NAVEDTRA 14145/BMR--EDIT LATER--663/246 Flashcards
1
Q
- Deterrence, Forward Defense, along with what else are the three basic pillars that National military strategy rests on?
A
Alliance Solidarity
2
Q
- What enables us to deny the enemy any advantage through expansion?
A
Maritime superiority
3
Q
- Deterrence of war has been the sole mission and basic reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine since its inception in what year?
A
1960
4
Q
- How many Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles (SLBMs) do Trident class submarines carry?
A
24
5
Q
- What type of attack is intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective?
A
Strike
6
Q
- What is the key member of a powerful and mobile naval task force?
A
Aircraft carrier
7
Q
- What type of attack on supply lines is an attempt to destroy railroads, bridges, electric power plants, and so forth, and is used to cripple the support of enemy front lines with minimum effort?
A
Interdiction
8
Q
- What year did the Chief of Naval Operations order the development of a weapons system capable of launching a missile from a submerged submarine?
A
1955
9
Q
- What was the United States first fleet ballistic missile (FBM) submarine launched in June of 1959?
A
George Washington (SSBN-598)
10
Q
- What type of warfare integrates nearly all types of ships, aircraft, weapons, and landing forces in a concerted military effort against a hostile shore?
A
Amphibious
11
Q
- What type of warfare is a conflict in which at least one of the opponents is operating from the sea with surface ships, submarines, or sea-based aircraft?
A
Naval
12
Q
- What are the three major areas involved in Naval warfare?
A
Surface, Subsurface, and Air
13
Q
- What is the destruction of enemy aircraft and airborne weapons, whether launched from air, surface, subsurface, or land?
A
AAW
14
Q
- What is the destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines?
A
ASW
15
Q
- What is the destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships?
A
ASUW
16
Q
- What type of warfare uses conventional or nuclear weapons in the destruction or neutralization of the enemy targets ashore? (
A
Strike
17
Q
- What type of naval operations are generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature and, in many cases, conducted with secrecy?
A
Special warfare
18
Q
- What is the assessment and management of information obtained via surveillance, reconnaissance, and other means called?
A
Intelligence
19
Q
- What provides the means to exercise the authority and direction of naval forces in the accomplishment of their mission?
A
NCCS
20
Q
- What ensures the effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum by friendly forces while determining, reducing, or preventing its use by an enemy?
A
Electronic warfare
21
Q
- What is defined as resupplying combat consumables to combatant forces during operations?
A
Logistics
22
Q
- AEGIS can perform search, track, and missile-guidance functions simultaneously with a track capacity of over how many targets?
A
100
23
Q
- What is the Navy’s first all-weather, automatic-controlled gun system designed to provide defense against close-in, sea-skimming cruise missiles that penetrate outer defense systems?
A
Phalanx
24
Q
- What year was the Phoenix air-to-air missile introduced into the fleet with the F-14 aircraft?
A
1974
25
Q
- What is an all-weather submarine-launched or surface combatant-launched antiship or land-attack cruise missile?
A
Tomahawk
26
Q
- What is defined as the ability of a force, a unit, a weapons system, or an equipment to deliver the output for which it was designed?
A
Readiness
27
Q
- What is designed to turn a materially ready and manned ship into a ship that is fully capable of performing its assigned mission?
A
Refresher training
28
Q
- Which instruction outlines the basic bills that all ships base drills on?
A
OPNAVINST 3120.32B
29
Q
- What is the most important type of drill held aboard ships?
A
General Quarters
30
Q
- What type of inspection tests the ability of the crew and ship to operate in battle under wartime conditions?
A
ORI
31
Q
- What type of inspection determines the adequacy of the administrative and operating procedures directly related to the propulsion plant and the capability of assigned personnel to maintain equipment and systems?
A
PEB
32
Q
- Naval ships should be examined by INSURV at least once every how many years if practical?
A
3
33
Q
- Division personnel and material readiness should be assessed daily at a minimum and in more detail at least how often?
A
Weekly
34
Q
- Work habits, knowledge, along with what else will be the three areas looked at while assessing worker performance?
A
Attitude
35
Q
- What does each division or department use to make formal supply inventories?
A
OPTAR Log
36
Q
- Which log describes deficiencies and missing equipment in each space?
A
Equipment Deficiency Log (EDL)
37
Q
- What is the computer printout of the number of personnel in each rate aboard the command
A
EDVR
38
Q
- What lists the planned operations, assist visits, inspections, and ports of call for the fiscal year?
A
Annual Employment Schedule
39
Q
- What is the most effective way to inform subordinates of their standing in the division?
A
Counseling
40
Q
- What are used to note discrepancies, recommend solutions to problems, and provide a follow-up date for reevaluation?
A
Counseling sheet
41
Q
- What identifies a number of discrepancies individually and gives recommended solutions in addition to dates for reevaluation?
A
Letter of Instruction
42
Q
- What is the administrative remarks page of the enlisted service record used to provide a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries not provided on other pages of the record?
A
Page 13
43
Q
- What should be used to prepare written input from yourself to the responsible party in your chain of command via your division officer and department head?
A
Memorandum
44
Q
- How many types of recognition can subordinates be recommended for?
A
Five
45
Q
- What format should subordinates’ accomplishments be in to make them stronger?
A
Bullet
46
Q
- What are the two categories of authority?
A
General and Organizational
47
Q
- What should be used when the CO delegates signature authority in writing?
A
Titles
48
Q
- How do subordinates usually sign documents under delegated authority?
A
By direction
49
Q
- What instruction gives specific guidance on signature authority?
A
SECNAVINST 5216.5C
50
Q
- How many different types of naval communications are senior petty officers required to compose?
A
Two
51
Q
- What is used for urgent communication where speed is of primary importance
A
Naval message
52
Q
- What type of message is sent to one addressee only and may be either for action or information?
A
Single-address
53
Q
- Which type of message is sent to two or more addressees, each of whom is aware of the other addressee(s)?
A
Multiple-address
54
Q
- What type of message is sent to two or more addressees and is of such a nature that no addressee needs to know who the others are?
A
Book
55
Q
- What type of message has a wide standard distribution to all commands in an area under one command or to types of commands and activities?
A
General
56
Q
- What is the authority (command or activity) in whose name messages are sent?
A
Originator
57
Q
- Who is responsible for validating message content, affirming message compliance with message-drafting instructions, and for determining whether the draft of the message should be released as a message or as a NAVGRAM?
A
Releaser
58
Q
- What is the title of the message composer?
A
Drafter
59
Q
- How many common precedence categories are messages divided into?
A
Four
60
Q
- Which publication contains message precedence information?
A
NTP-3
61
Q
- Which message precedence is assigned to all types of traffic that justify electrical transmission but are not of sufficient urgency to require a higher precedence?
A
Routine
62
Q
- Which message precedence is reserved for messages that furnish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress?
A
Priority
63
Q
- What is the highest message precedence normally authorized for administrative messages?
A
Priority
64
Q
- Which message precedence is reserved for messages relating to situations that gravely affect the national forces or populace and require immediate delivery to addressees?
A
Immediate
65
Q
- What prosign identifies Immediate message precedence
A
O
66
Q
- Which message precedence is reserved for initial enemy contact reports or operational combat messages of extreme urgency?
A
Flash
67
Q
- Which prosign identifies messages with Flash precedence?
A
Z
68
Q
- How many digits followed by a time-zone suffix does a DTG consist of?
A
Six
69
Q
- What phrase is used to denote the format and ordinary language spelling of command short titles and geographical locations used in message addresses?
A
Plain Language Address
70
Q
- What are single-address, alphabetically sorted, common-interest groups called?
A
Collective Address Designators
71
Q
- What are used to represent predetermined lists of specific and frequently recurring combinations of action and information addressees or both?
A
Address Indicating Groups
72
Q
- What are used as alternatives to the repeating of lengthy references within the text of the message?
A
Reference lines
73
Q
- What process is used to transmit a message to an activity that was not an addressee of the message as it was originally drafted?
A
Message readdressal
74
Q
- How many days following the release date, except under certain circumstances, are all message directives automatically canceled?
A
90
75
Q
- What condition imposed by proper authority is used to reduce and control electrical message and telephone traffic?
A
Minimize
76
Q
- Which instruction contains regulations and guidance for classifying and safeguarding classified information?
A
OPNAVINST 5510.1H
77
Q
- What is a brief form of a naval letter on which an official recommends action or makes comments, forwards a letter, redirects a misaddressed letter, or endorses a letter back to the originator for further information?
A
Endorsement
78
Q
- What are used for urgent communications between department of defense (DOD) addressees?
A
NAVGRAMs
79
Q
- What provide a standard system of numbers used throughout the Navy to categorize, subject classify, and identify directives, letters, messages, forms, and reports?
A
Standard Subject Identification Codes (SSICs)
80
Q
- How many major subject groups does the SSIC system consist of?
A
14
81
Q
- What means that when you use a coordinating conjunction (and, but, nor, yet), nouns, adjectives, dependent clauses, and so on, should match in each part of the sentence?
A
Parallelism
82
Q
- Generally, sentences should be restricted to how many words or less?
A
20
83
Q
- “It is” along with what other phrase hurt naval writing more than anything else?
A
“There are”
84
Q
- What program ensures that commands do not wait for discriminatory incidents to occur before taking corrective action?
A
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)
85
Q
- From what two perspectives can equal opportunity be observed?
A
Personnel and Administration
86
Q
- What team evaluates command members knowledge about equal opportunity?
A
Command Assessment Team (CAT)
87
Q
- What team assesses command compliance with the Navy’s equal opportunity objectives as a whole?
A
Command Training Team (CTT)
88
Q
- What means are used for determining what people actually do or how they behave and interact?
A
Observations
89
Q
- How many methods can be used by commands to enforce equal opportunity?
A
Three
90
Q
- Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) grants Commanding Officers the power to award punishment for minor offenses without the intervention of a court-martial?
A
Article 15
91
Q
- What publication contains details concerning required premast advice to an accused?
A
Judge Advocate General (JAG) Manual
92
Q
- Who is responsible for collecting all available facts concerning the offense itself and the background of the accused?
A
PIO
93
Q
- How many types of punishment under article 15 of the UCMJ, under appropriate circumstances, can be imposed by Commanding Officers?
A
Nine
94
Q
- What is the least severe form of liberty denial
A
Restriction
95
Q
- What is the physical restraint of persons during duty or nonduty hours, or both called?
A
Correctional custody
96
Q
- How many days is the maximum duration that confinement sentences on bread and water may be imposed on nonrated personnel attached or embarked on vessels?
A
3
97
Q
- What is considered to be the most severe form of NJP?
A
Reduction in grade
98
Q
- What is the maximum number of hours per day that extra duty can be assigned?
A
2
99
Q
- Detention of pay may not exceed how many years and may not extend beyond the expiration of the member’s current enlistment?
A
1 year
100
Q
- Up to how many days may Commanders defer confinement on bread and water or correctional custody if the needs of the naval service dictate such deferment?
A
15
101
Q
- How many days do members have to appeal NJP punishment to a higher authority?
A
5
102
Q
- What has become the most valuable drug detection and deterrence tool used by the Navy?
A
Urinalysis
103
Q
- Natural and synthetic morphine-like drugs that are derived from what source are the most effective pain relievers known?
A
Opiates
104
Q
- What is a white or brown powder known to the addict as H, horse, caballo, white stuff, white lade, Harry, joy powder, doojee, sugar, stag, or smack?
A
Heroin
105
Q
- How many times more potent than morphine is heroin?
A
10
106
Q
- What year was Methadone invented by German chemists?
A
1941
107
Q
- What type of substances produce excitation, increased activity, and an ability to go without sleep for extended periods?
A
Stimulants
108
Q
- Which drug induces euphoria, excitation, anxiety, a sense of increased muscular strength, and talkativeness?
A
Cocaine
109
Q
- What is street cocaine that is mixed with baking soda and water to remove impurities called?
A
Crack
110
Q
- What type of substance distorts the user’s perception of objective reality?
A
Hallucinogens
111
Q
- What is the number one drug problem in the United States today?
A
Alcohol
112
Q
- Which instruction provides the Navy’s policy on drug and alcohol abuse?
A
OPNAVINST 5350.4B
113
Q
- The first consistent changes in mood and behavior appear at blood-alcohol levels of approximately what percent?
A
0.05
114
Q
- Voluntary motor actions-hand and arm movements, walking, and sometimes speech-become clumsy at what blood-alcohol level?
A
0.10%
115
Q
- A blood-alcohol level of what percent measurably impairs the controls of the entire motor area of the brain as well as that part of the brain that guides emotional behavior?
A
0.20
116
Q
- Drinking large amounts of alcohol for an extended length of time reduces the brain’s sensitivity to the alcohol. Therefore, a person must drink greater amounts of alcohol to feel its effects. What is this change in the sensitivity of the brain called?
A
Tolerance
117
Q
- What process do our bodies use to transform drugs into other substances and eventually eliminate them through normal bodily functions?
A
Metabolic
118
Q
- How many times more often among alcoholics as among nonalcoholics does Cirrhosis of the liver occur?
A
Eight
119
Q
- People with blood-alcohol levels of what percent have a reduced white blood cell mobilization as great as that in people suffering from severe shock?
A
0.15 to 0.25
120
Q
- How many different levels does the Navy provide alcohol abuse prevention and rehabilitation programs on?
A
Three
121
Q
- What is the maximum time allotted for members to a Level II alcohol abuse counseling program
A
4 weeks
122
Q
- Residential rehabilitation for alcohol abuse involves a multidisciplinary therapeutic approach that normally lasts how many weeks?
A
6
123
Q
- How many days do persons remain in an “aftercare” status following a successful completion of a Level II or III alcohol abuse program before they return to their command?
A
180
124
Q
- Who is the command representative responsible to the commanding officer for carrying out the NADAP?
A
DAPA
125
Q
- What is a nonresidential facility providing counseling services, clinical screening/referral, and local outreach programs for commands in the immediate geographic area?
A
CAAC
126
Q
- What are the two distinct types of authority?
A
General and Organizational
127
Q
- Which Standard Organization and Regulations of the United States Navy article contains the general responsibilities and duties of all officers and petty officers in the Navy?
A
141.4
128
Q
- What type of authority held by all officers and petty officers is derived from each person’s assigned billet within a particular command?
A
Organizational
129
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article grants petty officers at each level the necessary authority for the performance of their duties?
A
Article 1037
130
Q
- What grants the right to require actions of others?
A
Authority
131
Q
- Withholding of privileges along with what else are two of the most common measures used to correct military duty deficiencies?
A
Extra Military Instruction (EMI)
132
Q
- EMI will not normally be assigned for more than how many hours per day
A
2
133
Q
- The authority to assign EMI is normally not delegated below what level?
A
CPO
134
Q
- What is a benefit provided for the convenience or enjoyment of an individual?
A
Privilege
135
Q
- Depriving an individual of liberty or privileges as a punishment for any offense or substandard performance of duty is illegal, except as specifically authorized under the what?
A
UCMJ
136
Q
- What is defined as something that a person is expected or required to do by moral or legal obligation—an action or task required by one’s position?
A
Duty
137
Q
- What is the commanding officer’s summary of personnel duty assignments and stations called
A
Watch, Quarter, and Station (WQS) bill
138
Q
- Who is responsible for maintaining the ships master WQS bill?
A
Executive Officer
139
Q
- What is used for transferring information from the battle bill and ship’s bills to the WQS bill?
A
Division notebook
140
Q
- What is probably the most important of all the shipboard bills
A
Emergency bills
141
Q
- Which bill organizes the crew to handle the effects of a major emergency or disaster aboard ship?
A
General emergency bill
142
Q
- Which PQS section covers the basic knowledge needed to understand the specific equipment or duties and provides an analysis of those fundamentals that broadly apply?
A
Fundamentals (100 series)
143
Q
- Which PQS section breaks down the subject equipment or duties into smaller, more easily understood sections called systems?
A
Systems (200 Series)
144
Q
- Which PQS section tests the trainee’s readiness to perform a designated task?
A
Watch Station/Maintenance Action (300 Series)
145
Q
- PQS oral examination boards could have as few as two or as many as how many members
A
Eight
146
Q
- What is normally the minimum paygrade required to be a PQS qualifier
A
E-5
147
Q
- Who introduces trainee’s to the PQS program and recommends and monitors the goals for each individual?
A
Work Center Supervisor
148
Q
- Who qualifies personnel for watch stations and equipment/systems operations?
A
Department head
149
Q
- Which side of the service record folder is the actual service record on?
A
Right
150
Q
- What are used to verify a members ability to perform tasks required by occupational standards (OCCSTDs)?
A
PARs
151
Q
- What are the primary enlisted-to-officer programs sponsored by the Navy that do not require a college education?
A
Limited Duty Officer and Chief Warrant Officer
152
Q
- CWO candidates must have completed at least 12 years, but not more than how many years, of active service on 16 January of the year in which application is made?
A
24
153
Q
- LDO candidates must have completed at least 8 years but not more than how many years of active naval service on 16 January of the year in which application is made?
A
16
154
Q
- CPOs and SCPOs with at least how many years, but not more than 16 years, of naval service may apply for LDO and CWO in the same application year, but only one designator for each program may be requested?
A
12
155
Q
- An active service obligation of how many years will be incurred by ECP selectees?
A
6
156
Q
- To be eligible, ECP applicants must be at least 22 years of age, able to complete degree requirements, and commissioned before reaching what age?
A
33
157
Q
- Which program provides 16 weeks of officer indoctrination training for enlisted personnel who possess a baccalaureate degree or higher?
A
OCS
158
Q
- OCS applicants must be at least 19 years old and not have reached what age by their commissioning date?
A
29
159
Q
- Who ensures that personnel are trained to operate and maintain their equipment and related systems?
A
TPO
160
Q
- Quarters for muster and inspection are held each workday before what time depending upon the type of ship and its operating schedule?
A
0800
161
Q
- Who is the most important person aboard the ship while in port next to the Captain and the Executive Officer?
A
OOD
162
Q
- What publication should be used by all watch standers as a general guide for standards that should be met?
A
SORN
163
Q
- What occurs when watch conditions change within the ship?
A
Setting the watch
164
Q
- Who supervises the quarterdeck watch, anchor watch, fog look-outs, brow and dock sentries
A
POOW
165
Q
- What is the term for taking a person into custody
A
Apprehension
166
Q
- What is the term for the moral or physical restraint of a person’s liberty?
A
Restraint
167
Q
- What is the term for restraining a person by an oral or written order which directs the person to remain within specified limits of an area?
A
Restriction in lieu of arrest
168
Q
- What is the term for restraining a person by an oral or written order that is not imposed as punishment and directs the person to remain within the specified limits of an area?
A
Arrest
169
Q
- What is the term for depriving a person of his or her freedom pending the disposition of offenses by means of physical restraint that is imposed by order of competent authority?
A
Confinement
170
Q
- What is the official daily record of a ship maintained by watches?
A
Deck log
171
Q
- How many months are deck log copies retained onboard prior to being destroyed?
A
12
172
Q
- Who is responsible for examining the ship’s deck log daily to ensure it is properly kept?
A
Navigator
173
Q
- What type of visit refers to visits on board by individuals or specific groups as differentiated from the general public?
A
Casual visiting
174
Q
- What are the normal shipboard general visiting hours?
A
1300-1600
175
Q
- What is the maximum visitor group size that departmental personnel should be responsible for when they are detailed to act as shipboard tour guides?
A
15
176
Q
- How long before the scheduled commencement of general visiting should the chief master-at-arms muster sentries and guides for inspection and instruction?
A
30 minutes
177
Q
- What hours are officers normally permitted to have personal guests come onboard?
A
1600-2200
178
Q
- After what time and until the expiration of visiting hours on Sundays and during general visiting are Chief petty officers permitted to entertain guests in their messroom and lounge?
A
1100
179
Q
- Who is responsible for authorizing classified ship visits
A
CNO
180
Q
- Who is directly responsible to the commanding officer for the posting of all security watches and sentries?
A
OOD
181
Q
- What name is given to the 1600-1800 and the 1800-2000 watches aboard ship?
A
Dog watch
182
Q
- Which instruction encompasses all safety disciplines?
A
OPNAVINST 5100.23
183
Q
- Which instruction provides general shipboard safety precautions?
A
OPNAVINST 5100.19
184
Q
- Which instruction outlines the safety program and the safety organization?
A
OPNAVINST 3120.32
185
Q
- Which instruction provides motor vehicle safety policy and guidance?
A
OPNAVINST 5100.12
186
Q
- How many types of safety observations can be used?
A
Three
187
Q
- Which type of safety observation occurs when safety hazards are noticed without deliberately taking time to look for them?
A
Incidental
188
Q
- Which type of safety observation do observers intentionally pause in whatever they are doing to see if a person does some part of a job safely?
A
Deliberate
189
Q
- Which type of safety observation is deliberately scheduled to watch for safety violations by a person performing a specific job?
A
Planned
190
Q
- What makes command safety program recommendations?
A
Enlisted Safety Committee
191
Q
- What acts as a roving inspector for hazards and risks (unsafe work practices) that could result in injury to personnel or damage to equipment?
A
MAA/Safety Force
192
Q
- Which program specifically addresses the maintenance of safe and healthful conditions in the work place?
A
NAVOSH
193
Q
- Personnel working in hazardous noise areas must be entered in a hearing test program when they are exposed to sound levels greater than 84 dB or peak sound pressure levels exceeding what level?
A
140 dB
194
Q
- What type of strain is placed on the body as it attempts to regulate its temperature as a result of any combination of air temperature, thermal radiation, humidity, air flow, and work load?
A
Heat stress
195
Q
- Heat stress surveys must be conducted in work areas when the watch or work station’s dry-bulb temperature
exceeds what temperature?
A
100°F
196
Q
- Any person found to have vision in one eye of what level or worse to be visually impaired by Naval standards?
A
20/200
197
Q
- How often should tag-out system audits be performed?
A
Every 2 weeks
198
Q
- Navy Regulations along with which Code of Conduct article give the senior person in a survival situation the authority to take charge?
A
Article IV
199
Q
- What permits personnel to see without being seen?
A
Camouflage
200
Q
- How many yards can enemy observers see under favorable conditions in open woods?
A
100
201
Q
- Who made the defiant reply “I have not yet begun to fight”?
A
John Paul Jones
202
Q
- Prevention, minimization, along with what else make up the three basic objectives of shipboard damage control?
A
Restoration
203
Q
- Who is responsible for carrying out command damage control requirements including training?
A
Executive Officer
204
Q
- Who is the senior member of the underway watch team and is the primary assistant to the commanding officer on the bridge?
A
Officer Of the Deck (OOD)
205
Q
- How many months do DCPOs normally serve?
A
6
206
Q
- Who maintains a list of all the personnel assigned to repair parties?
A
DCA
207
Q
- What material condition is used for maximum protection in battle?
A
Zebra
208
Q
- What coordinates setting material condition Zebra for X-ray and Yoke fittings that were previously logged as open in the damage control closure log?
A
DCC
209
Q
- What provides personnel immediately to fight fires during action?
A
Repair parties
210
Q
- How many battle dressing stations at a minimum do most ships have that are equipped for emergency handling of battle casualties?
A
Two
211
Q
- Who takes charge of damage repair at the immediate scene and is directly in charge of the fire-fighting party?
A
On-scene leader
212
Q
- Who is responsible for training and organizing the at-sea fire party?
A
DCA
213
Q
- How many principles of investigation should be considered during damage investigation?
A
Four
214
Q
- What is the nominal distance from the point of impact that damage should spread if the underwater protective system is initially intact?
A
Fifty feet
215
Q
- CO2 flooded compartments should not be opened for at least how many minutes after they have been flooded except in case of emergencies?
A
15
216
Q
- What temperatures cause the decomposition of Halon 1301?
A
900°+F
217
Q
- How many gallons per minute (gpm) of water will a hole in the hull, with an area of only 1 square foot, 15 feet below the surface admit?
A
13,900
218
Q
- What refers to a compartment that is completely filled with water from deck to overhead?
A
Solid flooding
219
Q
- What are the bulkheads and decks called that restrict the partially flooded area from the flooding boundary?
A
Flooding boundaries
220
Q
- What are used as the primary means of communications during battle or while combating damage?
A
Sound-powered telephones
221
Q
- Which circuit is the main damage control circuit that is common to the damage control station and all repair parties?
A
2JZ
222
Q
- Which circuit connects the conn, pilot house, interior communications (IC) room, combat information center (CIC), and damage control central (DCC)?
A
JA (Captain’s battle circuit)
223
Q
- Which circuit connects the pilot house, bridge wings, main engine control, forecastle, fantail, steering gear room, IC room, and DCC?
A
JV (Maneuvering circuit)
224
Q
- Which circuit connects all the machinery spaces, engineer log room, IC room, emergency diesel generator space, main distribution switchboards, smoke watch, fueling station, and DCC?
A
2JV (Engineer’s circuit)
225
Q
- Which circuit provides a means of rigging communication lines between vital stations during an emergency condition?
A
X-40J (Casualty communication circuit)
226
Q
- What is the damage control intercom system circuit
A
4MC
227
Q
- What is emergency treatment of the sick or injured before regular medical or surgical attention can be obtained called?
A
First aid
228
Q
- Up to how many miles from the burst can an air blast from a nuclear detonation can general damage?
A
10
229
Q
- What name is given to the pressure pulse created in water as a result of an explosion on or below the water surface?
A
Underwater shock
230
Q
- Over how many feet in height can waves from a surface or underwater burst be?
A
100
231
Q
- Up to how many minutes can flash blindness from a nuclear attack last?
A
30
232
Q
- Over what distance is the casualty range of from the initial radiation of a normal kiloton burst?
A
1 mile
233
Q
- Alpha, Beta, along with what else are the three types of ionizing nuclear radiation that can be emitted from radioactive contamination?
A
Gamma
234
Q
- What type of radiation has a range in the air of only a few feet and has limited penetrating power?
A
Beta
235
Q
- Which type of radiation has an effective range in the air of many hundreds of feet and is highly penetrating?
A
Gamma
236
Q
- Which type of warfare intentionally uses living infectious microorganisms (germs) to reduce or destroy the military effectiveness of personnel?
A
Biological
237
Q
- Up to how many hours can it take for results to show from BW agents
A
72
238
Q
- Which agents are intended for use in military operations to kill, injure seriously, or incapacitate people through physiological effects?
A
Chemical warfare (CW)
239
Q
- Which type of agents produce temporary physiological or mental effects that render individuals incapable of performing their assigned duties?
A
Incapacitating
240
Q
- Which type of agents produce temporary irritating or incapacitating effects when contact is made with the eyes or when inhaled?
A
Riot control
241
Q
- Which type of agents are considered to be the most dangerous because of their ability, even in small amounts, to cause casualties?
A
Nerve
242
Q
- Unless under the direct supervision of medical personnel, what is the maximum number of 2-PAM chloride injections that can be given?
A
Three
243
Q
- Which type of agents smell of garlic, fish, or geraniums and may appear as colorless to dark brown oily liquid or droplets?
A
Blister
244
Q
- How many minutes after exposure to blister agents do personnel have to perform effective treatment?
A
2
245
Q
- Which type of agents smell like freshly mown hay or grass?
A
Choking
246
Q
- Which type of agents are colorless but may have a slight odor of bitter almonds?
A
Blood
247
Q
- What is a flexible system of protection against chemical agents that is used in chemical warfare defense
A
MOPP
248
Q
- How many phases are disaster relief operations normally conducted in?
A
Five
249
Q
- Which type of plan contains general goals and broad guidelines?
A
Policy
250
Q
- What is a plan or system under which action may be taken towards a goal?
A
Program
251
Q
- What is the altering of the natural environment in an adverse way called?
A
Environmental pollution
252
Q
- Which type of pollutants include insecticides, herbicides, pesticides, natural and chemical fertilizers, drainage from animal feedlots, salts from field irrigation, and silts from uncontrolled soil erosion?
A
Agricultural
253
Q
- Which type of pollutants include acids from mines and factories, thermal discharges from power plants, and radioactive wastes from mining and processing certain ores?
A
Industrial
254
Q
- Which type of pollutants include refuse, storm-water overflows, and salts used on streets in wintertime?
A
Municipal
255
Q
- Which type of pollutants include emissions from aircraft, trains, waterborne vessels, and cars and trucks?
A
Transportation
256
Q
- How many fathoms under the sea must submarines be before compacted trash can be discharged?
A
1,000
257
Q
- How many nautical miles away from any foreign coastline must vessels be before discharging any trash?
A
25
258
Q
- Which program directs federal facilities, including naval shore stations, to comply with all substantive or procedural requirements applying to environmental noise reduction?
A
Noise Prevention
259
Q
- What type of fuel do most of the Navy’s ships and all of its aircraft use?
A
Petroleum
260
Q
- Who set up the Navy Sponsor Program to ease the relocation of naval personnel and their families when transferred on permanent change of station (PCS) orders?
A
CNO
261
Q
- Which form can personnel use to request a sponsor?
A
NAVPERS 1330/2
262
Q
- What program provides information and support to help personnel who are guests in foreign lands?
A
Overseas Duty Support Program (ODSP)
263
Q
- What gives up-to-date information of the country personnel will be visiting?
A
SITES
264
Q
- Which program was designed to find new ideas to effectively increase performance within the Department of the Navy?
A
Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP)
265
Q
- What is the maximum MILCAP award
A
$25,000
266
Q
- Servicewoman may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas after the beginning of what week of pregnancy?
A
28th
267
Q
- How many months after the expected delivery date may pregnant servicewomen be transferred to a deploying unit?
A
4
268
Q
- Pregnant servicewomen must be able to be medically evacuated to a treatment facility within how many hours if they are to remain aboard the ship?
A
6
269
Q
- Pregnant servicewomen must be able to be medically evacuated to a treatment facility within how many hours if they are to remain aboard the ship?
A
6
270
Q
- How many days of convalescent leave do Commanding Officers normally grant after the servicewoman has delivered the baby?
A
42
271
Q
- Service members in a single or dual military status with children or dependents under what age are required to have a formalized family care plan?
A
19
272
Q
- Which program carries out the Department of the Navy’s policy to detect, deter, and eliminate fraud, waste, abuse, and mismanagement?
A
Integrity and Efficiency (I & E)
273
Q
- What is intentional misleading or deceitful conduct called that deprives the government of its resources or rights?
A
Fraud
274
Q
- What is extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources defined as?
A
Waste
275
Q
- What is the intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources referred to as?
A
Abuse
276
Q
- What naval office inquires into and reports on any matter that affects the discipline or military efficiency of the DoN?
A
Inspector General (IG)
277
Q
- What protects the rights of personal privacy of people about whom records are maintained by agencies of the federal government?
A
Privacy Act
278
Q
- What program allows Commanding Officers (COs) to create and maintain a positive Equal Opportunity (EO) environment?
A
CMEO
279
Q
- What is behavior called that is prejudicial to another person because of that person’s race, religion, creed, color, sex, or national origin?
A
Insensitive practice
280
Q
- What provides information about government housing and the type, cost, and availability of private housing?
A
HRO
281
Q
- Which Amendment of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and assembly?
A
First Amendment
282
Q
- What is defined as any conduct whereby a military member or members, regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military member or members, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or harmful?
A
Hazing
283
Q
- What is unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature called?
A
Sexual harassment
284
Q
- Sexual in nature, occurs in or impacts the work environment, along with what else are the three criterias for a person’s behavior to be considered sexual harassment?
A
Unwelcome
285
Q
- Which type of sexual harassment are personnel being subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior?
A
Quid pro quo
286
Q
- Which type of behaviors are always considered to be sexual harassment?
A
Red zone
287
Q
- What type of behaviors would many people find unacceptable that could be considered to be sexual harassment?
A
Yellow zone
288
Q
- Which U.S. Navy Regulations Article states “No person in the Navy is to enter a personal relationship that is unduly familiar, does not respect differences in rank, and is prejudicial to good order and discipline.”?
A
Article 1165
289
Q
- What volunteer liaises between command and families?
A
Command ombudsman
290
Q
- Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are recommended for preferred reenlistment?
A
RE-R1
291
Q
- Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for reenlistment?
A
RE-1
292
Q
- Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for probationary reenlistment?
A
RE-R3
293
Q
- Which reenlistment code means that personnel are not eligible for reenlistment?
A
RE-4
294
Q
- Who directs and supervises the Navy’s voting program?
A
Chief of Naval Personnel
295
Q
- In what year did President Dwight D. Eisenhower prescribe a Code of Conduct for members of the armed forces?
A
1955
296
Q
- How many articles does the Code of Conduct contain?
A
Six
297
Q
- Which Code of Conduct article states that “When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give my Name, rank, service number and date of birth”?
A
V
298
Q
- What are Naval personnel called when they are assigned military police duties?
A
Shore Patrol (SP)
299
Q
- Who is in charge of the master-at-arms force headed by the CMAA?
A
Executive Officer
300
Q
- What type of training is designed to develop self-control, character, and efficiency?
A
Discipline
301
Q
- Which punishment theory teaches the wrongdoer and others that offenses must not be repeated?
A
Deterrent
302
Q
- The UCMJ, Navy Regulations, along with what else are the three official sources that set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the Navy?
A
SORN
303
Q
- What describes Navy members rights and responsibilities
A
U.S. Navy Regulations
304
Q
- Who ensures U.S. Navy Regulations conform to the current needs of the Department of the Navy
A
Chief of Naval Operations
305
Q
- Who issues U.S. Navy Regulation changes after they are approved by the President
A
Secretary of the Navy
306
Q
- Which UCMJ article subjects offenders to charges for failing to obey Navy regulations?
A
Article 92
307
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article discusses officer precedence?
A
Article 1002
308
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article describes the proper manner of addressing officers orally and in writing?
A
Article 1010
309
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article gives officers the authority necessary to perform their duties?
A
Article 1021
310
Q
- Tyrannical/Capricious conduct along with what other method are persons in authority forbidden from using to injure their subordinates?
A
Abusive language
311
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article provides the senior line officer eligible for command at sea the authority over all persons embarked in a boat?
A
Article 1033
312
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article grants sentry authority?
A
Article 1038
313
Q
- Personnel may not be ordered to active service without permission of whom?
A
Chief of Naval Personnel
314
Q
- What is the minimum interval that personnel in confinement have to be visited to have their condition checked on and needs cared for?
A
4
315
Q
- What is the maximum interest rate that naval personnel can impose on loans to other armed service members?
A
18
316
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article governs duty exchanges?
A
Article 1134
317
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article governs Leave and Liberty?
A
Article 1157
318
Q
- Which instruction provides regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all Navy members?
A
OPNAVINST 3120.32
319
Q
- Until what year did the various branches of the armed forces operate under different military codes
A
1951
320
Q
- What year did the UCMJ become effective?
A
1951
321
Q
- Which UCMJ article states that certain UCMJ articles must be carefully explained at certain intervals to every enlisted person?
A
Article 137
322
Q
- What is the restraint of a person by an order not imposed as a punishment for an offense which directs them to remain within certain specified limits?
A
Arrest
323
Q
- What is the physical restraint of a person called?
A
Confinement
324
Q
- Which UCMJ Article explains commanding officers’ non-judicial punishment?
A
Article 15
325
Q
- In a special court-martial, the accused must be afforded the opportunity to be represented by counsel qualified under what article of the UCMJ unless such counsel cannot be obtained because of the geographical location or pressing military requirements?
A
Article 27
326
Q
- Which UCMJ Article explains servicemembers rights to not provide evidence against themselves (self- incrimination)?
A
Article 31
327
Q
- Which UCMJ Article was designed to ensure that every court, its members, and its officers are completely free to fulfill their functions without fear of reprisal?
A
Article 37
328
Q
- Which UCMJ Article prohibits any cruel or unusual punishment?
A
Article 55
329
Q
- What are the UCMJ punitive articles?
A
77-134
330
Q
- What is defined as an agreement between two or more persons to commit a crime?
A
Conspiracy
331
Q
- What are members of the armed forces who, without permission, leave their place of duty or organization with the intent to remain away permanently guilty of?
A
Desertion
332
Q
- How many days of absence, or sooner if the intent to desert is apparent, does the status of an absentee change to that of a deserter?
A
30
333
Q
- Which UCMJ article covers missing ships movement?
A
Article 87
334
Q
- What word designated by the principal headquarters of a command aids guards and sentinels in their scrutiny of persons who apply to pass the lines?
A
Countersign
335
Q
- What word is used as a countersign check which is imparted only to those who are entitled to inspect guards and to commanders of guards?
A
Parole
336
Q
- What is a detachment, guard, or detail posted by a commander which protects persons, places, or property of the enemy or of a neutral affected by the relationship of the opposing forces in their prosecution of war or during a state of conflict?
A
Safeguard
337
Q
- What term means inattention to duty or failure to take action that, under the circumstances, should have been taken to prevent the loss, destruction, or damage of any military property?
A
Neglect
338
Q
- Which UCMJ article covers personnel drunk on duty?
A
Article 112
339
Q
- What is the maximum punishment that may be imposed on a sentinel on post who is found asleep or drunk in time of war?
A
Death
340
Q
- What type of offense is defined as any act to avoid duty by feigning (pretending) to be ill or physically/mentally disabled?
A
Malingering
341
Q
- How many or more persons must be engaged against anyone who may oppose them to be classified as a riot?
A
Three
342
Q
- What is the unlawful killing of another called?
A
Manslaughter
343
Q
- What is the unlawful killing of another committed without intent to kill or inflict great bodily harm
A
Involuntary manslaughter
344
Q
- Which UCMJ article allows for punishable acts or omissions not specifically mentioned in other articles?
A
Article 134
345
Q
- What is Commanding officer’s NJP often referred to as?
A
Captain’s mast
346
Q
- What requires personnel to remain within certain specified limits (ship, station, etc.)?
A
Restriction
347
Q
- What is the physical restraint (confinement) of a person during duty or nonduty hours, or both called?
A
Correctional custody
348
Q
- Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations may be imposed only on enlisted persons in what pay- grade and below aboard ship?
A
E-3
349
Q
- What is the maximum amount of time per day that extra duty can be assigned?
A
2 hours
350
Q
- How many days do personnel who consider their article 15 punishment to be unjust or disproportionate to the offense have to appeal the decision to the next superior in the chain of command?
A
5
351
Q
- Which UCMJ article prohibits compulsory self-incrimination?
A
Article 31
352
Q
- Which Navy Regulations article grants the right for any person to communicate with the commanding officer?
A
Article 1107
353
Q
- Summary, Special, along with what else are court martial types based on article 16 of the UCMJ
A
General
354
Q
- What is the minimum amount of members that special court-martials can be made up of?
A
Three
355
Q
- A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how many members?
A
Five
356
Q
- A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how many members?
A
Five
357
Q
- What is probably the most important log that personnel maintain onboard ships
A
Deck log
358
Q
- Who keeps the ship’s deck log while at sea?
A
Quartermaster Of the Watch (QOOW)
359
Q
- Which bill contains lists of stations that must be manned during battle and at other specified times?
A
Battle
360
Q
- Which bill displays in one place personnel duties for each emergency and watch condition?
A
WQS
361
Q
- Which condition sets general quarters?
A
Condition I
362
Q
What special watch is used by gunfire support ships for situations such as extended periods of shore bombardment?
A
Condition II
363
Q
- What is the normal wartime cruising watch?
A
Condition III
364
Q
- What provides the capability for reacting to emergency security situations aboard ship and at pierside to protect the ship, its sensitive equipment, and its personnel?
A
Self-defense force
365
Q
- How many hours in duration are most Navy watches?
A
4
366
Q
- How many minutes prior to the start of watches should personnel arrive on station to receive any pertinent information from the person you are relieving?
A
15
367
Q
- What is the 0000 to 0400 watch named?
A
Midwatch
368
Q
- What is the 0400 to 0800 watch named?
A
Morning watch
369
Q
- What is the 0800 to 1200 watch named?
A
Forenoon watch
370
Q
- What is the 1200 to 1600 watch named?
A
Afternoon watch
371
Q
- What is the 1600 to 1800 watch named?
A
First dog watch
372
Q
- What is the 1800 to 2000 watch named?
A
Second dog watch
373
Q
- What is the 2000 to 2400 watch named?
A
Evening watch
374
Q
- How long past reveille are late sleepers normally permitted to sleep?
A
1 hour
375
Q
- Which type of watches are stood to prevent sabotage, protect property from damage or theft, prevent access to restricted areas by unauthorized persons, or protect personnel?
A
Security
376
Q
- Who is eligible for command at sea and is designated and empowered by the captain to advise, supervise, and direct the officer of the deck (OOD) in matters concerning the general operation and safety of the ship or station?
A
CDO
377
Q
- Who is responsible to the commanding officer (CO) for the safe and proper operation of the ship or station?
A
Officer Of the Deck (OOD)
378
Q
- Who maintains the ship’s deck log and assists the OOD in navigational matters while underway?
A
QMOW
379
Q
- Who ensures all deck watch stations are manned with qualified personnel and all watch standers in previous watch sections are relieved?
A
BMOW
380
Q
- At least how often should lookouts be rotated?
A
Hourly
381
Q
- Who steers the courses prescribed by the conning officer?
A
Helmsman
382
Q
- Who stands watch at the engine order telegraph on the bridge ringing up the conning officer’s orders to the engine room ensuring all bells are correctly answered?
A
Lee helmsman
383
Q
- What are the two types of orders that govern sentries?
A
General and special
384
Q
- How many general orders are there that sentries must follow?
A
11
385
Q
- How many methods are used for relieving armed sentries?
A
Two
386
Q
- Deadly force may only be authorized by whom?
A
CO
387
Q
- How many degrees above the horizon is monitored by low sky lookouts?
A
5
388
Q
- What is the direction of an object relative to the ship referred to as?
A
Bearing
389
Q
- How many types of bearings are there?
A
Three
390
Q
- Which bearing type uses the ship’s bow as a reference point?
A
Relative
391
Q
- What is the relative bearing of your ship from another ship referred to as?
A
Target angle
392
Q
- What metric are ranges always reported in?
A
Yards
393
Q
- How many minutes does it take personnel to reach their best night vision called dark adaptation?
A
30
394
Q
- How many miles away in good weather can lookouts easily spot planes with the naked eye?
A
15
395
Q
- What step-by-step eye search technique do lookouts use?
A
Scanning
396
Q
- What are the two basic categories of communications
A
Interior and exterior
397
Q
- What was adopted by NATO nations armed forces to overcome language barriers?
A
Phonetic alphabet
398
Q
- Which type of phones require no batteries or external electrical power source as they operate on the power of your voice?
A
Sound powered
399
Q
- How far should the sound-powered phone transmitter be held from the mouth when speaking into it?
A
.5” to 1”
400
Q
- Primary, Auxiliary, along with what else are the three sound powered telephone circuit categories aboard ships?
A
Supplementary
401
Q
- What word is used to identify your station and acknowledge messages?
A
Aye
402
Q
- How are sound-powered phone system communications phrased?
A
Declarative (statement)
403
Q
- What combines into one system the features of sound-powered telephones, dial telephones, and intercommunications units?
A
IVCS
404
Q
- What are the two types of terminal devices used with the IVCS?
A
Network and dial
405
Q
- What is the heart of the IVCS?
A
ICSC
406
Q
- What is defined as the protective measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from telecommunications of the United States government that are related to national security and to ensure the authenticity of each telecommunication?
A
Communications security
407
Q
- What general announcing system can pass word to every space on the ship?
A
1MC
408
Q
- Who is in charge of the 1MC?
A
OOD
409
Q
- What is the primary means of DCC within the repair locker area?
A
DC WIFCOM
410
Q
- Which international flag means “I have a diver(s) down; keep well clear at slow speed
A
ALFA
411
Q
- Which international flag means “I am taking in, discharging, or carrying dangerous materials.”?
A
BRAVO
412
Q
- Which international flag means “Personnel working aloft.”?
A
KILO
413
Q
- Which international flag means “Man Overboard.”?
A
OSCAR
414
Q
- Which international flag means “Preparing to come alongside in-port or at anchor.”?
A
INDIA
415
Q
- Which international flag means “I have a semaphore message to transmit
A
JULIETT
416
Q
- Which international flag means “General recall; all personnel return to the ship.”?
A
PAPA
417
Q
- Which international flag means “Boat recall; all boats return to the ship
A
QUEBEC
418
Q
- What time is colors held in the morning while not underway?
A
0800
419
Q
- What is the Ensign normally flown from while underway?
A
Gaff
420
Q
- What is the national ensign along with the union jack referred to as?
A
Colors
421
Q
- How is the ensign flown for the internationally recognized symbol of mourning?
A
Half mast
422
Q
- What is the rectangular blue part of the United States flag containing the stars called?
A
Union jack
423
Q
- What year did the President, on the recommendation of the Secretary of the Navy, establish an official flag for the United States Navy?
A
1959
424
Q
- Which flag is regarded as an international guarantee of amnesty from attack?
A
Red Cross
425
Q
- Substitute pennants are flown when certain officers are absent while in port for a period of up to how many hours?
A
72
426
Q
- Which flag is hoisted whenever the ship is taking aboard, transferring, or handling dangerous commodities, such as ammunition and fuel?
A
Bravo
427
Q
- What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for any civilian official or flag officer whose official salute is 19 or more guns?
A
Spread eagle
428
Q
- What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for a flag or general officer whose official salute is less than 19 guns or for a civil official whose salute is 11 or more guns but less than 19?
A
Halbert
429
Q
- What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for an officer of the grade, or relative grade, of Captain in the Navy, or for certain diplomatic officials?
A
Ball
430
Q
- What special device will boat flagstaff be marked with for an officer of the grade, or relative grade, of Commander?
A
Star
431
Q
- What are informal courtesy visits that require no special ceremonies known as?
A
Call
432
Q
- What date did the Second Continental Congress create the United States Navy by authorizing the purchase of two vessels?
A
October 13, 1775
433
Q
- Which ships were the largest of all the sailing warships carrying 64 to over 100 guns of various sizes during the revolutionary war and into the 19th century?
A
Ships-of-the-line
434
Q
- How many guns were generally carried by Frigates during the revolutionary war and into the 19th century?
A
28 to 44
435
Q
- Which type of vessel was characterized as a small, fast, flexible, flush-deck ship that carried smooth-bore cannons?
A
Schooner
436
Q
- What was the name of the first warfare submarine?
A
Turtle
437
Q
- What was the first U.S. Navy flagship that is said to be the first U.S. naval vessel where the “Flag of Freedom” was hoisted by John Paul Jones?
A
USS Alfred
438
Q
- What was the first U.S. Navy flagship that is said to be the first U.S. naval vessel where the “Flag of Freedom” was hoisted by John Paul Jones?
A
USS Alfred
439
Q
- What year was the first Continental Navy squadron put to sea by Esek Hopkins?
A
1776
440
Q
- Who is the father of our highest naval traditions?
A
John Paul Jones
441
Q
- What became one of the first foreign powers to recognize the struggling government of the American Colonies?
A
France
442
Q
- At the end of the Revolutionary War, a new federal government was established. In 1783, the Navy was down to five ships. The Navy was disbanded, and the last frigate, the USS Alliance, was sold in what year
A
1785
443
Q
- What year was the Department of the Navy established by John Adams?
A
1798
444
Q
- What war was the origin of the famous expression “Millions for defense, but not one cent for tribute”?
A
Quasi War
445
Q
- What nickname was earned by the USS Constitution when Captain Isaac Hull defeated the British frigate Guerriere with it on August 19, 1812?
A
Old Ironsides
446
Q
- Who defeated a British squadron on Lake Erie on September 10, 1813, and wrote his dispatch “We have met the enemy and they are ours.”?
A
Captain Oliver Hazard Perry
447
Q
- Who was the first to successfully power a commercial steamboat with steam?
A
Robert Fulton
448
Q
- What was the first Navy warship to use steam?
A
USS Demologos
449
Q
- What year did the Navy launch the USS Pennsylvania which was the largest of ship-of-the-line vessel?
A
1837
450
Q
- What year did the Navy launch the USS Missouri and the USS Mississippi which were our first ocean-going, steam-driven capital ships?
A
1841
451
Q
- What year did the Navy launch the USS Michigan which was the first iron-hulled warship
A
1843
452
Q
- Who is referred to as the “Father of the Steam Navy”?
A
Commander Matthew Calbraith Perry
453
Q
- What year was the USS Princeton which was the Navy’s first successful steamship launched?
A
1843
454
Q
- What year was USS New Ironsides, that had armor allowing it to survive 50 hits in one battle, launched by the Union?
A
1862
455
Q
- Which war saw the most changes and advances made in ship design than during any period since the Navy originated in 1775?
A
Civil War
456
Q
- Which submarine was a jinx to the Confederate Navy?
A
CSS Hunley
457
Q
- What gave the famous order “Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead!” on August 5th, 1864?
A
David Farragut
458
Q
- Who defined sea power, showed the importance of understanding naval needs, and advocated a large, powerful Navy capable of assembling an overwhelming force to defeat the enemy’s Navy?
A
Alfred T. Mahan
459
Q
- How many Navy ships were in active service a year and a half after the Civil War?
A
56
460
Q
- Which vessel has been labeled as the first modern cruiser in the U.S. Fleet?
A
USS Newark
461
Q
- What year did the USS Cushing which was one of the Navy’s first torpedo boats join the fleet?
A
1890
462
Q
- What year did the periscope start being replaced as the submarine’s basic visual aid?
A
1958
463
Q
- What was the name of the first operational submarine in the Navy?
A
USS Holland
464
Q
- The USS Skipjack (SS 24) along with what else were the first vessels to have diesel engines installed?
A
USS Sturgeon (SS 25)
465
Q
- What year did construction begin on the first United States Navy Destroyer?
A
1899
466
Q
- How many destroyers were ordered during World War I?
A
273
467
Q
- The USS Texas along with which other vessel were the first two commissioned battleships?
A
USS Maine
468
Q
- Who was the U.S. Navy’s first officer in charge of aviation?
A
Captain Washington Irving Chambers
469
Q
- Who successfully took off from and landed a biplane on a platform rigged aboard USS Pennsylvania (ACR
4) demonstrating the practical use of naval aircraft?
A
Eugene Ely
470
Q
- Who was the first Naval Aviator?
A
Lieutenant T. G. Ellyson
471
Q
- What was the first battleship to use oil?
A
USS Nevada (BB 36)
472
Q
- What year did the Great White Fleet depart Hampton Roads, Virginia for a round-the-world cruise to display the flag?
A
1907
473
Q
- What was the main German U-boats defense?
A
Destroyers
474
Q
- The USS Nicholson along with what other destroyer were the first U.S. ships to sink an enemy submarine on November 17, 1917?
A
USS Fanning
475
Q
- What year was the recommendation given by a Navy surgeon to employ women in hospitals in order to care for the Navy’s sick and wounded?
A
1811
476
Q
- What year were the Nurse Corps officially established?
A
1908
477
Q
- Who piloted the NC-4 which became the first airplane to fly across the Atlantic?
A
LCDR Albert C. Read
478
Q
- What year did the USS Ranger join the fleet?
A
1934
479
Q
- What year did the Japanese attack Pearl Harbor?
A
1941
480
Q
- Which battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers?
A
Coral Sea
481
Q
- Which battle was the turning point of the war in the Pacific?
A
Midway
482
Q
- What year was the invasion of Normandy?
A
1944
483
Q
- Which war did radar and sonar came into full use
A
World War II
484
Q
- What year did Congress authorize the Women’s Reserve establishment with an estimated goal of 10,000 enlisted women and 1,000 officers?
A
1942
485
Q
- What was the first Reserve classification for female officers?
A
W-V(S)
486
Q
- What year did a squadron of FH-1 Phantoms qualify for carrier operations aboard the USS Saipan (CVL-48)?
A
1948
487
Q
- What year did the Korean Conflict end?
A
1953
488
Q
- What was the first nuclear submarine put to sea on January 17, 1955
A
USS Nautilus
489
Q
- Who made America’s first suborbital flight on May 5, 1961
A
Commander Alan B. Shepard, Jr.
490
Q
- What year did America enter the Vietnam conflict?
A
1965
491
Q
- What was the first nuclear-powered carrier in the world?
A
USS Enterprise (CVN 65)
492
Q
- Former Navy pilot Neil Armstrong became the first man to set foot on the moon on what date?
A
July 20, 1969
493
Q
- What was the Navy’s first deep diving vehicle?
A
USS Alvin
494
Q
- What was the first Trident submarine which was a nuclear powered fleet ballistic missile submarine
A
USS Ohio (SSBN-726)
495
Q
- What year was the Department of Defense (DoD) created by the United States?
A
1947
496
Q
- Who heads the DoD?
A
Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)
497
Q
- What year was the Department of the Navy established?
A
1798
498
Q
- Which series is used for guiding unit organization?
A
OPNAVINST 3120.32
499
Q
- Battle along with what other organization comprise the two ship organization elements
A
Administrative
500
Q
- Which department collects and evaluates combat and operational information as well as conducts electronic warfare?
A
Operations
501
Q
- Which department operates, cares for, and maintains all propulsion and auxiliary machinery?
A
Engineering
502
Q
- Who directly represents the Commanding Officer in maintaining shipboard general efficiency
A
XO
503
Q
- Who is the voice of all enlisted personnel having direct access to the Commanding Officer
A
CMC
504
Q
- What is the basic unit of shipboard organization?
A
Division
505
Q
- Which department is responsible for official correspondence, personnel records, and directives?
A
Administrative
506
Q
- What is the relationship of juniors and seniors within an organization called?
A
Chain of Command
507
Q
- What requires individuals to be accountable for the performance of their assigned tasks within an organization?
A
Responsibility
508
Q
- What is the ability of personnel to report, explain, or justify every action taken?
A
Accountability
509
Q
- The chain of command extends from nonrated personnel all the way to whom?
A
President of the United States
510
Q
- What is the general work that goes on about the ship’s deck and the equipment used called?
A
Deck seamanship
511
Q
- What concerns the use and care of line consisting of forming knots, making splices, and fashioning useful and decorative articles from small stuff and twine?
A
Marlinespike seamanship
512
Q
- Which equipment is used for anchoring and mooring with anchors?
A
Ground tackle
513
Q
- How many feet make up a standard shot of anchor chain?
A
90
514
Q
- What is the opening in a bulwark or life rail that gives access to a brow or an accommodation ladder?
A
Gangway
515
Q
- What types of ramps are used between ships or between the ship and a pier?
A
Brows
516
Q
- What are often placed between the pier and the ship to provide protection to the side of the ship while it is alongside a pier?
A
Camels
517
Q
- What are swung over the side of the ship to give bumper support against damage whenever a ship lies alongside another ship or a pier?
A
Fenders
518
Q
- What are the main thing used aboard ships and boats to secure mooring lines
A
Deck fittings
519
Q
- Which method of securing boats are used by ships that are at anchor or moored to a buoy to rig out their boat booms for the purpose of mooring their boats well clear of the side?
A
Hauling out to the boom
520
Q
- What is a noncommissioned waterborne vessel that is not designated as a service craft called?
A
Boat
521
Q
- What are boats carried aboard ship that can be hoisted from and lowered into the water known as?
A
Ship’s boats
522
Q
- What are waterborne craft designed for special use called?
A
Service craft
523
Q
- What is the halfway point between the bow and stern and the sides of the boat called?
A
Amidships
524
Q
- What is usually used to describe the area inside the boat or an object nearer the centerline of the boat?
A
Inboard
525
Q
- What describes the furthermost area from the boat’s centerline or beyond the side of a boat?
A
Outboard
526
Q
- What is the art of handling and working all kinds of fiber and wire rope?
A
Marlinespike seamanship
527
Q
- What is fiber rope in the Navy generally referred to as?
A
Line
528
Q
- How many times stronger is nylon compared to manila?
A
2.5
529
Q
- What is used for mooring lines, particularly at the bow and stern?
A
Spring lay
530
Q
- How many strands make up most of the line used in the Navy?
A
Three
531
Q
- Line up to what circumference size is referred to as small stuff?
A
1 3/4 inches
532
Q
- Line from 1 3/4 inches to about 4 inches is manufactured in what size graduations?
A
1/4-inch
533
Q
- Up to what percent can nylon be stretched before it breaks?
A
50
534
Q
- What are the bindings on the ends of rope that keep the rope from unlaying called
A
Whippings
535
Q
- What form eyes, secure cords, or lines around objects?
A
Knots
536
Q
- What bend lines to or around objects?
A
Hitches
537
Q
- What are used to secure two lines together?
A
Bends
538
Q
- What permanently join two lines or form eyes or loops in the end of a line?
A
Splices
539
Q
- What can be used to permanently join two lines as long as a slight enlargement of the diameter is not important?
A
Short splice
540
Q
- What is the crosswise direction of a ship called?
A
Athwartship
541
Q
- What is the supporting body of a ship called?
A
Hull
542
Q
- What is the backbone of the ship referred to as?
A
Keel
543
Q
- What are frames running parallel with the keel called?
A
Longitudinals
544
Q
- What are the vertical walls called that divide the ship interior into compartments?
A
Bulkheads
545
Q
- What are the plates that form the ship’s hull called?
A
Strakes
546
Q
- What is the vertical distance from the bottom of the keel to the waterline known as?
A
Ship’s draft
547
Q
- What is the distance from the waterline to the main deck referred to as?
A
Freeboard
548
Q
- What are ship floors referred to as?
A
Decks
549
Q
- What are rooms on ships called?
A
Compartments
550
Q
- What are installed to provide working or walking surfaces above bilges
A
Flats
551
Q
- What are ships called that don’t have raised forecastles?
A
Flush-deckers
552
Q
- What is the first half deck or partial deck below the flight deck called?
A
Gallery deck
553
Q
- What are partial decks between complete decks called?
A
Half deck
554
Q
- What general term designates deck heights above the main deck?
A
Level
555
Q
- What are partial decks below the lowest complete deck called?
A
Platforms
556
Q
- What is a partial deck above the main deck located all the way aft?
A
Poop deck
557
Q
- What is an area designated by the Commanding Officer to conduct official functions?
A
Quarterdeck
558
Q
- What are horizontal openings for access through decks called?
A
Hatches
559
Q
- What is the solid part of a ship above the main deck called
A
Superstructure
560
Q
- Pole, tripod, along with what else are the three general mast designs
A
Cage
561
Q
- What are the large pipes that carry off smoke and gases from the boilers called?
A
Stacks
562
Q
- What is a light spar suspended at an angle abaft the upper part of the mainmast called?
A
Gaff
563
Q
- Which station controls the engineering functions of a ship?
A
Main control
564
Q
- What term describes the offensive weapons a ship carries?
A
Armament
565
Q
- How many statute miles per hour is one knot equal to?
A
1 1/8
566
Q
- How many feet are there in one nautical mile?
A
6,080
567
Q
- How many categories are U.S. Navy ships divided into?
A
Four
568
Q
- What speeds are cruisers capable of in knots?
A
30+
569
Q
- What type of ships are fast and have a variety of armaments but have little to no armor?
A
Destroyers
570
Q
- How many tons of water are displaced by Spruance class destroyers when fully loaded?
A
7,800
571
Q
- What class of DDG’s are the most powerful and survivable class ever put to sea?
A
Arleigh Burke
572
Q
- What resemble destroyers in appearance, but are slower, have only a single screw, and carry less armament?
A
Frigates
573
Q
- What are used to locate and destroy enemy ships and submarines?
A
SSNs
574
Q
- What is the largest undersea craft developed by the Navy
A
Ohio class
575
Q
- Which class of submarine possesses stealth characteristics that make it the world’s quietest submarine?
A
Seawolf’s
576
Q
- What were early submarines named after?
A
Marine life
577
Q
- What is the fastest means of landing large numbers of personnel, equipment, and supplies on enemy-held territory?
A
Amphibious assault
578
Q
- What class of ships are the largest amphibious ships in the world?
A
Wasp-class
579
Q
- What ships provide amphibious command and control for major amphibious operations?
A
LCCs
580
Q
- What ships were designed to clear mines from vital waterways?
A
MCM’s
581
Q
- What ships are capable of supplying fuel, ammunition, dry stores and refrigerated stores?
A
AOE
582
Q
- What term is applied to the transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and personnel from one vessel to another while ships are under way?
A
Replenishment at sea
583
Q
- What type of ships operate with replenishment groups to deliver ammunition and missiles to the fleet at sea?
A
AE’s
584
Q
- What is the largest and most powerful auxiliary ship in the Navy?
A
AOE
585
Q
- How many feet of separation are AOE fuel hoses designed to permit on average?
A
200
586
Q
- Which letter, with a few exceptions, is used to designate support crafts?
A
Y
587
Q
- What year does naval aviation history go back to when the Navy acquired its first aircraft which was a pusher-type biplane with no cockpit?
A
1911
588
Q
- Fuselage, wings, along with what else are the three basic parts that fixed-wing aircrafts can be divided into
A
Empennage
589
Q
- What is the main body of the aircraft that contains the cockpit and, if there is one, the cabin?
A
Fuselage
590
Q
- What type of aircraft is an all-weather tactical electronic warfare aircraft that was based on the A-6 airframe?
A
Prowler
591
Q
- What is the western world’s only operational fixed-wing vertical short takeoff or landing (V/STOL) strike aircraft?
A
Harrier
592
Q
- Which type of aircraft are land-based, long-range, multiengine that are used primarily for antisubmarine warfare (ASW) patrol?
A
Patrol craft
593
Q
- What is the Navy’s primary ASW patrol aircraft?
A
P-3 Orion
594
Q
- How many personnel make up the Hawkeye crew?
A
Five
595
Q
- Which aircraft provides logistical support to aircraft carriers?
A
C-2A Greyhound
596
Q
- Which aircraft has twin-engines that carries passengers and cargo between military installations?
A
C-12 Huron
597
Q
- Which aircraft is used for intermediate and advanced portions of the Navy/Marine Corps pilot training program for jet carrier aviation and tactical strike missions?
A
T-45A Goshawk
598
Q
- Which aircraft is used to provide primary flight training for student pilots attached to the Chief of Naval Air Training?
A
T-34C
599
Q
- How many pounds of cargo is the CH-46 Sea Knight capable of carrying?
A
4,000
600
Q
- Which aircraft tows and operates various mine countermeasure devices that are designed to detect and neutralize submerged naval mines?
A
Sea Stallion
601
Q
- Which type of aircraft is a joint-service, multimission aircraft that has vertical take-off and landing (VTOL) capabilities?
A
V-22 Osprey
602
Q
- What are practices called that have been established for so long that they now have the force of law?
A
Customs
603
Q
- What are acts or verbal expressions of consideration or respect for others referred to as?
A
Courtesies
604
Q
- What are the salutes that are rendered to individuals of merit called?
A
Honors
605
Q
- Within how many yards from the ship must boats pass to be considered “close aboard”?
A
400
606
Q
- Which day of the week are Side boys not paraded
A
Sunday
607
Q
- How many gun salutes are warranted for the President of the United States?
A
21
608
Q
- Military officers below what rank are not entitled to gun salutes?
A
Commodore
609
Q
- What are the formal acts that are performed on public occasions called?
A
Ceremonies
610
Q
- What is the largest national ensign in the ship or station’s allowance referred to as that is flown on Sundays, authorized holidays, or other days the President proclaims?
A
Holiday colors
611
Q
- Which part of the ship contains officers staterooms and wardrooms?
A
Officers’ country
612
Q
- Which publication provides basic Naval uniform policy?
A
NAVPERS 15665
613
Q
- What is the size of the neckerchief square?
A
36”
614
Q
- What are the fields of work or occupations called in the enlisted branch of the Navy?
A
Rating
615
Q
- What are the various levels within ratings called?
A
Rates
616
Q
- What are rating specialty marks worn by E-1, E-2, or E-3 personnel who have qualified to wear them called?
A
Striker mark
617
Q
- How many years of service are indicated by one service stripe?
A
4
618
Q
- How many years of good conduct are required for personnel to wear gold rating badges and service stripes?
A
12
619
Q
- Who is the most senior enlisted person in the U.S. Navy?
A
MCPON
620
Q
- Which type of officers are specifically designated for engineering, communications, naval intelligence, photography, or other types of technical fields?
A
Restricted line
621
Q
- What type of officers are specialists in certain areas such as supply or medicine?
A
Staff corps
622
Q
- What type of officers fill the gaps between enlisted and commissioned personnel?
A
Chief warrant
623
Q
- What paygrade are all warrant officers commissioned as?
A
W-2
624
Q
- What is given to individuals for specific personal acts of gallantry or meritorious service?
A
Military decoration
625
Q
- What year was the Purple Heart founded by George Washington?
A
1782
626
Q
- How many people were awarded the original Purple Heart
A
Three
627
Q
- Up to how many medals can be worn side by side?
A
Three
628
Q
- What is the maximum length permitted for mens hair?
A
4”
629
Q
- What is the approximate diameter size that braids should be when females have hairstyles consisting of multiple braids?
A
0.25”
630
Q
- How many inches below the top of the white jumper uniform collar may females hair extend
A
1.5”
631
Q
- No more than how many inches should be exceeded by any portion of the bulk of the hair on females as measured from the scalp?
A
2
632
Q
- What length measured from the tip of the finger must fingernails not exceed?
A
1/4 inch
633
Q
- What color earrings must E-6 and below wear
A
Silver
634
Q
- What is the basic military position?
A
Attention
635
Q
- What is any .60-caliber, 15-mm, or smaller bore firearm referred to as?
A
Small arm
636
Q
- What is the M-14’s maximum range?
A
4,075 yards
637
Q
- What is the maximum effective range of the M-16A1/A2?
A
460 meters
638
Q
- What is the maximum effective range of the .45-caliber service pistol?
A
50 yards
639
Q
- What is the magazine capacity of the 9mm pistol?
A
15
640
Q
- What are the weapons of choice for short-range work?
A
Shotguns
641
Q
- What makes the opening (peep) of the rear sight appear larger or smaller, depending on the firing position?
A
Eye relief
642
Q
- What is the point on the target where weapon sights are brought to bear?
A
Aiming point
643
Q
- What is the single most important factor in marksmanship?
A
Trigger control
644
Q
- Who does the Administrative organization need help from in order to establish and maintain material readiness conditions?
A
All hands
645
Q
- Who is responsible for maintaining compartment checkoff lists?
A
DCPO
646
Q
- Who is responsible for maintaining properly trained DCPOs, repair parties, and repair locker personnel?
A
Engineer officer
647
Q
- Who is responsible for keeping the command informed on the ship’s survivability readiness?
A
Executive Officer (XO)
648
Q
- Which team is responsible for conducting all shipboard drills and exercises in the area of damage control?
A
DCTT
649
Q
- Who is designated as the ship’s damage control officer?
A
Engineer officer
650
Q
- Who is responsible for the overall administration and training of the ship’s DC organization
A
DCA
651
Q
- How many months do DCPOs normally serve for?
A
6
652
Q
- What, generally, is the minimum paygrade that Gas Free Engineers will hold?
A
E-7
653
Q
- What is the DCA’s battle station?
A
DCC
654
Q
- What is the nerve center and directing force of the entire damage control organization?
A
DCC
655
Q
- What is the ships highest state of readiness?
A
General Quarters
656
Q
- What is the emergency damage control communication system employed in the event of primary, auxiliary, and supplementary communications circuit failure?
A
X40J
657
Q
- Which signal is sounded by the OOD to notify the crew of a battle condition (GQ)?
A
General alarm
658
Q
- If all methods of communications have failed, what are used to relay orders and information
A
Messengers
659
Q
- XRAY, YOKE, along with what else are the three material conditions of readiness?
A
ZEBRA
660
Q
- Which material condition is set during working hours when the ship is in port, when there is no danger of attack, and when there is no threat from bad weather?
A
XRAY
661
Q
- What are used by repair party personnel to find damage control fittings and closures in each compartment?
A
CCOLs
662
Q
- Which fittings are vital sea suctions, ventilation fittings valves serving vital equipment, and valves that must be open to maintain mobility and fire protection?
A
WILLIAM
663
Q
- How many minutes of breathable air does the EEBD provide the wearer with?
A
15
664
Q
- Approximately how many minutes will the SCBA last after it is activated?
A
30
665
Q
- Fuel, Heat, along with what else comprise the fire triangle?
A
Oxygen
666
Q
- What is the lowest temperature called that flammable materials give off vapors that will burn when a flame or spark is applied?
A
Flash point
667
Q
- What is the temperature called that fuel will continue to burn after it has been ignited?
A
Fire point
668
Q
- What is the lowest temperature called that material must be heated to give off vapors that will burn without the aid of a spark or flame?
A
Self-ignition point
669
Q
- Conduction, Convection, or what other method can transfer heat from fires?
A
Radiation
670
Q
- Which heat transfer method transfers heat through a body or from one body to another by direct physical contact?
A
Conduction
671
Q
- Which heat transfer method transfers heat through the motion of circulating gases or liquids?
A
Convection
672
Q
- Which heat transfer method transfers heat from a source across an intervening space?
A
Radiation
673
Q
- How many classifications are fires divided into?
A
Four
674
Q
- What protect firefighters from short duration flame (flash) exposure, heat, and falling debris?
A
Firefighter’s ensemble
675
Q
- What protect personnel from high temperatures resulting from the use of explosive weapons and from burns caused by fire?
A
Anti-flash clothing
676
Q
- What size are the fireplugs in fire hose stations aboard ships larger than frigates?
A
2 1/2-inch
677
Q
- Which type of agents cause death, injury, temporary incapacitation, or irritation effects?
A
CW
678
Q
- What are the two broad types of antipersonnel agents?
A
Casualty and Incapacitating
679
Q
- Which type of antidote must be immediately administered to counteract the rapid action of nerve agents?
A
2-PAM C1
680
Q
- Which type of agents effect the eyes, mucous membranes, lungs, and skin?
A
Blister
681
Q
- Which type of agents inhibit enzyme actions responsible for transferring oxygen from the blood to the cells of the body?
A
Blood
682
Q
- Which type of warfare uses living organisms, toxins, and microtoxins to disable or to destroy people and domestic animals, damage crops, or deteriorate supplies?
A
Biological warfare (BW)
683
Q
- What is the casualty rate of pulmonary anthrax
A
90%
684
Q
- What can the mortality rate be reduced to if plague pneumonia victims are treated early?
A
5%
685
Q
- What is a feeling of bodily discomfort and weakness?
A
Malaise
686
Q
- What is caused by the reaction of body tissues combating and sealing off an infection?
A
Inflammation
687
Q
- How many feet above the surface does a nuclear blast have to detonate to be considered a high altitude blast?
A
100,000
688
Q
- What is an intense electrical surge that affects electronic or electrical equipment in a burnout that’s equivalent (equal) to that caused by a lightning strike?
A
EMP
689
Q
- What are the two types of nuclear radiation?
A
Initial and residual
690
Q
- How many categories are Nuclear weapons effects divided into?
A
3
691
Q
- Second-degree burns may be received at over what distance from nuclear weapons?
A
25
692
Q
- How many minutes can it take to recover from flash blindness at night?
A
45
693
Q
- Alpha and beta particles, gamma rays, along with what else are the different types of nuclear radiation hazards?
A
Neutrons
694
Q
- What has the greatest penetrating power of all the nuclear radiation hazards?
A
Neutrons
695
Q
- What has the greatest penetrating power of all the nuclear radiation hazards?
A
Neutrons
696
Q
- What has the greatest penetrating power of all the nuclear radiation hazards?
A
Neutrons
697
Q
- What is the pressure pulse created in water by an explosion on or below the surface called?
A
Underwater shock
698
Q
- What occurs in electronics systems as a result of exposure to gamma or neutron radiation?
A
TREE
699
Q
- What is the prolonged disturbance of an underwater nuclear detonation caused by ocean basin shock reverberations that interfere with passive sonar systems?
A
Blueout
700
Q
- What is the interference of radio transmissions through ion fields formed in a detonation caused by an atmospheric nuclear explosion?
A
Blackout
701
Q
- What determines the effectiveness of decontamination measures?
A
Detailed survey
702
Q
- What are dose rates expressed in?
A
Roentgens
703
Q
- Which protective mask was designed to provide full protection against tactical concentrations of chemical and biological agents, toxins, and radiological fallout particles?
A
MCU-2/P
704
Q
- What is the shelf life of the unopened chemical-protective overgarment?
A
5 years
705
Q
- What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment in nonchemical environments once it is removed from its protective envelope?
A
14
706
Q
- How many hours of continuous protection do chemical-protective overgarments provide after exposure to chemical contamination?
A
6
707
Q
- What flexible system protects against chemical agents that is used in CW defense to help accomplish the mission?
A
MOPP
708
Q
- How many MOPP levels are there?
A
Four
709
Q
- Which MOPP level offers the most protection?
A
Four
710
Q
- How many people do decontamination teams usually consist of?
A
Six
711
Q
- What protects specific areas of the ship from the effects of CBR contamination by filtering the air supply and maintaining an overpressure to prevent the penetration of contaminants?
A
Collective Protection System (CPS)
712
Q
- What is the emergency care given to sick or injured persons until medical care is available?
A
First aid
713
Q
- Saving lives, preventing further injury, along with what else are the main first aid objectives?
A
Limiting infection
714
Q
- What state is a person in who’s stopped breathing but is still alive?
A
Respiratory failure
715
Q
- What condition occurs when air enters the stomach instead of the lungs during artificial ventilation
A
Gastric distention
716
Q
- What is the complete stoppage of heart function referred to as?
A
Cardiac arrest
717
Q
- How many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest must CPR be started within to be effective?
A
4
718
Q
- Which condition occurs whenever there is a break in the wall of one or more blood vessels?
A
Hemorrhage
719
Q
- How many quarts of blood does the average adult body contain?
A
5
720
Q
- How many pints of blood loss will usually cause shock?
A
2
721
Q
- Arterial blood is usually what color?
A
Bright red
722
Q
- What is a combination compress and bandage that a sterile gauze pad is fastened to a gauze, muslin, or adhesive bandage?
A
Battle dressing
723
Q
- What is a point on the body where an artery can be pressed against a bone to stop bleeding?
A
Pressure point
724
Q
- How many principal points are there on each side of the body where hand or finger pressure can be used to stop hemorrhage?
A
10
725
Q
- What type of band is used to cut off the supply of blood to an injured limb?
A
Constricting
726
Q
- Which condition occurs when blood circulation is seriously disturbed?
A
Shock
727
Q
- Approximately what percent of the Navy’s non-hostile active-duty deaths are caused by suicide?
A
10%
728
Q
- How long does depression typically last?
A
2 weeks
729
Q
- Shock can be expected from burns involving at least what percent of the body?
A
15%
730
Q
- Life is endangered when at least what percent of the body is burned?
A
20%
731
Q
- Burns covering what percent of the body are usually fatal without adequate treatment?
A
30%
732
Q
- What is the most mild type of burn?
A
First-degree
733
Q
- Which type of burn destroys the skin and possibly the tissue and muscle beneath it?
A
Third-degree
734
Q
- What is the most common condition caused by working or exercising in hot spaces?
A
Heat exhaustion
735
Q
- Which type of injuries occur when the ligaments and soft tissues are damaged that support joints?
A
Sprains
736
Q
- What type of injury is caused by the forcible over stretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon?
A
Strain
737
Q
- What is the most commonly used Navy service litter used for transporting sick or injured persons?
A
Stokes stretcher
738
Q
- Which type of stretcher was designed for removing an injured person from engine-room spaces, holds, and other compartments where access hatches are too small to permit the use of regular stretchers?
A
Neil Robertson
739
Q
- What are the two most common sexually transmitted diseases in the United States?
A
Syphilis and gonorrhea
740
Q
- What is the painless sore called that is the first sign of syphilis?
A
Chancre
741
Q
- How many days after sexual contact with an infected partner do signs of gonorrhea in males usually appear?
A
3 to 5
742
Q
- Which increasingly common viral infection produces recurrent, painful genital sores similar to cold sores that occur around the mouth?
A
Genital herpes
743
Q
- What year was Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) first reported in the United States?
A
1981
744
Q
- How many yards should personnel abandoning ship be away from the ship before they rest?
A
150 to 200
745
Q
- How many days on regular rations can the survival kits in large life boats sustain 15 to 20 people?
A
5
746
Q
- How many days can personnel go without water before they die?
A
8 to 12
747
Q
- How many ounces of water per day can personnel survive on in a lifeboat?
A
6
748
Q
- How many weeks, or longer, can a person survive without food as long as they have water?
A
4
749
Q
- What water temperature, or lower, puts personnel at risk for hypothermia?
A
75° F
750
Q
- Which condition is characterized by swelling of the foot accompanied by numbness and pallor (lack of color) or discoloration?
A
Immersion foot
751
Q
- How many basic devices for recovering a person in the water do helicopters use?
A
Three
752
Q
- Which mneumonic device can aid personnel to reduce or even avoid the shock of being isolated behind the enemy lines, in a desolate area, or in enemy hands?
A
SURVIVAL
753
Q
- How many varieties of plants are edible?
A
120,000
754
Q
- How long should scavenger birds be boiled before they are cooked in order to kill any parasites?
A
20 minutes
755
Q
- What is the process of traveling through enemy-held territory without being captured?
A
Evasion
756
Q
- What directs personnel to begin planning their escape the minute they are taken prisoner?
A
Code of Conduct
757
Q
- Which instruction contains Naval advancement system information?
A
BUPERSINST 1430.16
758
Q
- What are the two categories that ratings are divided into?
A
Service and General
759
Q
- What are the military requirements for a paygrade?
A
NAVSTDs
760
Q
- What contains the minimum occupational requirements of a particular rate?
A
OCCSTDs
761
Q
- Which skills and abilities can best be demonstrated (shown) by actual performance?
A
PARS
762
Q
- What are developed by exam writers to help Sailors study for advancement-in-rate examinations?
A
BIB
763
Q
- How many years are performance marks averaged to arrive at the merit rating?
A
3
764
Q
- What is the maximum number of days that members serving on code 1 shore duty are required to be absent from the corporate limits of their duty stations?
A
99
765
Q
- Personnel serving at code 2 sea duty stations can expect to be away from their home port/home base in excess of how many days per year?
A
150
766
Q
- School assignments of less than how many months are classified as code 5 neutral duty?
A
18
767
Q
- Duty performed in commissioned vessels or activities in an active status that operate away from their home port/home base in excess of how many days per year are credited as double sea credited because of the nature of the mission?
A
50
768
Q
- Who is the senior enlisted person who matches personnel within a particular rate or specialty with the available Navy wide billets?
A
Enlisted detailer
769
Q
- How long after being stationed at their first duty station should personnel submit a duty preference form?
A
6 months
770
Q
- What is the most significant personnel management tool in the service record?
A
Evaluation Report and Counseling Record
771
Q
- Which eval trait is not required unless abilities are clearly demonstrated for personnel in paygrades E-1 through E-3?
A
Leadership
772
Q
- How often is the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record for E-3 and below submitted?
A
Biannually
773
Q
- What form is used to document the official history of a person’s Naval career?
A
NAVPERS 1070/600
774
Q
- What form is used to document dependents and emergency data in the service record?
A
NAVPERS 1070/602W
775
Q
- Which service record form documents the Enlisted Qualifications History?
A
NAVPERS 1070/604
776
Q
- What words are used to show that the CO has authorized a person to sign the document?
A
By direction
777
Q
- What systems are used to improve fleet material readiness?
A
3-M
778
Q
- Fundamentals, Systems, along with what else are the three sections that PQS standards are divided into?
A
Watch Stations
779
Q
- Which PQS section deals with the major working parts of the installation, organization, or equipment that the PQS is concerned with?
A
Systems
780
Q
- What is it called when personnel are taught skills that are directed toward specific tasks?
A
Training
781
Q
- What is it called when personnel are taught broad, general, or specific knowledge?
A
Education
782
Q
- Who is the point of contact for all Navy training and education programs?
A
Educational Services Officer (ESO)
783
Q
- What type of training teaches personnel how to perform a duty or task by actually doing it?
A
OJT
784
Q
- What type of non-occupational training are all naval personnel required to take on a periodic basis?
A
General Military Training (GMT)
785
Q
- Which type of schools provide general indoctrination and teach basic military skills and knowledge
A
Class “R”
786
Q
- Which type of schools provide the basic technical knowledge and skills required to prepare personnel for a Navy rating as well as further specialized training?
A
Class “A”
787
Q
- Which type of schools provide team training to officer and enlisted fleet personnel who are normally ship company members?
A
Class “F”
788
Q
- Which type of schools provide training in the skills that lead to the designation of naval aviator or naval flight officer?
A
Class “V”
789
Q
- Which command publishes TRAMANs?
A
NETPDTC
790
Q
- What name is given to the in-service voluntary educational programs and the supporting services provided by the Navy to help you with your education?
A
Navy Campus
791
Q
- Which program provides undergraduate courses from accredited colleges or universities to shipboard personnel?
A
Program for Afloat College Education (PACE)
792
Q
- What provides a wide range of examination and certification programs, operates an independent study support system, and provides other support and developmental activities?
A
DANTES
793
Q
- Up to how many months does the Enlisted Education Advancement Program (EEAP) allow career-motivated individuals to earn an associate of arts/sciences degree?
A
24
794
Q
- How many enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy or Regular Marine Corps may be appointed by the Secretary of the Navy to the Naval Academy at Annapolis, Maryland?
A
85
795
Q
- Which program is intended to help people who have been educationally deprived but have demonstrated they have the basic qualities and desires needed to earn a commission?
A
BOOST
796
Q
- How many years do personnel have to complete a baccalaureate degree when they are enrolled in the ECP?
A
2
797
Q
- How many programs are there for enlisted personnel who possess a baccalaureate degree or higher that lead to U.S. Naval Reserve commissions?
A
Six
798
Q
- Which commissioning program selects senior enlisted personnel to become commissioned officers without requiring a degree?
A
LDOs
799
Q
- Who convenes the Seaman to Admiral board to select eligible applicants
A
Chief of Naval Personnel (CNP)
800
Q
- If personnel separate from the Navy at their EAOS but have not completed at least how many years of service they will not receive a discharge but will be “separated” from active naval service?
A
8
801
Q
- How many types of discharges from Naval Service are there?
A
Five
802
Q
- Which type of discharge indicates satisfactory service by personnel but not to the standards established by the Navy?
A
General
803
Q
- Commanding Officers can recommend personnel for a Navy Good Conduct Medal as a reward for how many years of good conduct?
A
3
804
Q
- What is the money paid to personnel for services they render?
A
Pay
805
Q
- Which type of pay is based upon the members paygrade and length of service?
A
Basic
806
Q
- How many years of service are E-3’s eligible to receive longevity raises?
A
4
807
Q
- What type of money is used to reimburse personnel for expenses necessary to perform their job?
A
Allowance
808
Q
- Which type of allowance is used to help personnel pay for suitable living quarters when government quarters are unavailable or not assigned?
A
BAQ
809
Q
- What is the single allowance called that incorporates both basic allowance for quarters and the variable housing allowance?
A
Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH)
810
Q
- What are designated amounts of money that are to be withheld from pay and paid directly to someone else?
A
Allotments
811
Q
- What is the computerized pay and leave accounting system located at the Defense Finance and Accounting Service, Cleveland, Ohio?
A
JUMPS
812
Q
- How many days of leave can personnel earn in each year of active duty?
A
30
813
Q
- What is an authorized absence from work or duty for a short period called?
A
Liberty
814
Q
- Which type of leave is not charged to your earned, advance, or excess leave account?
A
Convalescent
815
Q
- What booklet is used to record transactions involving checking accounts?
A
Check register
816
Q
- What is a plan to spend money or a plan of money management?
A
Budget
817
Q
- What is the total amount of pay before any deductions are taken out called?
A
Gross income
818
Q
- What is the money paid after all deductions and allotments are paid called?
A
Net income
819
Q
- What is an easy method for estimating the number of years it will take for an investment’s value to double at a specific interest rate or rate of return?
A
Rule of 72
820
Q
- What is the rent paid for using borrowed money or credit known as?
A
Interest
821
Q
- How many days after personnel separate from the Navy does SGLI coverage continue for?
A
120
822
Q
- What is an individual who is abused or whose welfare is harmed or threatened by acts of omission or commission by another individual or individuals known as?
A
Victim
823
Q
- What establishes the education, support, and awareness programs so that families and their command understand the risk factors of child and spouse abuse?
A
FAP
824
Q
- What occurs when there is an imbalance between the demands of our lives and the resources we have to deal with those demands?
A
Stress
825
Q
- What term generally applies to persons who are assigned to clean living or berthing compartments or spaces?
A
Compartment cleaner
826
Q
- Which type of materials have the ability to remove contamination and soil?
A
Detergents
827
Q
- What are held to improve ship appearance and sanitary conditions, aid in ship preservation by extending paint life, and reduce the dirt intake caused by operating equipment?
A
Field days
828
Q
- Which term means to exhaust the areas and provide fresh air in spaces which personnel are working with solvents?
A
Ventilation
829
Q
- When a spill involves more than how many gallons of solvent it must be immediately reported to supervisors, DCC, or the OOD?
A
5
830
Q
- Personnel should inspect the contents of any paint or solvent container that is older than how many years?
A
2
831
Q
- What lists solvent storage requirements?
A
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
832
Q
- How many minutes between air changes are recommended when working with chlorinated cleaning solvents in enclosed spaces?
A
3
833
Q
- Inhaling vapors of how many ppm or greater will cause dizziness or narcosis?
A
4,500
834
Q
- Inhaling vapors of how many ppm or greater will cause dizziness or narcosis?
A
4,500
835
Q
- Inhaling vapors of how many ppm or greater will cause dizziness or narcosis?
A
4,500
836
Q
- How many gallons of paint could be required for one coat on an aircraft carrier?
A
950
837
Q
- What are the grade ranges of sandpaper
A
12-600
838
Q
- How many ways are used by the Navy to apply paint
A
Three
839
Q
- Which technical bulletins contain information about hazardous material?
A
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
840
Q
- What are the safety barriers called that are designed to prevent personnel from falling or being washed over the side?
A
Lifelines
841
Q
- Lifelines and safety belts must be used when working on a boatswain’s chair or on unguarded scaffolds that are over how many feet above the deck?
A
10
842
Q
- Who must permission be obtained from prior to working aloft?
A
OOD
843
Q
- What type of fuel oil was developed by the Navy to reduce sulfur oxide problems on ships?
A
Navy distillate fuel
844
Q
- How often must spaces be recertified by Gas Free Engineers while personnel are working in a space that was previously ventilated for 24 hours and certified safe to work in?
A
Every 8 hours
845
Q
- How many minutes would it take for personnel to lose the ability to walk straight after breathing in air where the petroleum vapors have a concentration of only 0.1 percent by volume?
A
4
846
Q
- Which term identifies any and all forms of fuel or gas lanterns, lighted candles, matches, cigarette lighters, and so on?
A
Open flame
847
Q
- Which term identifies any unprotected electrical lighting device?
A
Naked lights
848
Q
- What are the specially constructed compartments aboard ships called where ammunition is stowed?
A
Magazines
849
Q
- Projectiles greater than or equal to what size in diameter are color-coded to indicate the projectile type and the kind of bursting charge they contain?
A
3-inches
850
Q
- What level of voltage causes the most deaths
A
115-volt
851
Q
- How many minutes before entry must compartments that contain compressed gases be ventilated for if the ventilation has been secured?
A
15
852
Q
- Up to how many years after exposure can it take for asbestos-related disease symptoms to manifest?
A
45
853
Q
- How many minutes after the job is completed must personnel assigned fire watch duties remain at the location to make sure that no fire hazards exist?
A
30
854
Q
- What is the mixture of all liquid domestic wastes, especially human body wastes (fecal matter and urine)?
A
Sewage
855
Q
- At what temperature does LOX boil into a gaseous oxygen that is capable of immediately freezing any object it contacts?
A
-297°F
856
Q
- How much pressure can LOX exert when it expands as a gas and is confined and allowed to warm?
A
12,000 psi
857
Q
- What is the combination of air temperature, thermal radiation, humidity, airflow, and workload called that places stress on the body?
A
Heat stress
858
Q
- Which condition results when body temperature reaches subnormal levels?
A
Hypothermia
859
Q
- Which instruction governs the Navy’s equipment tag-out bill
A
OPNAVINST 3120.32
860
Q
- Who is responsible for knowing the material condition of a department and the state of readiness at all times?
A
DDO
861
Q
- Who monitors engineering plant statuses at all times and how tag-out bills will affect plant readiness?
A
EOOW
862
Q
- What is the process called of checking a tag or label?
A
Second-checking
863
Q
- Which tag color means that a certain DANGER exists if the valve or equipment lineup is changed?
A
Red
864
Q
- What color are CAUTION tags?
A
Yellow
865
Q
- What color are OUT-OF-CALIBRATION labels?
A
Orange
866
Q
- What are used to control the entire tag-out procedure?
A
Tag-out logs
867
Q
- Which instruction contains Navy safety information?
A
OPNAVINST 5100.19
868
Q
- What term describes a nation’s ability to protect its political, economic, and military interests through control of the sea?
A
Sea power
869
Q
- Who was the first person to use the term “sea power”?
A
Captain Alfred Thayer Mahan, USN
870
Q
- Which publication defines Naval strategy?
A
Naval Warfare Publication 3 (NWP-3)
871
Q
- What broad course of action is designed to achieve national objectives in support of national interests?
A
National strategy
872
Q
- What are those conditions that are advantageous for our nation to pursue or protect?
A
National interests
873
Q
- What are the specific goals our nation seeks to advance, support, or protect?
A
National objectives
874
Q
- What is the U.S. Navy’s primary function?
A
Sea control
875
Q
- What is the ability to use sea power throughout the world in the timely and precise manner needed to accomplish a given goal?
A
Power projection
876
Q
- What year did Congress authorize the first six frigates of the Continental Navy?
A
1794
877
Q
- What year was the Coast Guard established as the United States Revenue Marine?
A
1790
878
Q
- What year was the Military Sealift Command (MSC) established?
A
1949
879
Q
- Nearly what percent of all military cargo on privately owned U.S. flagships and other merchant marine vessels are shipped by MSC?
A
25
880
Q
- What does the Navy define as the art of influencing people to progress towards the accomplishment of a specific goal?
A
Leadership
881
Q
- Moral principles, personal example, along with what else are the three elements that make an effective Navy leader?
A
Administrative ability
882
Q
- What is immediate obedience an automatic response to?
A
Command
883
Q
- What is reasoned obedience the proper response to?
A
Order
884
Q
- What is the safeguarding of classified information in the interest of national security referred to as?
A
Security
885
Q
- Top Secret, Secret, along with what else are the only security classification levels?
A
Confidential
886
Q
- Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security?
A
Top Secret
887
Q
- Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the national security?
A
Secret
888
Q
- Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause damage to the national security?
A
Confidential
889
Q
- Who determines personnel security clearance needs?
A
Commanding Officer (CO)
890
Q
- What are security clearances and access to classified information based on?
A
Need to know
891
Q
- What has the SECNAV designated as the single Department of the Navy security clearance granting authority?
A
Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility (DONCAF)
892
Q
- Once issued, a security clearance remains valid provided the Sailor continues compliance with personnel security standards and has no subsequent break in service exceeding how many months?
A
24
893
Q
- Which instruction provides guidance for classified material protection?
A
SECNAVINST 5510.36
894
Q
- Which agency sets and publishes the minimum standards, specifications, and supply schedules for containers, vault doors, modular vaults, alarm systems, and associated security devices suitable for the storage and destruction of classified information?
A
General Service Agency (GSA)
895
Q
- Which instruction contains classified material destruction procedures?
A
SECNAVINST 5510.36
896
Q
- Who is responsible for the physical security of each computer workstation?
A
ADPSO
897
Q
- How many levels of security are there for electronically processed data?
A
Three
898
Q
- Which instruction contains electronic data security procedures?
A
OPNAVINST 5239.1
899
Q
- How many days after creating a working copy should it be retained before destruction?
A
180
900
Q
- Which instruction contains a complete description of ADP security policies and procedures?
A
OPNAVINST 5239.1
901
Q
- What is an unauthorized disclosure of classified information to one or more persons who do not possess a current valid security clearance referred to as?
A
Compromise
902
Q
- What is defined as any failure to comply with the regulations for the protection and security of classified material?
A
Security violation
903
Q
- What is the unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence against individuals or property referred to as?
A
Terrorism
904
Q
- Which type of bomb generates fire-producing heat without substantial explosion when ignited?
A
Incendiary
905
Q
- What is the detonation/ignition of a bomb, discovery of a bomb, or receipt of a bomb threat referred to as?
A
Bomb incident
906
Q
- What is used to clearly define the status of military personnel of one country stationed in the territory of another?
A
SOFA
907
Q
- What year were the Geneva Conventions established?
A
1949
908
Q
- How many hours of extra duty per day is allowed by the Geneva Convention as punishment for escape attempts?
A
2
909
Q
- What term identifies members of the military force and civilian personnel engaged in hostilities?
A
Lawful combatants
