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Patho > Musculoskeletal Disorders Pt. 1 > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Disorders Pt. 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the structural components of osseous bone?

A

Bone matrix and osteocytes

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2
Q

What are the types of osseous bone?

A

Compact bone and trabecular bone

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3
Q

What is the function of bone?

A

Protect organs, levers for movement, houses hematopoietic cells, and calcium/phosphate ion sink

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4
Q

What are the components of bone?

A

Bone matrix and osseous cells

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5
Q

What are the three major types of mature bone cells?

A

Osteoclasts
Osteoblasts
Osteocytes

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6
Q

What bone cell removes and remodels bone matrix?

A

Osteoclasts

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7
Q

What bone cells secrete new bone matrix (ossification)?

A

Osteoblasts

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8
Q

What bone cells surround themselves with bone matrix and maintain the surrounding bone matrix?

A

Osteocytes

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9
Q

What is the functional unit of the compact bone?

A

Osteon

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10
Q

What part of compact bone contains nerves and vessels?

A

Central canal

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11
Q

What are the thin branches of bone that form an open network?

A

Trabeculae

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12
Q

What is located between the trabeculae in spongy bone?

A

Red marrow

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13
Q

What is the continuous process of bone resorption by osteoclasts, followed by a period of repair during which new bone tissue is synthesized by osteoblasts?

A

Bone remodeling

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14
Q

What happens when bone catabolism overtakes bone anabolism due to inadequate Ca+2 intake, increase osteoclast activity and increased parathyroid activity?

A

Bone degeneration.

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15
Q

What is the body’s reserve for many inorganic ions?

A

Bone mineral

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16
Q

What is critical for neuron impulse conduction, muscle contraction, and anticipated as a cofactors in many enzymatic reactions?

A

Calcium

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17
Q

What is secreted into the blood in response to increasing Ca2+ levels?

A

Calcitonin (thyroid)

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18
Q

What is secreted into the blood in response to decreasing Ca2+ levels?

A

Parathyroid hormone or PTH

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19
Q

Parathyroid hormone has effects on what 3 target organs?

A

Kidneys, GI tract, osteoclasts

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20
Q

Thyroid gland secreting calcitonin has effects on what target organs?

A

Kidney, and osteoclasts

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21
Q

What is the thick layer of fibrous tissue that surrounds an entire muscle?

A

Epimysium

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22
Q

what is the layer of fibrous tissue that surrounds a fascicle?

A

Perimysium

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23
Q

What is a bundle of skeletal muscle fibers?

A

Fascicle

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24
Q

What is a thin layer of areolar tissue surrounding a single muscle fiber?

A

Endomysium

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25
Q

What skeletal muscle fiber is equivalent to the plasma membrane?

A

Sarcolemma

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26
Q

What skeletal muscle fiber is equivalent to the cytoplasm?

A

Sarcoplasm

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27
Q

What skeletal muscle fiber is equivalent to the muscle specific version of the endoplasmic reticulum that stores Ca2+?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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28
Q

What are cylinders consisting of a bundle of protein filaments called myofilaments?

A

Myofibrils

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29
Q

What is the site of excitation coupling?

A

The neuromuscular junction

30
Q

What is a chromosomal abnormality resulting with three copies of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21) that is characterized by multiple congenital and developmental abnormalities?

A

Down syndrome

31
Q

What is the most common inherited chromosomal disorder: occurring once in every 700 live births?

A

Down Syndrome

32
Q

What pathology is characterize by Flat facial profile, oblique eyes, and epicanthic folds?

A

Down Syndrome

33
Q

What pathology presents with the characteristic of Atlantoaxial instability (AAI) of the cervical spine (subluxation between C1 and C2?

A

Down Syndrome

34
Q

What pathology is the most common group of inherited progressive neuromuscular childhood disorders?

A

Muscular dystrophy

35
Q

What pathology presents with the following muscle dystrophies: shoulder girdle (trapezius, levator scapulae, rhomboids, serratus anterior), pectoral muscles, deltoid, rectus abdominis, gluteals, hamstrings, calf muscles.

A

Duchenne

36
Q

What pathology presents with the following muscular dystrophies: neck, trunk, pelvic and shoulder girdle.

A

Becker

37
Q

What is a sign of lumbar and gluteal weakness as a child stands from a prone position?

A

Gower sign

38
Q

What pathology is relevant to the following treatments:

  • Strength training is not helpful and may weaken and exacerbate the symptoms
  • Contracture management using physical therapy (stretching, splinting, and casting)
  • Glucocorticoid therapy (steroidal anti-inflammatories) may slow the progression of injury, inflammation, and fibrosis/fatty tissue accumulation within the muscle
A

Muscular dystrophy

39
Q

What pathology is also known as brittle bone disease), is a rare congenital collagen synthesis disorder affecting bones and connective tissue?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

40
Q

What type of OI is the mildest form of OI causing mild to moderate skeletal fragility without deformity?

A

Type 1

41
Q

What type of OI is moderately severe consisting of progressive deformities, including vertebral column deformation, limb deformation, osteoporosis and disability?

A

Type 3

42
Q

The following description is the Pathophysiology of what pathology: caused by over a 150 different mutations of the Type I collagen genes, while a minority of cases involve other genes that may regulate collagen synthesis or collagen fiber organization?

A

OI

43
Q

What specific pathology has the following clinical presentation: Normal bone appearance with occasional fractures

A

OI, type 1

44
Q

What specific pathology has the following clinical presentation: readily identified at birth from presence of abnormal skeletal structure and fracture?

A

OI, type 3

45
Q

What pathology do we see a clinical management of implantation of a intramedullary rod?

A

OI

46
Q

What is disorder of decreased bone mass and microscopic injury/degeneration of bone microanatomy?

A

Osteoporosis

47
Q

What is the type of osteoporosis has an unknown etiology, but is associated with negative calcium balance due to activity levels or endocrine dysfunction?

A

Primary osteoporosis

48
Q

What type of osteoporosis is associated with medications, other conditions, or diseases?

A

Secondary osteoporosis

49
Q

What group of people is osteoporosis most common in?

A

postmenopausal women

50
Q

How many men will experience an osteoporosis-related fragility fracture during their lifetime?

A

1 in 4

51
Q

What occurs due to many contributory factors including, Mild and prolonged negative calcium balance, Declining gonadal and adrenal function, Relative or progressive estrogen deficiency, and Sedentary lifestyle

A

Primary osteoporosis

52
Q

What is associated with long-term medication treatment, other conditions, or diseases caused by, Prolonged therapy with corticosteroids, heparin, anticonvulsants, and other medications, Alcoholism, malnutrition, malabsorption, or lactose intolerance, and Endocrine disorders

A

Secondary osteoporosis

53
Q

What begins when new bone production decreases below bone breakdown (resorption) during bone remodeling which characterizes age-related bone mass decline?

A

Osteoporosis

54
Q

What pathology is characterized by Loss of overall body height and postural changes, and Back pain and/or bone fracture?

A

Osteoporosis

55
Q

Clinical management of what pathology includes Adequate calcium: childhood and adolescence calcium intake is essential to increase bone mineral density (1300 mg daily for 9-18 y; 1000 mg for males; 1000 mg for females (1200 mg females >50 y)
And Adequate Vitamin D: required for intestinal absorption of calcium from the diet; adequate sun exposure is necessary for vitamin D synthesis, but is supplemented in many foods

A

Osteoporosis

56
Q

A DXA sack and bone mineral density studies are ways to manage what pathology?

A

Osteoporosis

57
Q

What is a progressive disease characterized as lack of mineralization decreasing the strength of the bone matrix without bone matrix reduction?

A

Osteomalacia

58
Q

What is caused by Insufficient intestinal calcium absorption (lack of calcium, vitamin D, or resistance to vitamin D) and Increased renal phosphorus losses (renal failure; long-term use of antacids, etc.) ?

A

Osteomalacia

59
Q

What primarily occurs in malnourished aging adults who may not receive adequate sunlight?

A

Osteomalacia

60
Q

What is seen with greater frequency in cultures where the population has increased skin pigmentation and vitamin D dietary deficiency?

A

Osteomalacia

61
Q

What develops due to lack of calcium ion deposited into the growing or remodeling bone matrix?

A

Osteomalacia

62
Q

What is accompanied by hypocalcemia (low serum Ca++ levels) causing latent tetany, paresthesia of the hands, and muscle cramps?

A

Osteomalacia

63
Q

What is also known as osteitis deformans) is the second most common metabolic bone disease after osteoporosis?

A

Paget’s disease

64
Q

What can be described as a state of high bone turnover with abnormal bone production?

A

Paget’s disease

65
Q

What is a common disease of the aging population,Rarely manifesting before age 35
Increasing prevalence among adults older than age 50 (3% to 4% may be affected of the population older than age 50)

A

Paget’s disease

66
Q

What stage of Paget’s disease involves abnormal osteoclasts proliferation and excessive bone resorption outpacing osteoblast function?

A

Initial resorptive stage

67
Q

What stage of Paget’s disease involves normal trabecular bone is replaced by coarse, thick struts; normal compact bone is irregularly thickened, rough, and pitted?

A

Osteoblastic sclerotic phase

68
Q

What clinical presentation of Paget’s disease weakens bone in the axial skeleton, but can also affect other sites?

A

Progressive demineralization

69
Q

What is a key enzyme secreted by bone cells which is excessively secreted in Paget bone?

A

Serum alkaline phosphate

70
Q

What is typically used for treatment of Paget’s disease?

A

bisphosphonates

71
Q

How is successful treatment of Paget’s disease monitored?

A

By using serum alkaline phosphatase

Patho (9 decks)

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