to effectively increase performance within the Department of the Navy?
Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP)
- What is the maximum MILCAP award
$25,000
- Servicewoman may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas after the beginning of what week of pregnancy?
28th
- How many months after the expected delivery date may pregnant servicewomen be transferred to a deploying unit?
4
- Pregnant servicewomen must be able to be medically evacuated to a treatment facility within how many hours if they are to remain aboard the ship?
6
- Pregnant servicewomen must be able to be medically evacuated to a treatment facility within how many hours if they are to remain aboard the ship?
6
- How many days of convalescent leave do Commanding Officers normally grant after the servicewoman has delivered the baby?
42
- Service members in a single or dual military status with children or dependents under what age are required to have a formalized family care plan?
19
- Which program carries out the Department of the Navy’s policy to detect, deter, and eliminate fraud, waste, abuse, and mismanagement?
Integrity and Efficiency (I & E)
- What is intentional misleading or deceitful conduct called that deprives the government of its resources or rights?
Fraud
- What is extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources defined as?
Waste
- What is the intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources referred to as?
Abuse
- What naval office inquires into and reports on any matter that affects the discipline or military efficiency of the DoN?
Inspector General (IG)
- What protects the rights of personal privacy of people about whom records are maintained by agencies of the federal government?
Privacy Act
- What program allows Commanding Officers (COs) to create and maintain a positive Equal Opportunity (EO) environment?
CMEO
- What is behavior called that is prejudicial to another person because of that person’s race, religion, creed, color, sex, or national origin?
Insensitive practice
- What provides information about government housing and the type, cost, and availability of private housing?
HRO
- Which Amendment of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and assembly?
First Amendment
- What is defined as any conduct whereby a military member or members, regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military member or members, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or harmful?
Hazing
- What is unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature called?
Sexual harassment
- Sexual in nature, occurs in or impacts the work environment, along with what else are the three criterias for a person’s behavior to be considered sexual harassment?
Unwelcome
- Which type of sexual harassment are personnel being subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior?
Quid pro quo
- Which type of behaviors are always considered to be sexual harassment?
Red zone
- What type of behaviors would many people find unacceptable that could be considered to be sexual harassment?
Yellow zone
- Which U.S. Navy Regulations Article states “No person in the Navy is to enter a personal relationship that is unduly familiar, does not respect differences in rank, and is prejudicial to good order and discipline.”?
Article 1165
- What volunteer liaises between command and families?
Command ombudsman
- Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are recommended for preferred reenlistment?
RE-R1
- Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for reenlistment?
RE-1
- Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for probationary reenlistment?
RE-R3
- Which reenlistment code means that personnel are not eligible for reenlistment?
RE-4
- Who directs and supervises the Navy’s voting program?
Chief of Naval Personnel
- In what year did President Dwight D. Eisenhower prescribe a Code of Conduct for members of the armed forces?
1955
- How many articles does the Code of Conduct contain?
Six
- Which Code of Conduct article states that “When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give my Name, rank, service number and date of birth”?
V
- What are Naval personnel called when they are assigned military police duties?
Shore Patrol (SP)
- Who is in charge of the master-at-arms force headed by the CMAA?
Executive Officer
- What type of training is designed to develop self-control, character, and efficiency?
Discipline
- Which punishment theory teaches the wrongdoer and others that offenses must not be repeated?
Deterrent
- The UCMJ, Navy Regulations, along with what else are the three official sources that set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the Navy?
SORN
- What describes Navy members rights and responsibilities
U.S. Navy Regulations
- Who ensures U.S. Navy Regulations conform to the current needs of the Department of the Navy
Chief of Naval Operations
- Who issues U.S. Navy Regulation changes after they are approved by the President
Secretary of the Navy
- Which UCMJ article subjects offenders to charges for failing to obey Navy regulations?
Article 92
- Which Navy Regulations article discusses officer precedence?
Article 1002
- Which Navy Regulations article describes the proper manner of addressing officers orally and in writing?
Article 1010
- Which Navy Regulations article gives officers the authority necessary to perform their duties?
Article 1021
- Tyrannical/Capricious conduct along with what other method are persons in authority forbidden from using to injure their subordinates?
Abusive language
- Which Navy Regulations article provides the senior line officer eligible for command at sea the authority over all persons embarked in a boat?
Article 1033
- Which Navy Regulations article grants sentry authority?
Article 1038
- Personnel may not be ordered to active service without permission of whom?
Chief of Naval Personnel
- What is the minimum interval that personnel in confinement have to be visited to have their condition checked on and needs cared for?
4
- What is the maximum interest rate that naval personnel can impose on loans to other armed service members?
18
- Which Navy Regulations article governs duty exchanges?
Article 1134
- Which Navy Regulations article governs Leave and Liberty?
Article 1157
- Which instruction provides regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all Navy members?
OPNAVINST 3120.32
- Until what year did the various branches of the armed forces operate under different military codes
1951
- What year did the UCMJ become effective?
1951
- Which UCMJ article states that certain UCMJ articles must be carefully explained at certain intervals to every enlisted person?
Article 137
- What is the restraint of a person by an order not imposed as a punishment for an offense which directs them to remain within certain specified limits?
Arrest
- What is the physical restraint of a person called?
Confinement
- Which UCMJ Article explains commanding officers’ non-judicial punishment?
Article 15
- In a special court-martial, the accused must be afforded the opportunity to be represented by counsel qualified under what article of the UCMJ unless such counsel cannot be obtained because of the geographical location or pressing military requirements?
Article 27
- Which UCMJ Article explains servicemembers rights to not provide evidence against themselves (self- incrimination)?
Article 31
- Which UCMJ Article was designed to ensure that every court, its members, and its officers are completely free to fulfill their functions without fear of reprisal?
Article 37
- Which UCMJ Article prohibits any cruel or unusual punishment?
Article 55
- What are the UCMJ punitive articles?
77-134
- What is defined as an agreement between two or more persons to commit a crime?
Conspiracy
- What are members of the armed forces who, without permission, leave their place of duty or organization with the intent to remain away permanently guilty of?
Desertion
- How many days of absence, or sooner if the intent to desert is apparent, does the status of an absentee change to that of a deserter?
30
- Which UCMJ article covers missing ships movement?
Article 87
- What word designated by the principal headquarters of a command aids guards and sentinels in their scrutiny of persons who apply to pass the lines?
Countersign
- What word is used as a countersign check which is imparted only to those who are entitled to inspect guards and to commanders of guards?
Parole
- What is a detachment, guard, or detail posted by a commander which protects persons, places, or property of the enemy or of a neutral affected by the relationship of the opposing forces in their prosecution of war or during a state of conflict?
Safeguard
- What term means inattention to duty or failure to take action that, under the circumstances, should have been taken to prevent the loss, destruction, or damage of any military property?
Neglect
- Which UCMJ article covers personnel drunk on duty?
Article 112
- What is the maximum punishment that may be imposed on a sentinel on post who is found asleep or drunk in time of war?
Death
- What type of offense is defined as any act to avoid duty by feigning (pretending) to be ill or physically/mentally disabled?
Malingering
- How many or more persons must be engaged against anyone who may oppose them to be classified as a riot?
Three
- What is the unlawful killing of another called?
Manslaughter
- What is the unlawful killing of another committed without intent to kill or inflict great bodily harm
Involuntary manslaughter
- Which UCMJ article allows for punishable acts or omissions not specifically mentioned in other articles?
Article 134
- What is Commanding officer’s NJP often referred to as?
Captain’s mast
- What requires personnel to remain within certain specified limits (ship, station, etc.)?
Restriction
- What is the physical restraint (confinement) of a person during duty or nonduty hours, or both called?
Correctional custody
- Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations may be imposed only on enlisted persons in what pay- grade and below aboard ship?
E-3
- What is the maximum amount of time per day that extra duty can be assigned?
2 hours
- How many days do personnel who consider their article 15 punishment to be unjust or disproportionate to the offense have to appeal the decision to the next superior in the chain of command?
5
- Which UCMJ article prohibits compulsory self-incrimination?
Article 31
- Which Navy Regulations article grants the right for any person to communicate with the commanding officer?
Article 1107
- Summary, Special, along with what else are court martial types based on article 16 of the UCMJ
General
- What is the minimum amount of members that special court-martials can be made up of?
Three
- A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how many members?
Five
- A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how many members?
Five
- What is probably the most important log that personnel maintain onboard ships
Deck log
- Who keeps the ship’s deck log while at sea?
Quartermaster Of the Watch (QOOW)
- Which bill contains lists of stations that must be manned during battle and at other specified times?
Battle
- Which bill displays in one place personnel duties for each emergency and watch condition?
WQS
- Which condition sets general quarters?
Condition I
What special watch is used by gunfire support ships for situations such as extended periods of shore bombardment?
Condition II
- What is the normal wartime cruising watch?
Condition III