Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neuro Dis > MWF 10 - 3 > Flashcards

MWF 10 - 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Sulcus?

A

the groove between the gum and the cheek or lip; continuous structure labeled as either anterior or lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the Faucial Pillars?

A

the arch-like structures that signal start of pharyngeal stage of swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What kind of structures are the Sulcus and the Faucial Pillars?

A

Oral Structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the Valleculae?

A

the pocket formed between the epiglottis and the base of tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the Pyriform Sinuses?

A

a way for food and liquids to travel around the larynx through these spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the Pharyngeal constrictors (3)?

A

the three muscles that squeeze a bolus down into the esophagus; superior, middle, and inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What kind of structures are the Valleculae, Pyriform Sinuses, and Pharyngeal Constrictors?

A

Pharyngeal Structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the Esophageal Structures involved in swallowing?

A

Esophagus
Upper Esophageal Sphincter
Lower Esophageal Sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the six valves of swallow?

A
  1. Lips
  2. Oral tongue & Anterior Hard Palate
  3. Velum & Posterior Pharyngeal Wall
  4. Tongue base & Posterior Pharyngeal Wall
  5. Larynx (epiglottis & true vocal folds & false vocal folds)
  6. Upper Esophageal Sphincter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 4 stages of swallow?

A

I. Oral Preparatory Phase
II. Oral Phase
III. Pharyngeal Phase
IV. Esophageal Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When the bolus reaches the area of the faucial arches, the swallow response is triggered and the ______________ phase begins

A

Pharyngeal Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the Pharyngeal Phase, the ______ palate elevates to prevent the bolus from entering the nasal cavity

A

Soft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In order to swallow food properly, we need (low/high) pharyngeal pressure and (low/high) tracheal pressure

A

HIGH pharyngeal pressure
LOW tracheal pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Esophageal _______________ (a wave of contraction) moves food through the esophagus

A

esophageal PERISTALSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Aging delays triggering of _________ stage of swallow

A

Pharyngeal Stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Aging leads to decreased _________ elevation

A

Laryngeal elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Aging impeded _________ function and increases reflux

A

Esophageal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the common diagnoses associated with Dysphagia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are characteristics of Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • Movement limitations
  • Difficult swallow
  • Tremor
  • Rigidity
  • Slow movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Repeated evaluation is needed for ________ Disease because of the progressive nature of the diagnosis

A

Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Progressive Supranuclear Palsy and symptoms?

A

Attributed to the accumulation of tau protein in the brain
- Stiffness and tremor
- Cognitive changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What disease is known as “the other Parkinson’s”?

A

Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False: The cognitive changes in Progressive Supranuclear Palsy presents later than in Alzheimers

A

False; The cognitive changes in Progressive Supranuclear Palsy presents EARLIER than in Alzheimers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Dementia?

A

a cognitive decline, often accompanied by swallowing impairment as the condition progresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most common form of Dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Multi-infarct Dementia?

A

a number of small stroked cause significant cognitive impairment over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Huntington’s Disease?

A

a genetic degenerative disease that affects the basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis?

A

a progressive illness causing both upper and lower motor neuron damage, thus both spastically and flaccidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a more common name for Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis?

A

Lou Gehrig’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Friedrich’s Ataxia?

A

a genetic disorder that affects mitochondrial function that impedes speech and swallowing, and is progressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What disease is characterized by poor initial coordination and then progressive loss of mobility?

A

Friedrich’s Ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What can cause Aspiration Pneumonia?

A

Aspiration of food, stomach acid, or oral secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What happens in a bedside evaluation?

A
  • Oral Mech Exam
  • Observe Swallowing
  • Probe possible strategies to assist patient
  • Recommendations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What structures can you NOT see in a bedside evaluation?

A

Pharyngeal structures including:
- Valleculae
- Pyriform Sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What should you observe in an oral mechanism exam?

A
  • Symmetry
  • Range of Motion (ROM)
  • Strength
  • Sensitivity (gag reflex, tongue blade on faucial pillars)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

True or False: Using a thicker consistency with a patient will cause more residue

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

True or False: Using a thinner consistency with a patient has poorer control

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What to do in a Swallowing Observation?

A
  • Try a variety of observations
  • Listen for cough, gag, choke, splutter
  • Watch for leakage, delayed swallow, residue, and deteriorating performance
  • Budget enough time for patient to become fatigued to see if swallow worsens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are two swallowing assessments?

A

VFSS and FEES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe a Videofloroscopic Swallowing Study (VFSS)

A

Uses x-rays to obtain videos of patient’s swallowing radiopaque material that can provide evidence of penetration and/or aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe a Fiberoptic Endoscopic Evaluation of Swallowing (FEES)

A

Uses nasal endoscopy to view pharynx while patient swallows without radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the advantages of using FEES Swallow Eval compared to the VFSS?

A
  • Less expensive
  • Portable
  • No radiation
  • No barium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Total Parenternal Nutrition (TPN)?

A

a short-term solution for intensive care patients

44
Q

What are the three types of feeding tubes?

A
  • Nasogastric tube (NG tube)
  • Gastrostomy tube (G tube)
  • Jejunostomy tube (J tube)
45
Q

What are Gavage feeding tubes?

A

short-term that disrupts esophagus causing more leakage, includes NG tubes and Orogastric tubes

46
Q

What is an Orogastric tube?

A

feeding tube for babies

47
Q

What are the two feeding tubes that avoid the esophagus?

A
  • Gastrostomy Tubes (G tube)
  • Jejunostomy Tubes (J tube)
48
Q

A Gastrostomy tube is a surgical opening in the stomach where aspiration is very possible

A

True

49
Q

What are the compensatory position changes?

A
  • Chin down
  • Chin up
  • Head turn
  • Head tilt
  • Lying down on side
50
Q

What compensatory position change protects the airway?

A

Chin down

51
Q

What compensatory position change relies on gravity to bring the bolus to back of mouth when tongue function is limited?

A

Chin up

52
Q

What compensatory position change goes towards the weaker side?

A

Head turn to the right if the right side has weakness

53
Q

What compensatory position change goes toward the strong side?

A

Head tilt to the strong side; if a patient has a RH stroke, tilt left towards the strong side

54
Q

What compensatory position change makes the bolus favor one side?

A

Lying down on side that we want bolus to go down

55
Q

What three cues amplify the sensory input?

A

Taste cues, Temperature cues, Tactile cues

56
Q

True or False: the clinician should let the patient pace the feeding

A

True

57
Q

Why should you allow the patient to pace the feeding?

A
  • Less likely to get something they are not ready to swallow
  • Cues clinician for anything that feels off
  • Assuming patient has no issues with impulsivity
58
Q

What is Indirect therapy for swallowing?

A

patient practices without food or liquid due to known risk of aspiration

59
Q

What is Direct therapy for swallowing?

A

patient swallows food and liquid during therapy

60
Q

What is the Shaker exercise?

A

to exercise swallowing techniques, this exercise has the patient lean back in a chair and bring their chin to chest for 30 sec which causes the larynx and the neck muscles to tense up

61
Q

What are the five swallowing modifications?

A

Mendelson Maneuver
Masako Maneuver
Effortful Swallow
Supra-glottic Swallow
Super Supra-glottic swallow

62
Q

What is the Mendelson Maneuver?

A

hold the larynx to prevent elevation during swallow; can be a safer alternative for patient to use in swallow

63
Q

What is the Masako Maneuver?

A

no food/liquid, hold the tongue between teeth and swallow; strengthen tongue base and pharyngeal constriction

64
Q

What is Effortful Swallow?

A

swallow imaginary ping-pong ball; instruct patient to emphatically swallow

65
Q

What is Supra-glottic Swallow?

A

improve laryngeal swallow by holding breath and swallowing, then cough to clear throat and swallow again all quickly

66
Q

What is Super Supra-glottic Swallow?

A

hold breath tightly to “bear down”, swallow hard, cough, and swallow again

67
Q

What areas of the brain do cognitive changes occur due to aging?

A
  • Brain volume
  • Myelin integrity
  • Cortical thickness
  • Neurotransmitter
  • Neurofibrillary tangles
68
Q

Every decade of life after 20 years of age, dopamine levels decrease by __% therefore affecting cognition

A

10%

69
Q

What specific cognitive changes occur due to aging?

A
  • Processing speed
  • Reasoning
  • Spatial Orientations
  • Memory
  • Word Retrieval
  • Selective Attention
  • Short-term Memory
  • Episodic Memory
70
Q

True or False: In healthy older adults, we expect to see declines in long-term memory and procedural memory

A

False; we do NOT expect to see these declines since they are healthy

71
Q

What causes Dementia?

A
  • Degenerative disease
  • Vascular disease
  • Other neurological impairment
  • Nutritional inadequacy
  • Infection
  • Metabolic
  • Toxin exposure
  • Chronic, low-level trauma
72
Q

Most cases of dementia are the result of __________?

A

Degeneration; in brain

73
Q

Which disease features neurofibrillary tangles, amyloid plaques, and granulovacuolar degeneration?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

74
Q

Describe Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD)

A

spherical accumulations of tau protein affecting frontal and temporal lobes that affect behavior and judgement

75
Q

10% of dementia cases are __________ dementia

A

Frontotemporal Dementia

76
Q

What is required in a dementia diagnosis?

A

Requires significant memory impairment along with deficits in at least one of the following:
- Visual perception/Object recognition
- Attention/Executive Function
- Communication
- Reasoning/Judgement

77
Q

A diagnosis of Neuro-cognitive Decline requires clinicians to look at 6 domains, including:

A
  • Complex attention
  • Executive Functioning
  • Learning and Memory
  • Language
  • Perceptual-motor Function
  • Social Cognition
78
Q

What kind of dementia is progressive but slower than typical dementia?

A

Prodromal Dementia

79
Q

What is Reminiscence therapy?

A

semi-cued conversation about past events using objects, music, or smells that evoke a memory

80
Q

What is Montessori therapy?

A

learning to do real life things by doing it themselves, like folding towels, washing dishes; meaningful tasks to bring purpose

81
Q

What is Spaced Retrieval therapy?

A

practicing easy material at increasingly wider intervals; tasks within one’s skillset

82
Q

What is Errorless Learning?

A

target items within a patient’s ability; aim easy, support these abilities to preserve them

83
Q

What is Primary Progressive Aphasia (PPA)?

A

a disruption of semantic and syntactic networks that will worsen overtime, not caused by stroke or TBI, that affects language (unlike dementia) though many cognitive skills are preserved

84
Q

What is the cause of PPA?

A

Most commonly caused by Frontotemporal Dementia

85
Q

What is the difference between Alzheimer’s Disease and Alzheimer’s Dementia?

A

The location of the tumor

86
Q

What are early symptoms of PPA?

A
  • Slower speech
  • Word Retrieval issues
  • Circumlocution
  • Paraphasic errors
  • Disruption of written language
87
Q

What are the three subtypes of PPA?

A

Logopenic
Semantic
Agrammatic Nonfluent

88
Q

What is Logopenic PPA?

A

the patient can only handle small talk; “not enough words”

89
Q

What is Semantic PPA?

A

intact language, impaired comprehension, similar to Wernicke’s Aphasia

90
Q

What kind of PPA is most similar to Wernicke’s Aphasia?

A

Semantic PPA

91
Q

What is Agrammatic Nonfluent PPA?

A

issues with word order production, intact comprehension of word meanings, not correct order

92
Q

What types of PPA are fluent?

A

Logopenic PPA
Semantic PPA

93
Q

What is the difference between PPA and Aphasia?

A

Aphasia is more sudden, has a motor aspect, and is more often caused by stroke or TBI*
PPA is progressive and caused by FTD*

94
Q

True or False: In assessing PPA, it is important to thoroughly assess nonverbal cognitive skills including driving, problem solving, and pattern recogntion

A

True

95
Q

What are some management techniques in treating PPA?

A

AAC device
Direct intervention
Family/Caregiver strategies

96
Q

True or False: Compliance is the goal in treating clients who are grieving

A

False

97
Q

True or False: Grief is more of an upward spiral than an upward arrow

A

True

98
Q

What is Learned Helplessness?

A

a form of controlling others by acting helpless

99
Q

What is Displacement of Grief?

A

projecting your pain onto others

100
Q

What are some manifestations of grief?

A
  • Feelings of loss
  • Depression and Anxiety
  • Learned Helplessness
  • Displacement
  • Dissociation
  • Avoidance Behaviors
  • Demotivation
101
Q

What are the symptoms of Flaccid Dysarthria?

A

Hypotonia*
Muscle weakness*
Hypernasality, Nasal Emissions
Audible inspiration, Inhalatory Phonation
Breathiness, Short Phrases
Diplophonia

102
Q

What are the symptoms of Spastic Dysarthria?

A

Bilateral Spasticity*
Hypertonia*
Harsh, strained, strangled voice
Low pitch, pitch breaks
Slow, effortful, fatiguing speech
Drooling

103
Q

What are the symptoms of UUMN Dysarthria?

A

Milder than other forms
Slurred, slow speech
Fatigue exasterbates symptoms
Often accompanied by hemiplegia, hemiparesis, or unilateral sensory impairment; limb or facial

104
Q

What are symptoms of Hypokinetic Dysarthria?

A

Decreased Rate of Movement
Rigidity, tremor at rest
Masked facies
Monopitch, Monoloudness
Reduced loudness driven by faulty self-perception
Short bursts of speech, increased speech rate overall, rapid AMR’s
Palilalia

105
Q

What are symptoms of Hyperkinetic Dysarthria?

A

unpredictable involuntary movement*
intermittent breathiness or harshness or aphonia
tense vowel prolongation, irregular/slow AMR’s
intrusive phonation
Echolalia/Coprolalia
Sudden intrusive respiration

106
Q

What are the features of Ataxic Dysarthria

A

Slurred speech*
Gait/Stance*
Irregular AMR’s
Primary effects on artic and prosody
Excess and equal stress
Excess loudness variation
Vowel distortions and phoneme prolongations

107
Q

What causes Mixed Dysarthria?

A

Caused by lesions affecting different neurological structures will result in different clinical presentation
- Degenerative disease
- Stroke
- Trauma
- Tumor
- Metabolic (hypothyroidism, Wilson’s Disease)
- Encephalopathy

Neuro Dis (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions