Myelodysplastic syndrome Flashcards

1
Q

essentially a clonal stem cell disorder resulting in (1) resulting in (2)

A
  1. ineffective hematopoiesis, and abnormal maturation of hematopoietic cells within the marrow
  2. peripheral blood cytopenias

refers to Myelodysplastic syndrome

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2
Q

has a high risk of transformation to (1)

A
  1. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML).

refers to Myelodysplastic syndrome

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3
Q

can be secondary to (1)

A
  1. genotoxic drug or radiation therapy

refers to Myelodysplastic syndrome

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4
Q

In most cases the disease is primary but exposure to (1), toxic chemicals (2) chemotherapeutic drugs (3) agents
in particular) shows a strong association with these diseases.

A
  1. ionizing radiation
  2. benzene, permanent hair dyes
  3. alkylating agents and topoisomerase II inhibitors

with development of Myelodysplastic syndrome and Acute myeloid leukemia

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5
Q

The disease is also associated with several rare inherited bone marrow failure syndromes such as (1)

A
  1. Fanconi anemia, Diamond‐Blackfan syndrome, Down Syndrome

refers to Myelodysplastic syndrome

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6
Q

more frequently occurring bone marrow failure syndrome showing a well‐known increased susceptibility to the development of MDS and AML

A

Down syndrome

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7
Q

Epigenetic factors such as (1) with silencing of (2) genes contribute to the pathogenesis along with mutation of transcription factors needed for proper marrow cell maturation.

A
  1. hyper methylation
  2. tumor suppressor

refers to Myelodysplastic syndrome

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8
Q

Approximately 10% of cases will show (1) of function of the (2) gene.

A
  1. loss
  2. TP53 tumor suppressor

refers to Myelodysplastic syndrome

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9
Q

Cytogenetic abnormalities are noted in myelodysplastic syndrome such as?

A

monosomy of chromosome 5 and 7
deletions of 5q, 7q and 20q
trisomy of chromosome 8

refers to Myelodysplastic syndrome

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10
Q

(1) gene is located on chromosome 8 and trisomy 8 is commonly seen in a variety of (2)

A
  1. MYC

2. myeloid malignancies

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11
Q

How do myeloidysplastic syndrome patients present?

A

may present with anemia (weakness, sometimes severe), leukopenia (infections) or thrombocytopenia (bleeding, bruising ecchymosis, epistasis)

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12
Q

Evaluation of the peripheral blood and bone marrow will reveal the abnormal cell morphology and will
evaluate for the presence of (1) cells and thus the risk of (2) can be evaluated

A
  1. blast

2. transformation to AML

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13
Q

Some of the more important morphologic changes seen in the bone marrow of patients with MDS
include?

A

hyper cellular bone marrow with ringed sideroblasts, megaloblastic change (similar to B12 deficiency changes), erythroid cells
with nuclear budding, Pseudo‐Pelger –Huet cells , mononuclear megakaryocytes and varying degrees of
blast cell proliferation (less than 20%)

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14
Q

What is the cutoff for determining MDS which has transformed to AML?

A

Blast cell counts of 20% or greater is the cutoff for defining AML.

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15
Q

Prognosis of MDS

A

Median survival in primary MDS is 9‐30 months and 10‐40% of patients will show worsening cytopenias
and development of AML

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16
Q

Treatment of MDS for younger (50s) vs. older patients

A

Allogenic stem cell transplantation (ASCT) may be offered to younger patients .Older patients are
treated with transfusion support

17
Q

Lenolidimide an immunomodulatory agent is particularly effective in reducing transfusion requirements in the group of patients with (1)

A
  1. 5q deletion
18
Q

RPS14 Ribosomal protein

A

found on 5q - loss promotes dysmaturation of bone marrow

19
Q

Prognostic importance of 5q

A

often good prognosis in older women

20
Q

Prognostic importance of 7q

A

worse prognosis

21
Q

What are the peripheral blood smear findings in MDS?

A
Giant platelets
Pseudo –Pelger –Huet cells
Macrocytosis
Poikilocytosis
Myeloblasts
22
Q

Pathogenesis of MDS: three causes

•1)‐mutations in factors regulating DNA methylation
similar to those in AML
• 2)‐mutations of 3’ end of Rna splicing machinery
• 3)‐mutations in factors required for normal
hematopoiesis

A

1) Epigenetic factors
2) Rna splicing factors
3) Transcription factors

23
Q

Pathogenesis of MDS

mutations of 3’ end of 1)

A

1) Rna splicing machinery

24
Q

what are Pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells;

A

these are neutrophils seen in the bone marrow AND peripheral blood; have dumb-bell shaped appearance with two nuclei;

25
Q

these are neutrophils seen in the bone marrow AND peripheral blood; have dumb-bell shaped appearance with two nuclei;

A

Pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells;

26
Q

how would erythroid dysplasia in BONE MARROW appear on histo?

A

numerous broken fragment of nuclear material in the cytoplasm; may also see Nucleated RBCs

27
Q

Ringed sideroblasts seen in 1)

A

BONE MARROW morphology in MDS

28
Q

Mononuclear megakaryocytes seen in 1)

A

BONE MARROW morphology in MDS

29
Q

macrocytosis seen in 1)

A

PERIPHERAL blood in MDS

30
Q

GIANT platelets seen in 1)

A

Peripheral blood in MDS

31
Q

Myeloblasts in bone marrow vs. peripheral blood in MDS

A

Bone marrow–> myeloblasts inc. but less than 20%

Peripheral blood–> myeloblasts less than 10%

32
Q

Poikilocytosis (variation in size of RBCs) seen in:

A

Peripheral blood in MDS

33
Q

Normal megakaryocytes vs. dysmegakaryocytes

A

Normal–> multilobulated nucleus with platelets in periphery of cytoplasm;
Dysmegakaryopoiesis–> MONOnuclear with NO platelets in periphery

34
Q

how to ID myeloblasts on histo:

A

Auer rods: Rod shaped structures seen in the cytoplasm of myeloblasts;