MUST STUDY Flashcards

1
Q

Explain MOA

A

Memorandum of Agreement is a formal document where both sides agree to a broad set of goals and objectives associated with the partnership.

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2
Q

Explain SLA

A

Service Level Agreement is commonly provided as a formal contract between two parties that documents the minimum terms for service provided. The SLA often provides very specific requirements and expectations between both parties.

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3
Q

Explain SCADA

A

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition is a system used to control and monitor industrial processes. It’s like a brain for a large and complex system for industries like power plants, water treatment facilities, manufacturing plants and more.

The hardening process for an industrial SCADA system includes network segmentation, additional firewall controls and the implementation of access control lists.

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4
Q

Explain brute force attacks

A

Brute force attacks discover passwords by attempting to guess the password. brute force attacks usually attempt hundreds of passwords to guess the right one.

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5
Q

Explain spraying attacks

A

Spraying attacks is similar to brute force attacks, but it limits the number of password attempts in order to not alert the administrator or cause account lockout.

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6
Q

Explain downgrade attacks

A

A downgrade attack is often used to force an insecure encryption algorithm or the disabling of encryption entirely

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7
Q

Explain Zero Trust model

A

Zero trust describes a model where nothings is inherently trusted and everything must be verified to gain access. A central policy enforcement point is commonly used to implement a zero trust architecture.

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8
Q

Explain PKI

A

Public Key Infrastructure uses public and private keys to provide confidentiality and integrity. Asymmetric encryption and digital signatures are used as foundational technologies in PKI.

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9
Q

What kind of key would be put into key escrow and why?

A

A private key would be placed in key escrow as a backup method. Since in asymmetric encryption , the private key is used to decrypt information, then it is very important to have a backup of this key.

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10
Q

Explain SCAP

A

Security Content Automation Protocol focuses on the standardization of vulnerability management across multiple security tools. This allows different tools to identify and act on the same security criteria.

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11
Q

Explain Trojan Horse attacks

A

Trojan Horse attacks are usually disguised as legitimate software, the victim often doesn’t realize they’re installing malware. Once the trojan is installed, the attacker can install additional software to control the infected system.

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12
Q

Explain Replay Attack

A

A Replay attack is often used by an attacker to gain access to a service through the use of credentials gathered from a previous authentication. Internal devices communicating to an external servicer is not a common pattern for a replay attack.

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13
Q

Explain Keylogger Attack

A

A keylogger captures keystrokes and occasionally transmits (send the information to external server) this information to the attacker for analysis.

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14
Q

Explain SPF record

A

SPF record is used to publish a list of all authorized email servers for a specific domain

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15
Q

Explain DKIM

A

DKIM is used to publish the public key used for the digital signature for all outgoing email

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16
Q

Explain DMARC

A

DMARC record announces the preferred email disposition if a message is identified as spam. DMARC options include accepting the messages, sending them to a spam folder, or simply rejecting the emails.

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17
Q

What is a downside of allowing mobile devices inside a facility?

A

The exfiltration of confidential information and intellectual property is relatively simple with an easily transportable mobile device. Organizations associated with sensitive products or services must always be aware of the potential for information leaks using files, photos and video.

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18
Q

Explain key exchange algorithm

A

A key exchange algorithm can be used to securely exchange key information between devices, but it does not provide a method of encrypting data.

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19
Q

Explain Asymmetric encryption

A

Asymmetric encryption uses a recipient’s public key to encrypt data, and this data can only be decrypted with the recipients private key.

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20
Q

Explain Jump Servers

A

A jump server is a highly secured device commonly used to access secure areas of another network.

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21
Q

Explain NAC

A

Network Access Control is a broad term describing access control based on a health check or posture assessment. NAC will deny access to devices that don’t meet the minimum security requirements.

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22
Q

Explain air gap

A

Air gap is a segmentation strategy that separates devices or networks by physically disconnecting them from each other.

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23
Q

Explain Risk Acceptance

A

Risk acceptance is a business decision that places the responsibility of the risky activity on the organization itself. For example, if you were using cybersecurity insurance but decide to remove it due to its cost, then you are accepting the risk that comes with being responsible for the cybersecurity effects in your organization.

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24
Q

Explain Risk Transference

A

Purchasing insurance to cover a risky activity is a common method of transferring risk from the organization to the insurance company.

25
Q

Explain CRL

A

Certificate Revocation List is a file that contains a list of revoked certificates. This list is maintained by the associated certificate authority

26
Q

Explain CSR

A

Certificate Signing Request is sent with the public key to the certificate authority. Once the certificate information has been verified, the CA will digitally sign the public key certificate.

27
Q

Explain CA

A

Certificate Authority is the administrative control for any public key infrastructure deployment.

28
Q

Explain OCSP

A

Online Certificate Status Protocol is a protocol used by the browser to check the revocation status of a certificate.

29
Q

Provide the order of the Incident Response Activities

A

Preparation
Detection
Analysis
Containment
Eradication
Recovery
Lesson Learned

30
Q

Explain the Preparation phase of the Incident Response Activities

A

The preparation phase includes all of the work prior to the incident. This may include collecting hardware, installing software, gathering documentation, and managing incident response policies.

31
Q

Explain the Detection phase of the Incident Response Activities

A

The detection phase includes any method of identifying and determining an incident may be actively occurring. This process also includes identifying a legitimate threat and not a false positive.

32
Q

Explain the Analysis phase of the Incident Response Activities

A

The analysis phase provides detailed evidence for a security incident. Alarms, alerts, reports, and other feedback can be categorized as analysis.

33
Q

Explain the Containment phase of the Incident Response Activities

A

Once an incident has been identified, it’s important to prevent the potential spread of any malicious code.

34
Q

Explain the Eradication phase of the Incident Response Activities

A

Removing any malicious software and patching any vulnerabilities would be part of the eradication process.

35
Q

Explain the Recovery phase of the Incident Response Activities

A

The recovery phase often includes rebuilding systems and replacing any compromised data.

36
Q

Explain the Lesson Learned phase of the Incident Response Activities

A

After the event is over, it’s useful to document the process and discuss ow the incident response process could be more efficient if a similar event occurs in the future.

37
Q

Explain obfuscation

A

Obfuscation describes the process of making something difficult for a human to read or understand

38
Q

In short terms, explain Data in-transit, at-rest and in-use

A

Data in transit moves across the network
Data at rest is located on a storage device
Data in use is in the memory of the device

39
Q

Explain Tokenization

A

Tokenization replaces sensitive data wit a non-sensitive placeholder. Tokenization is commonly used for NFC (Near Field Communication) payment systems, and sends a single use token across the network instead of the actual credit card information.

40
Q

Explain Steganography

A

Steganography describes hiding data with other media types. For example it’s common to use steganography to hide text documents within an image file.

41
Q

Explain Masking

A

Data masking hides some of the original data to protect sensitive information. Usually what’s used when displaying only 4 digits of SSN.

42
Q

Explain Alert Tuning

A

Alert tuning means configuring alerts and important notification of events. This can be done to remove false positive alert or alerts that may not be related to our environment.

43
Q

Explain SIEM (Security Information and Event Manager)

A

SIEM can be used to aggregate all log files to a centralized reporting system.

44
Q

What would provide confidentiality for all wireless data?

A

WPA3 is the latest and most secure protocol for wireless networks. It provides strong encryption and confidentiality for all wireless data.

802.1X would not be the right answer here since 802.1X is a network access control protocol that provides authentication but not encryption.

45
Q

Explain the CIA Triad

A

Confidentiality means ensuring that information is only accessible to these who are authorized to see it.
Integrity ensures that data remains accurate, complete and unaltered from its original form.
Availability ensures that information and resources are available to authorized users whenever they are needed.

46
Q

Explain non-repudiation

A

Non repudiation ensures that the author of an act cannot claim that they didn’t do it.

47
Q

Explain Chain-of-custody

A

A chain of custody is a documented record of the evidence. The chain of custody also documents the interactions of every person who comes into contact with the evidence to maintain the integrity.

48
Q

What’s the best option for application testing in an environment completely separated from production network?

A

Using an Air Gap system.

VLAN is not a good option since VLAN is used to segment the network, not completely separate it.

49
Q

Explain HIPS (Host-based Intrusion Prevention System)

A

HIPS monitors and prevents suspicious activities on a specific computer. It detects and blocks unauthorized changes. It also provides detailed logs about traffic flows to systems outside of the corporate network.

50
Q

Explain Data subject

A

In data privacy, data subject describes an individual with personal data. Payment details and shipping addresses describe personal information from a data subject.

51
Q

Explain Data Controller

A

Data controller manages the processing of the data. A payroll department would be an example of a data controller.

52
Q

Explain Data Owner

A

Data owner is commonly accountable for all of the data, and the owner often manages the people and systems associated with processing and securing the data.

53
Q

Explain Data Processor

A

Data processor manages the data on behalf of the data controller. If the data controller is the payroll department, a third-party payroll company would be the data processor.

54
Q

Explain Operational controls

A

Operational controls are often implemented by people instead of systems. Security guards and awareness programs are examples of operational controls.

55
Q

Explain Managerial controls

A

Managerial controls are administrative controls associated with security design and implementation. A set of policies and procedures would be an example of a managerial control.

56
Q

Explain Physical Controls

A

Physical controls are used to limit physical access. Badge readers, fences, and guard shacks are categorized as physical controls

57
Q

Explain Technical Controls

A

Technical Controls are implemented using systems. Operating system controls, firewalls and automated processes are considered technical control.

58
Q

Provide the most used protocols and ports

A