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Commercial Study > Multi-Engine (Seminole) > Flashcards

Multi-Engine (Seminole) Flashcards

1
Q

What is Vle for PA-44?

A
  • 140 KIAS
  • Do not operate the a/c above this speed with the landing gear extended
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2
Q

What is Vlo (down) for PA-44?

A
  • 140 KIAS
  • Do not exceed this airspeed when extending the landing gear (i.e. lowering the landing gear)
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3
Q

What is Vlo (up) for PA-44?

A
  • 109 KIAS
  • Do not exceed this speed if trying to raise the landing the gear
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4
Q

What is Vfe for PA-44?

A
  • 111 KIAS
  • Do not exceed this speed if extending flaps
  • Top of the white arc
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5
Q

What is Vy and Vyse for PA-44?

A
  • 88 KIAS
  • Vy if the best rate of climb speed
  • Vyse: Best rate of climb on a single engine
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6
Q

A low AoA pitch on a constant speed prop allows for:

A
  • A higher RPM but less “bite” out of the air
  • Less thrust
  • Ideal for takeoff and climb setting (because we want more RPM during this phase of flight)
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7
Q

A high AoA pitch on a constant speed prop allows for:

A
  • More thrust (more bite out of the air)
  • Added drag will reduce RPM
  • Ideal for cruise, where speed isn’t required
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8
Q

What is Vx and Vxse for PA-44?

A
  • 82 KIAS
  • Vx is the best AOC
  • Vxse is the best AOC on a single engine
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9
Q

What is Vsse for PA-44?

A
  • 82 KIAS
  • Best safe speed to fail an engine
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10
Q

What is Vcc for PA-44?

A
  • 105 KIAS
  • Cruise climb speed
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11
Q

What is Vno for PA-44?

A
  • 169 KIAS
  • This is the maximum structural cruising speed (top of the green arc)
  • Do not exceed this speed if in turbulent conditions
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12
Q

What is Vne for PA-44?

A
  • 202 KIAS
  • Never exceed speed (top of the red line)
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13
Q

What is the range of the white arc and what does it mean?

A

55 - 111 KIAS

This is the flaps operating range

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14
Q

What is Vmc for PA-44?

A
  • 56 KIAS
  • Minimum controllable airspeed on a single engine (bottom of the red line)
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15
Q

What are the engine driven power systems?

A

Electrical generating system
Pneumatic power systems
Hydraulic power systems

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16
Q

Describe the alternators in the new Seminoles 1995+:

A
  • 2 engine belt driven alternators 14v 70 ampere
  • Provides full electrical power, even at low power settings
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17
Q

Describe the alternators in the old model Seminoles 1979:

A
  • 2 engine belt driven alternators 14v 60 amperes
  • Provides full electrical power, even at low power settings
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18
Q

Which model (new or old) has cooling vent specifically for the alternator?

A

New models 1995+

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19
Q

What does a voltage regulator do?

A

Should overvoltage occur in either alternator, the voltage regulator will shut off the voltage of that alternator

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20
Q

What happens if one alternator is inop?

A
  • The system is capable of running off one alternator if electrical load is reduced below 60 amps
  • Low voltage will cause a “LO BUS” light to illuminate when the system drops below 12.5v DC
  • If both alternators are inop, compass may show an error of up to 10 degrees
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21
Q

How do you check the engine suction in the seimiole?

A
  • Normal suction range is 4.8 to 5.2”
  • Look for the two red tabs in the suction gauge to indicate sufficient suction is provided
  • A failed pump will be indicated by the red tab that has fallen back (not showing) into it’s hole
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22
Q

Engine failure on takeoff roll bold items before Vr:

A
  1. Throttle Idle
  2. Brakes Apply

go to checklist

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23
Q

Engine failure bold items on the roll no runway remains:

A
  1. Master switch OFF
  2. Fuel Selector OFF
  3. Mixtures IDLE CUTOFF
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24
Q

Engine failure during climb before decision point;
Not all 3 met
1. Cleared Obstacles
2. 88 KIAS
3. Landing Gear Still Down

A
  1. Throttles IDLE
  2. Land STRAIGHT AHEAD (30° either side)
  3. Brakes APPLIED (landing if runway available)
25
Q

Engine failure after decision point:
1. Cleared Obstacles
2. 88 KIAS
3. Landing Gear Up

A
  1. Maintain Directional Control
  2. Pitch Level
  3. MIxture FULL FORWARD
  4. Props FULL FORWARD
  5. Throttles FULL FORWARD
  6. Flaps UP
  7. Gear UP
  8. Identify DEAD FOOT DEAD ENGINE
  9. Verify REDUCE THROTTLE 1/2

Below 3000’ AGL : Idle Feather Secure Checklist
Above 3000’ AGL: Restart Engine Checklist (engine failure checklist)

26
Q

Below 3000’ AGL Inop Engine Feather Secure bold items:

A
  1. Throttle IDLE
  2. Prop FEATHER
  3. Mixture IDLE CUTOFF

Call for inop feather secure checklist

27
Q

Fire on the ground emergency bold items:

A
  1. Mixture IDLE CUTOFF
  2. Throttle FULL
  3. Ignition Switch ENGAGE FOR 10 SECONDS

IF Engine Starts
Continue running to pull fire into engine

If fire persists
1. Fuel Selector OFF
2. Master Switch OFF
3. Fire Extinguisher USE

28
Q

Engine Fire in flight emergency bold checklist items:

A
  1. Mixture IDLE CUTOFF
  2. Throttle IDLE
  3. Fuel Selector OFF
  4. Propeller Feather
    call for Engine Fire in Flight Checklist
29
Q

Prop overspeed emergency bold item:

A
  1. Throttle REDUCE TO STOP OVERSPEED
    (call for prop overspeed checklist)
30
Q

Electrical fire in flight emergency bold items:

A
  1. Avionics Master OFF
  2. Master Switch OFF
  3. Alternators OFF
  4. Cabin Heat OFF
  5. Vents/Defrost Closed
  6. Fire Extinguisher ACTIVATE (if available)
    call for electrical fire in flight checklist
31
Q

What are the factors that affect Vmc?

A
  1. CG
  2. Bank angle
  3. Weight
  4. Power
  5. Density Altitude
  6. Drag Devices
  7. Dead Propeller
  8. Critical Engine
32
Q

Why is 3°-5° bank preferable for increasing Vmc?

A
  • 3-5° provides less sideslip as opposed to no bank angle
  • Banking more than 5° will split more vertical lift into horizontal lift. Vertical can no longer keep the opposing force (weight) and the resultant effect is a larger descent rate
33
Q

What does FAR 23.67 provide?

A
  • It provides single engine climb performance requirements to airplane manufacturers for FAA certification of multi-engine
34
Q

What is induced flow or accellerated flow?

A
  • It’s the increase in lift due to the location of the engine prop in front of wing; therefore increasing velocity over the wing (increasing overall lift)
  • The same occurs in single-engine operation, but not as prominent due to the location of the propeller
35
Q

When one engine dies in a multi-engine, what aerodynamic turning effects occur?

A
  • Yaw Motion
    • Because of the dead engine on one side, the side with the working engine wants to yaw due to the differential thrust provided by the working engine
  • Roll Motion
    • When one engine dies, the induced airflow of the working engine is providing more lift, therefore wanting to roll the airplane over to the side that isn’t providing as much lift (because of the lack of airflow over the dead wing)
36
Q

On a counter-rotating engine, which engine is the critical engine?

A
  • Neither is critical because of the same effects would occur no matter which engine would die
37
Q

What are the 3 factors that determine an engine is critical?

A
  1. P-Factor
  2. Accelerated Slipstream
  3. Torque
38
Q

What’s the formula to determine the yawing moment?

A

Thrust x Arm = Moment (describing P-Factor)

  • The larger the arm from the CG to the center of thrust, the larger the yawing moment
39
Q

On a conventional twin engine, which engine is the critical engine?

A
  • The left engine is critical because the effect of the yaw is greater if the left engine fails
40
Q

What are the four warning signs of reaching Vmc?

A
  1. Loss of directional control
  2. Stall warning horn
  3. Buffeting before the stall
  4. Rapid decay of control effectiveness
41
Q

What is the defined as Vmc per 14 CFR Part 23.149?

A
  • The calibrated airspeed at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative it is possible to:
    • Maintain control of the airplane with that engine still operative
    • Maintain straight flight at the same speed with an angle of bank of not more than 5°
42
Q

How is Vmc determined under FAR 23.149?

A

Vmc must be determined with:
1. Most unfavorable weight
2. Most unfavorable CG position
3. The airplane airborne and ground effect negligible
4. Max avail. takeoff power initially on each engine
5. Airplane trimmed for takeoff
6. Flaps in takeoff position
7. Landing gear retracted
8. All prop controls in the recommended takeoff position

When recovering from Vmc:
1. Rudder pedal force req. to maintain control shouldn’t exceed 150 lbs

  1. It must not be necessary to reduce power of the inoperative engine
  2. The airplane must not assume any dangerous attitude
  3. It must be possible to prevent a heading change of more than 20°
43
Q

How can we decrease Vmc make Vmc a lower airspeed?

A
  1. Moving CG forward will make the rudder more effective
    - Large arm to rudder = Larger rudder moment = effective rudder
  2. Anything that will allow less rudder to be used, making more rudder available to the pilot
44
Q

How does Vmc become a higher airspeed (bad)?

A
  1. Moving the CG aft, resulting in less:
    • Arm to rudder = smaller rudder moment = rudder less effective
  2. Anything that will cause more rudder to be used, making less rudder available to the pilot
45
Q

As weight increases what happens to Vmc?

A
  • Vmc decreases (good thing)
46
Q

As weight decreases what happens to Vmc?

A
  • Vmc increases (bad)
47
Q

As the gear position moves, the CG:

A
  • Moves in the same direction the landing gear is moving
  • Landing gear extended acts like a keel on a boat, therefore stabilizing and preventing a turn.
    • This in turn lowers Vmc
48
Q

As flaps are deployed what happens to Vmc?

A
  • Vmc is reduced
    • Because of the accelerated flow on the operating engine side, more drag is felt than the side with no accelerated airflow (dead engine side)
    • More lift is also generated due to the higher AoA and will cause a higher roll towards the dead engine side
    • _Less rudder input would be needed, allowing more rudder to be available for directional control
49
Q

What kind of engine does the seminole have?

A
  • O360 (left) & LO360 (right)
    Lycoming: Manufacturer

Horizontally Opposed: Cylinders are mounted horizontally

Air Cooled: Oil cools as the airflows through the engine or through the air cooler

Normally Aspirated: Not supercharged/turbocharged

Direct Drive: Pistons are connected to the crankshaft which is directly to the prop

50
Q

What are the components of the G500?

A

Powers on and off with the battery master, not the avionics master

  • PFD (left)
    • Shows primary flight info. in place of traditional pitot-static and gyroscopic instrument
  • MFD (right)
    • Displays traffic information service (TIS)
  • Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS)
    • Contains tilt sensors, accelerometers, and rate sensors to provide altitude and heading information on the PFD
    • Receives information from the magnetometer
  • Air Data Computer (ADC)
    -Compiles info from the pitot-static system and OAT sensor to provide pressure altitude, ASI, VSI, and OAT
  • Magnetometer
    • Senses the earth’s magnetic field and sends data to the AHRS for processing to determine magnetic heading
  • Temperature Probe
    • Provides OAT to the ADC
  • Dual Garmin GNS 430 GPS
    • Provide input to the AHRS and PFD/MFD
51
Q

The overvoltage regulator will take an alternator offline if:

A
  • The alternator output exceeds 17-volts
  • Alternator light on annunciator will illuminate
  • Overvoltage relay and voltage regulators are located in the nose section
52
Q

Approximately how many RPM’s is required to obtain full alternator output of 60 amperes?

A

2000 RPM

53
Q

What should occur if you notice a load much higher than the known consumption of the electrical equipment in use?

A

Section 7-19 POH
- That alternator should be suspected of a malfunction and turned off
- Remaining alternator ammeter should show normal reading after approximately 1 minute
- Care must be exercised to prevent the loads from exceeding the 60 amperes rating and subsequent depletion of the battery

54
Q

How are the vacuum instruments powered?

A
  • A vacuum pump on each engine
  • Dry-type pumps which eliminate the need for an air/oil separator and plumbing
55
Q

What are possible problems when the pump indicates a 0 reading?

A
  • Sheared pump drive
  • Defective pump
  • Defective gauge
  • Collapsed line

Pilot should have mechanics check the system to prevent possible damage to the system components or eventual failure of the system

56
Q

In order to use the alternate static port what should be done per POH (section 7-23)?

A
  • Storm window and cabin vents must be closed and the cabin heater and defroster must be on during static source operation
  • Altimeter error is less than 50’ unless otherwise placarded
57
Q

Why are there two stall warning tabs on the seminole?

A
  • An approaching stall is indicated by a stall warning horn activated between 5 & 10 KIAS above stall speed
  • The inboard detector activates when the flaps are in the 25° & 40° position
  • The outboard detector when flaps are different the above settings
  • A squat switch in the stall warning system does not allow the units to be activated on the ground
58
Q

Is there a date to replace the ELT on the seminole?

A
  • You can access the ELT in the aft fuselage section with a screwdriver
  • A battery replacement date is marked on the transmitter. That’s how you would know when to replace.
59
Q

How does the alternator convert AC current to DC current?

A
  • A rectifier that’s powered by the AC current produced by the alternator converts AC current to DC by blocking the negative current of the AC current

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