EXAM 3 111 Flashcards

1
Q

Establishing a rapport with a patient contributes greatly to a successful immobilization exercise. To establish patient rapport, the imaging professional should

A

gently tell the patient what you need to accomplish and how you would like to move forward with the examination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Patient immobilization is a critical part of achieving optimum image quality. Even the smallest, undetectable involuntary motion can degrade the final image. Effective methods to reduce the amount of patient motion include

A

a. giving clear, concise instructions to the patient before the exposure.

b. assessing the amount of patient cooperation you can expect and making adjustments in immobilization.

c. explaining how important it is to hold still during the exposure so that a good image can be obtained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The ideal patient immobilization device would be

A

radiolucent, durable, and easy to use for the radiographer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The technique of wrapping an infant patient in a sheet

A

is known as mummification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When obtaining cervical spine images on a patient with a cervical collar, complete

A

the AP and lateral projections with the cervical collar in place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When using a sheet to “mummify” an infant, the sheet should first be formed into a

A

triangle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When using sandbags as an immobilization device,

A

make a note for the radiologist, as the sandbag is radiopaque and may leave an artifact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The term bradypnea is used to describe

A

a decrease in respiratory rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Thoracostomy tubes are used to

A

reestablish negative intrapleural pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When taking a portable chest radiograph on a patient undergoing oxygen therapy,

A

the oxygen should not be removed without the consent of a physician or respiratory care practitioner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

While performing a portable chest radiograph on an uncooperative patient with a CV line inserted, you note that the catheter fixation material has loosened. Your responsibility as a professional radiographer is to

A

inform the patient’s nurse of the catheter issue before taking the radiograph.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All of the following apply to respiratory measurements except

A

the respiratory rate of newborns averages 12 to 20 breaths/min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The ideal location of the endotracheal tube tip is

A

in the trachea 1 to 2 inches above the carina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A cardiac arrhythmia that is life threatening and provides no effective cardiac output is

A

V-fib.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A possible complication of patients with a history of atrial fibrillation is

A

atrial emboli formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A widened QRS complex on an ECG tracing could represent

A

a. ventricular hypertrophy.

b. ventricular-paced rhythm.

c. pacemaker tissue that is below the AV node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An effective method for treating select cardiac arrhythmias is the use of high-frequency alternating current to destroy strategic cardiac tissue and reroute the cardiac impulses generated. These procedures are known as

A

cardiac ablation treatments.

18
Q

Heart rates above 100 beats/min in an adult is termed

A

tachycardia.

19
Q

The cardiac arrhythmia of bradycardia generally involves abnormalities to the

A

SA and AV nodes.

20
Q

The QRS complex on a typical ECG represents

A

depolarization of ventricular muscle.

21
Q

A disease spread by kissing is being transmitted by which of the following methods?

A

Direct contact

22
Q

A nosocomial infection is an

A

infection acquired in a hospital.

23
Q

A pathogen that requires contact precautions is

A

MRSA.

24
Q

A person who acts as a reservoir of pathogenic organisms is referred to as a carrier. An example of a carrier is a

A

coworker who has demonstrated a cold for 2 weeks.

25
Q

All of the following are effective methods of sterilization except

A

isolation.

26
Q

In a hospital setting, constant awareness is given to the simple fact that patients come to the hospital because they are sick and vulnerable to disease. With the current system of medical care, by the time patients come to the hospital setting for care, they are sicker than ever in the past. The most common nosocomial infection seen in hospital patients is

A

urinary tract infections from Foley catheter insertions.

27
Q

The chain of infection consists of

A

host, infectious microbe, mode of transmission, and reservoir.

28
Q

Hazardous drug-related waste materials

A

require the labeling of needle containers and breakable items of hazardous waste.

29
Q

The goal of aseptic technique is to

A

protect the patient from pathogenic microbes.

30
Q

The role of the imaging technologist during cardiac pacemaker studies is to

A

operate fluoroscopy for the physician as he or she guides the pacemaker into position.

31
Q

Two people in sterile attire should pass each other in which of the following ways?

A

Back to back

32
Q

When using a portable fluoroscopy C-arm in surgery,

A

the image receptor and C-arm are draped with a snap cover for sterility.

33
Q

You are about to assist with a sterile procedure. In scrubbing for the procedure, it is important to

A

scrub the fingers completely, as well as the front and back of your hands, for 3 minutes.

34
Q

NG tubes are inserted through the patient’s _____ with the end of the tube placed in the _____.

A

nasopharynx; stomach

35
Q

The most common type of nasogastric tube used for stomach decompression is the

A

single-lumen Levin tube.

36
Q

A disorganized cardiac rhythm in which the ventricle “flutters” and loses cardiac output is called

A

fibrillation.

37
Q

CPR can be stopped when

A

a. the rescuer is physically exhausted.
b. a physician says it’s time to stop CPR.
c. the patient responds and shows signs of recovery.

38
Q

It is acceptable to discontinue CPR on a person when

A

a qualified medical practitioner calls a halt.

39
Q

The Heimlich maneuver is

A

modified for infants to include back slaps and chest thrusts.

40
Q

The medical term for a temporary suspension of consciousness is

A

syncope.

41
Q
A