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xt notes > MXT 2 EXAM 2 > Flashcards

MXT 2 EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

a 24- hour urine specimen may be collected to

A

determine the cause of kidney stone formation

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2
Q

a patient who is fasting( in preparation for a laboratory test) can consume

A

water

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3
Q

a pH reading of 8 means that the urine specimen is

A

alkaline

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4
Q

a small sample taken from the body to represent the nature of the whole is known as a

A

specimen

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5
Q

a urinalysis may be performed for all of the following except to

A

treat a patient’s condition

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6
Q

all of the following are advantages of the laboratory component of EHR program except

A

a type of tests required by the patient can be determined by the program

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7
Q

all of the following are characteristics of a CUA waived tests except

A

they require the use of highly sophisticated automated equipment

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8
Q

all of the following are examples of CLIA- waived test except

A

microscopic analysis of urine sediment

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9
Q

all of the following are found in the laboratory directory except

A

instruction for testing specimens in the POL

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10
Q

all of the following are guidelines for strong specimens and testing components in a labortory refrigerator except

A

check the temperature of the refrigerator once each week

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11
Q

all of the following are guidlines for the collection of a test-catch urine specimen except

A

the patient should cleanse the general are before collection of the specimen

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12
Q

all of the following are included in a lipid profile except

A

glucose

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13
Q

all of the following are included on a laboratory request form except

A

laboratory test results

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14
Q

all of the following are reasons for including the clinical diagnosis on the labortory request form except

A

to inform laboratory personnel of the source of the specimen

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15
Q

all of the following may beed to be flushed out the eye using an emergency eye wash station except

A

eye discharge

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16
Q

antibiotics taken by the patient before the collection of a throat specimen for culture may result in

A

a false negative report

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17
Q

blood may normally be present in the urine because of

A

mensrtuation

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18
Q

how are laboratory reports delivered to the medical office

A

all are correct

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19
Q

how much urine does the normal adult excrete each day?

A

750 to 2000 mL

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20
Q

how should urine reagent strips be stored?

A

all are correct

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21
Q

if a freshly voided specimen is cloudy, it means that

A

a urinary tract infection may be present

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22
Q

if a laboratory report is returned to the medical office marked QNS, it means that

A

an insufficient amount of specimen was submitted

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23
Q

if a POL is performing moderate-complexity test, CLIA requires

A

all are correct

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24
Q

if the internal control of the urine pregnancy test does not perform as expected, the test results are interpreted as

A

invalid

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25
Q

most of the urine is composed of what substance

A

water

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26
Q

polyuria may be caused by

A

all are correct

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27
Q

the pH of most urine specimens is

A

acidic

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28
Q

the presence of bile pigments in a urine specimen causes the specimen to be

A

yellow-brown

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29
Q

the purpose of quality control is to

A

ensure accurate and valid test results

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30
Q

the purpose of the clinical laboratory improvement amendment(CLIA) is to:

A

improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States

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31
Q

what effect does concentrated urine have on red blood cells?

A

it causes them to shrink and become crenated

32
Q

All of the following are characteristics of a CLIA waived test except

A

they require the use of highly sophisticated automated equipment

33
Q

what is a profile

A

a combination of laboratory tests for identifying a disease

34
Q

what is included in a complete urinalysis?

A

all are correct

35
Q

what is the name for a control that is built into the test system?

A

internal control

36
Q

what is the name of the hormone present only in the urine and blood of a pregnant women?

A

human chorionic gonadotropin

37
Q

what is the normal range for a specific gravity of urine?

A

1.003 to 1.030

38
Q

what is the purpose of a laborotory report?

A

to relay the results of laboratory tests to the provider

39
Q

what is the purpose of patient preparation for a laboratory test?

A

to provide a specimen that yields accurate test results

40
Q

what is the purpose of performing a routine test?

A

to assist in the early detection of disease

41
Q

what is the purpose of the patient accession number found on the laboratory report?

A

to provide identification of each specimen in the laboratory

42
Q

what is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test?

A

analyte

43
Q

what is the term for a test result that includes whether a substance is present in the specimen being tested and provides an approximate indication of the amount of the substance present?

A

qualitative test result

44
Q

what is the term for the presence ketone bodies in the urine?

A

ketosis

45
Q

what occurs if a urine specimen is allowed to stand for more than 1 hour at room temperature?

A

it becomes cloudy

46
Q

what should be done if a control does not perform as expected?

A

do not perform patient testing until the problem is resolved

47
Q

what temperature is usually required for storing testing materials and performing laboratory tests?

A

room temp

48
Q

what type of results are produced by a high-level control?

A

results that fall above the reference range for the test

49
Q

what type of specimen should be used to test for the presence of nitrate in the urine?

A

first voided morning specimen

50
Q

when collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, a front-to-back motion is used to cleanse the urinary meatus to

A

avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region into the area being cleansed

51
Q

when collecting a clean-catch midsteam urine specimen, a small amount of urine is voided into the toilet obtaining the specimen to

A

flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra

52
Q

when performing a microscopic examination of urine, the presence of how many white blood cells/HPF is considered normal?

A

0 to 8

53
Q

where are urinary casts formed?

A

in the lumen of the nephron tubules

54
Q

which of the following assists the provider in making a diagnosis?

A

all are correct

55
Q

which of the following doers not result in oliguria?

A

edema

56
Q

which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions?

A

opening the centrifuge before it comes to a complete stop

57
Q

which of the following is an example of a quantitative test result?

A

500mg/dL

58
Q

which of the following is an example of a unique identifier?

A

patients name and date of birth

59
Q

which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test to assist in the differential diagnosis of a patients condition?

A

performing a strep test to determine if a patient has strep throat or pharyngitis

60
Q

which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test to regulate treatment?

A

a diabetic patient tests his or her blood before administering insulin

61
Q

which of the following is included in a product inserting of a testing kit?

A

all are correct

62
Q

which of the following is usually found in the urine sediment of a patient with candidiasis?

A

yeast

63
Q

which of the following laboratory tests requires fasting?

A

all are correct

64
Q

which of the following may cause a control to fail to produce expected results?

A

all are correct

65
Q

which of the following normally contains microorganisms?

A

urinary meatus

66
Q

which of the following occurs when the body is in homeostasis?

A

laboratory tests results fall within the reference range

67
Q

which of the following represents an error in technique when performing a urine pregnancy test?

A

the specific gravity of the soecimen is 1.003

68
Q

which of the following represents an error in technique when testing a urine specimen with a reagent strip?

A

touching the reagent areas with the fingers

69
Q

which of the following substances is normally present in urine?

A

urea

70
Q

which of the following test results indicates a concentrated urine specimen?

A

specific gravity 1.025

71
Q

which of the following tests is performed on a first- catch urine specimen?

A

NAA test for chlamydia and gonorrhea

72
Q

which of the following tests require a clean-catch midstream specimen?

A

urine culture

73
Q

which of the following urine specimens contains the greatest concentration of dissolved substances?

A

first-voided morning specimen

74
Q

which of the following urine test may be positive when a patient has undiagnosed diabetes mellitus

A

glucose

75
Q

which of the following urine tests may be positive when a patient has hepititus

A

bilirubin

xt notes (24 decks)

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