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MSK clinical 1 Flashcards

1
Q

why is the humeral head retroverted

A

increases the range of movement at the glenohumeral joint (30degrees on average)

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2
Q

what condition commonly affects the trapezium

A

osteoarthritis - the commonest site in the hand

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3
Q

what type of accident is associated with trauma to he midcarpal joint

A

dislocation due to high energy injury

- (peri) lunate dislocation with or without fracture

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4
Q

what type of joint is the 1st carpometacarpal joint

A

saddle

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5
Q

what disease commonly occurs at the first carpometacarpal joint

A

osteoarthritis

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6
Q

what is the position of safe splinting

A

collateral ligaments of MCPs are at full stretch when fingers 90 degrees flexed
collateral ligements of the IPJs are at full stretch when fully extended

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7
Q

what condition commonly affects the metacarpophalangeal joints

A

swelling due to rheumatoid arthritis

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8
Q

what clinical sign is seen at the metacarpophalyngeal joints in rheumatoid arthritis

A

ulnar drift

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9
Q

what type of joints are the interpharyngeal joinrs

A

hinge

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10
Q

where would you find heberden’s nodes

A

the distal interphalangeal joints

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11
Q

where would you find bouchards nodes

A

at the proximal interphalangeal joints

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12
Q

Flexor muscles of the thumb

A

flexor pollicis longus and brevis

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13
Q

extensor muscles of the thumb

A

extensor pollicis longus and brevis

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14
Q

abduction muscles of the thumb

A

adductor pollicis longus and brevis

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15
Q

adduction muscles of the thumb

A

adductor pollicis

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16
Q

what is the muscle of the thumb responsible for opposition

A

opponens pollicis

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17
Q

nerve supply to the muscles of the thumb in the thenar eminence

A

flexor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis brevis and opponens pollicis
– median nerve

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18
Q

nerve supply to the muscle of the thumb in the palm of the hand

A

opponens pollicis

– ulnar

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19
Q

Allens test

A

how to test for patency of the radial and ulnar nerves
- hand is ellevated and patient is asked to make a fist for about 30 seconds
pressure is applied over the ulnar and radial nerves as to occlude them both
still elevated the hand is then opened and it should appear blanched (pallor at the finger nails)
ulnar pressure is released and the colour should return in 7 seconds

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20
Q

what is the palmar aponeurosis

A

fibrous sheet of fascia which blends with palmaris longus

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21
Q

what condition can occur in the palmar aponeurosis

A

dupuytren’s contracture

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22
Q

what is a dermatome

A

sensory area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

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23
Q

what is a myotome

A

group of muscles supplied by one segment of the spinal cord

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24
Q

where on its course is the axillary nerve at risk

A

surgical neck of the humerus

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25
Q

what injuries can affect the axillary nerve

A
  • fracture of humeral neck (surgical neck particularly)
  • shoulder dislocation
  • pressure on posterior cord of the brachial plexus
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26
Q

what is the motor deficit in an axillary nerve lesion

A

loss of shoulder abduction (deltoid)

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27
Q

sensory deficit in an axillary nerve lesion

A

badge area

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28
Q

during its course where is the radial nerve most at risk

A

spiral neck of the humerus - humeral shaft/radial groove

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29
Q

sensory deficit in a radial nerve palsy

A

1st web space dorsally (thumb and index)

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30
Q

nerve roots of the sciatic nerve

A

L4-S3

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31
Q

when is the sciatic nerve at risk

A

posterior dislocation of the hip

IM injections

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32
Q

what are the criteria for rheumatoid arthritis

A

morning stiffness
arthritis in 3 or more joint areas
arthritis of hand joints
symmetric arthritis
rheumatoid nodules (subcut over bony prominences, extensor surfaces and juxta-articular regions
serum rheumatoid factor
radiographic chanfes (erosions or definite bone decalcification

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33
Q

what is pannus

A

abnormal layer of fibrovascular tissue or granulation tissue

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34
Q

symptoms of arthritis

A 
pain 
stiffness 
swelling 
functional impairment 
systemic symptoms
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35
Q

what are the signs of arthritis

A 
tenderness 
swelling 
restriction of movement 
(heat)
(redness)
systemic features
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36
Q

systemic features of rheumatoid arthritis (non-specific)

A

fatigue
weight loss
anaemia

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37
Q

specific systemic features of rheumatoid arthritis

A 
eyes 
lungs
nerves 
skin 
kidneys
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38
Q

investigations for rheumatoid arthritis

A

immunology - rheumatoid factor - IgG, IgM
anti cyclic citrullinated antibodies (antiCCP, ACPA) - very specific
Xray
USS to show inflammation

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39
Q

how is rheymatoid arthritis assessed

A

using the disease activity score

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40
Q

how is the disease activity score for rheumatoid arthritis calculated

A

number of swollen joints/28
number of tender joints/28
ESR
CRP

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41
Q

what does a DAS28 score of 2.4 represent

A

clinical remission

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42
Q

what does a DAS28 score of >5.1 indicate

A

eligibility for biologic therapy

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43
Q

Aetiology of hallux valgus

A 
Genetic 
Foot wear (particularly female)
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44
Q

Symptoms of hallux valgus

A

Pressure symptoms from show wear
Pain - particularly in ball of foot and over bunion and when crossing toes
Metatarsalalgia = pain in ball of foot

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45
Q

Management of hallux valgus

A 
Change shoes!
Give insoles
Activity modification
Analgesia 
Operative - release soft tissuers, osteotomy of 1st metatarsal (+/- proximal phalynx)
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46
Q

Hallux rigidus - what is it and what is the cause

A

Stiff big toe - osteoarthritis of the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint

Unknown aetiology potentially genetics or microtrauma

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47
Q

Symptoms of halux rigidus

A

Many assymptomatic
Pain at extreme of dorsiflexion
Limited range of movement

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48
Q

Treatment for a ganglion

A

Arise from joint or tendon sheath

  • hit with a bible!
  • aspiration
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49
Q

What are the risks for developmental dysplasia of the hip ?

A 
Being the first born
Oligohydramnios (underlying kidney and bladder problems)
Breach presentation 
Family history 
Being more than 10lbs at birth
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50
Q

Clinical features of congenital dysplasia of the hip

A

Orltolani’s sign

…

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51
Q

Screening for developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Selective ultrasound screening

- for breech presentations, family history, >10lbs and thought to have abnormal hip

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52
Q

Presentation of perthes disease

A 
Usually male (10:1)
Primary school age 
Short stature
Limp 
KNEE PAIN ON EXERCISE 
Stiff hip joint 
Systemically well
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53
Q

Aetiology of developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Idiopathic

Avascular necrosis of the hip

Possible relationship to minor trauma or coagulation tendency

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54
Q

Treatment of developmental hip dysplasia

A

Maintain hip motion and analgesia

Restrict painful activity; “supervised neglect”

Consider osteotomy in selected groups of older children

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55
Q

Presentation of slipped upper femoral epiphyses

A
  • teenage boys> girls
  • mainly overweight
  • pain in hip or knee
  • externally rotated posture and gait
  • reduced internal rotation, especially in flexion
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56
Q

Mimics of multisystem connective tissue disease

A

Drugs - cocaine, PTU
Infection - HIV, endocarditis, hepatitis,TB
Malignancy - lymphoma

Cardiac myxoma
Cholesterol emboli
Scurvy

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57
Q

Does SLE affect men or women more?

A

Women 9:1

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58
Q

Age of presentation of SLE

A

15-50

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59
Q

Criteria for SLE

A 
S= serositis (pleurisy, pericarditis)
O= oral ulcers
A= arthritis (2+ joints)
P= photosensitivity 
B= blood (haemolytic anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
R= renal (high blood and protein)
A= ANA positive
I = immunologic (anti-Sm, anti-dsDNA
N= neuropsych (unexplained seizures and psychosis)
M= malar rash = butterfly 
N = discoid rash (-->alopecia)
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60
Q

Complications of scleroderma

A

Pulmonary hypertension
Pulmonary fibrosis
Renal crisis
Small bowel bacterial overgrowth

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61
Q

Investigations if suspect SLE

A

Urine dipstick - haematuria and proteinuria
Blood - anaemia, thrombocytopenia, raised CRP and ESR
ANA testing - positive for 90%
Antibodies to double stranded DNA - highly specific for SLE

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62
Q

Complications of SLE

A

Increased incidence of atherosclerosis
Increased thrombosis risk
Increased infection risk due to immunosuppressive treatment

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63
Q

Presentation of scleroderma

A 
C - calcinosis of subcut tissues 
R - raynaud's 
E - oesophageal and gut dysmotility 
S - sclerodactyly (swollen tight digits)
T - telangiectasia
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64
Q

Features of sjorgren’s syndrome

A

Dry eyes and mouth
Parotid gland enlargement
1/3 have systemic upset
- fever, fatigue, myalgia, arthalgia

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65
Q

Giant cell arteritis classification criteria

A 
Age at onset 50+ years old 
New headache 
Temporal artery tenderness 
ESR 50+
Abnormal temporal biopsy
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66
Q

Treatment for mild multisystem autoimmune diseases

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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67
Q

Treamtent for moderate multi-system autoimmune diseases

A

Azathioprine
Methotrexate
Mycophenolate

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68
Q

Treatment for severe multi-system autoimmune disease

A

Cyclophosphamide

Rituximab

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69
Q

Causes of raised plasma urate

A

Malignancy (Leukaemia), inborn errors of metabolism, cytotoxuc drugs –> overproduction

Under-excretion

  • renal impairment
  • hypothyroid
  • exercise, starvation, dehydration
  • drugs - ALCOHOL, ASPIRIN, DIURETICS (thiazide commonly)
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70
Q

Presentation of gout

A

Severe monoarthropathy with joint inflammation

- commonly MTP joint of big toe

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71
Q

Treatment of acute gout episode

A
  • NSAIDS
  • colchicine
  • steroids
  • Ice and elevation
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72
Q

Long term management of gout

A

LIFESTYLE - less purine rich meat and alcohol; lose weight and avoud prolonged starvation
Allopurinol - prevents urate acid synthesis by blocking xanthine oxidase
feboxiostat if allopurinol not tolerated
Uricosuric agents to increase secretion - sulphinpryazone

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73
Q

Basis of psuedogout

A

Pyrophospate dehydrate crystals –> monoarthritis of the elderly

74
Q

Management of pseudogout

A

Intra-articular steroid injections

NSAIDs not as effective

75
Q

Presentation of polymyalgia rheumatica

A

Sudden onset of shoulder +/- pelvic girdle stiffness

Systemic - anaemia, malaise, weight loss, fever, depression

76
Q

Who is commonly affected by polymyalgia rheumatica

A

Elderly females
(>50 but more commonly 70)
Females (2:1Males)

Common if have giant cell arteritis

77
Q

ESR levels of someone with polymylagia rheumatica

A

> 40

78
Q

Treatment of polymyalgia rheumatica

A

18-24 month course of prednisolone

  • will need bone prophylaxis
79
Q

Drugs which can cause gout

A 
Cytotoxic drugs (used in chemo)
Ethanol 
Aspirin 
Diuretics 
Cyclosporin antibiotics
80
Q

Which condition commonly has high levels of antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

A

Systemic lupus erythematosis

Drug induced LE
Reumatoid arthritis
Sjorgen’s
Scleroderma

Old age
Chronic inflammation

81
Q

How accurate is antinuclear antibody levels for SLE

A

High sensitivity for SLE

Low specificity for SLE

IF ANA TEST IS NEGATIVE SLE IS EXTREMELY UNLIKELY

82
Q

ANCA stands for

A

Antinuclear cytoplasmic antibodies

83
Q

risen levels of ANCA may indicate

A 
Infection 
Inflammation 
Drugs 
Connective tissue disorders 
Inflammatory bowel disease
84
Q

Secondary anti-phospholipid syndrome

A

Connective tissue disorders - SLE, RA, systemic sclerosis, sjorgen’s
Chronic infection - HIV, hep C, malaria
Drugs - phenytoin, phenothiazines, anti-hypertensives
Lymphoproliferative disease

85
Q

Features of anti-phospholipid syndrome

A
  • vascular thrombosis
  • recurrent fetal loss
  • livedo reticularis
  • thrombocytopenia
86
Q

Functions of complement

A

Phagocyte chemotaxis
Opsonisation
Lysis of micro-organisms
Maintaining solubility of immune complexes

87
Q

Name for a malignant tumour arising from connective tissue

A

Sarcoma

88
Q

How do sarcomas spread

A

Along fascial planes

Haematogenous spread to lungs

89
Q

Are malignant tumours of the skeleton common or rare

A

RARE

90
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

Malignant bone-forming tumour

91
Q

Osteoid osteoma

A

Benign bone-forming tumour

Can be excruciatingly painful but are sensitive to aspirin

92
Q

Endochondroma

A

Benign cartilage forming tumours

93
Q

Chondrosarcoma

A

Malignant cartilage forming tumour

- tend to be very aggressive

94
Q

Fibroma

A

Benign fibrous tissue tumours

95
Q

Malignant fibrous tissue tumours

A

Fibrosarcoma

96
Q

Haemangioma

A

Vascular tissue tumour

97
Q

Malignant vascular tissue tumours

A

Angiosarcoma

98
Q

Benign tissue tumours

A

Lipoma (fatty lumps)

99
Q

Malignant adipose tissue tumour

A

Liposarcoma

100
Q

Marrow tissue tumours

A

Malignant: ewing’s sarcoma, lymphoma, myeloma

101
Q

Tumour like lesions

A

Benign - simple bone cysts and fibrous cortical defect

102
Q

Commonest primary malignant bone tumour in younger patient

A

Osteosarcoma (still very rare)

103
Q

Commonest primary malignant bone tumour in older patient

A

Myeloma

Still very rare

104
Q

Presentation of bone tumours

A

PAIN - activity related if large enough to weaken bone, unexplained, progressive pain at rest and night

Mass
Abnormal x-rays - incidental

105
Q

First line investigation for suspected bone tumour

A

XRAY

106
Q

Red flags regarding pain that may suggest bone tumour

A

Worsening, activity related pain, unexplained pain at rest and at night

107
Q

Xray findings for an inactive bone lesion

A

Clear margins
Surrouding rim of reactive bone
Cortical expansion can occur with aggressive benign lesions

108
Q

Xray findings for aggressive bone lesion

A

Less well defined zone of transition between lesion and normal bone
Cortical destruction = malignancy
Periosteal reactive new bone occurs when lesion destroys the cortex
Codman’s triangle, onion skinning (layering of new bone) or sunburst patterns

109
Q

Best investigation for bone and soft tissue tumours

A

MRI

- accurate for limits of disease both within and outside bone

110
Q

Investigations for bone or soft tissue tumour suspect

A 
Xray 
CT (sarcoma spread to lungs/haematogenous spread)
Bloods 
MRI of lesion 
Bone scan 
CT, chest, abdo and pelvis

BIOPSY (needle core or open)

111
Q

Cardinal features of malignant primary bone tumour

A 
Increasing pain 
Unexplained pain 
Deep-seated boring nature 
Night pain
Difficulty weight bearing 
Deep swelling
112
Q

Clinical features of bone tumour

A

Pain - increasing, analgesics (eventually ineffective), not related to exercise, deep boring ache, worse at night
Loss of function - limp, reduced movement, stiff back
Swelling - diggise in malignancy, near end of long bone, warm over swelling and venous congestion, pressure effects
Pathological fracture - more commonly caused by osteoporosis
Joint effusion
Deformity
Neurovascular effects
Systemic effects of neoplasia

113
Q

Treatment of bone tumours

A

Chemo
Surgery - limb salvage usually possible
Radio

114
Q

Soft tissue tumour features of malignancy

A 
Painless
Deep tumours of any size 
Subcutaneous tumours >5cm 
Fixed, hard or indurated mass
Rapid growth, hard, craggy, non-tender
115
Q

Most common cancers to cause bone metastasis

A 
LUNG 
BREAST!!
PROSTATE 
KIDNEY
THYROID 
GI TRACT
MELANOMA 
--> vertebrae > proximal femur > pelvis > ribs >sternum > skull
116
Q

Imaging of choice for soft tissue tumour

A

MRI

117
Q

Peak age incidence of osteosarcoma

A

10-25 years

118
Q

Peak age incidence for ewing’s sarcoma

A

E10-18

119
Q

Peak incidence for chondrosarcoma

A

45-60 years

120
Q

Treatment of hallux rigidus

A

Activity modification
Shoewear with rigid sole
Analgesia

Surgery - chielectomy to remove dorsal impingement

121
Q

Joint affected by
Claw toe
Hammer toe
Mallet toe

A

Claw - extended MTP, flexed PIP and DIP

Hammer - extended MTP flexed PIP and extended DIP

Mallet - flexed DIP rest neutral

122
Q

Aetiology of lesser toe deformities

A

Imbalance between flexors/extensors

Shoewear

Neurological
Rheumatoid arthritis

123
Q

Symptoms of lesser toe deformities

A

Deformity

Pain from dorsum or plantar side

124
Q

Most common site for morton’s neuroma

A

Middle metatarsophalyngeal joint

125
Q

Where does a dorsal foot ganglia arise from

A

Tendon or joint sheath

126
Q

Symptoms of dorsal foot ganglia

A

Pain from pressure from shoe wear

Pain from underlying problem (arthritis or tendon pathology)

127
Q

Rate of return for dorsal foot ganglia

A

50%

128
Q

Presentation of plantar fasciitis

A

Pain on weight bearing after rest - early morning

Common condition that takes 2 years to resolve

Common in theatre nurses and the overweight

129
Q

Treatment for plantar fasciitis

A

Rest, cross training

Stretching - achilles tendon

Ice

NSAIDs

Orthoses

Weight loss

Corticosteroid

Night splinting

130
Q

If someone presents with ankle arthritis under 50 with no known trauma what should you investigate for

A

Haemochromatosis

131
Q

Presentation of posterior tibial tendon dysfunction

A

Acquired adult flat foot

Stages:

  1. Medial pain, no deformity
  2. Flat foot, flexible deformity
  3. Flat foot, fixed deformity
  4. Flat foot, fixed deformity and ankle involvement
132
Q

Diabetic feet commonly have what feet deformities

A

Ulceration

Charcot foot

133
Q

Aetiology of diabetic foot ulcer

A

Diabetic neuropathy - patient unaware of trauma

Diabetic autonomic neuropathy - lack of swearing/normal sebum production so skin is dry and cracked and more sensitive to minor trauma

Poor vascular supply

Lack of patient education

134
Q

Treatment of diabetic foot ulcer

A 
Prevention!
Modify detriments to healing 
- diabetic control 
- smoking 
- vascular supply 
- external pressure 
- internal pressure (deformity)
- infection 
- nutrition
135
Q

Cause of charcot arthropathy

A

Any cause of neuropathy of which diabetes is most common cause

Historically common with syphilis

? Neurotrauma - lack of proprioception and protective pain sensation
? Neurovascular - abnormal autonomic nervous system results in increased vascular supply and bone resorption

136
Q

Charcot arthropathy is characterised by…

A

Rapid bone destruction

  • fragmentation
  • coalescence
  • remodelling
137
Q

Complications of charcot’s foot

A

Deformity leads to ulceration leads to infection leads to amputation

138
Q

Foot manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Swollen and painful joints due to synovitis and erosions

Tendon or ligament ruptures

Stress fractures

Avascular necrosis of bones

May involve hallux and lesser toes

139
Q

Tarsal tunnel syndrome

A

Pressure on tibial nerve in tarsal tunnel

–> vague symptoms of pain (neuralgic) and altered sensation

140
Q

Treatment of tarsal tunnel syndrome

A

Decompression

141
Q

Effects of peroneal tendon disorders

A

Subluxation or dislocation

Injury or degeneration

142
Q

Most common direction of hip dislocation

A

Posterior

143
Q

Typical position of the leg in a posterior dislocation

A

Holds leg in a flexed, adducted, internally rotated position with some shortening of the leg

144
Q

Most common associated injuries in a posterior hip dislocation due to a head on collision

A

Fractures of patella or femur
Posterior force on the tibia may result in rupture of the posterior cruciate ligament
Posterior wall acetabelar fractures and fractures of the femoral head
Sciatic nerve injury (suspect if patient has weakness of plantarflexion and dorsiflexion with sensory disturbance below the knee

145
Q

Potential problems associated with fracture of a growth plate

A

Premature growth arrest resulting in an angular deformity

Limb length discrepancy may also result

146
Q

Presentation of a hip fracture on examination

A

Leg shortened and externally rotated on examination

147
Q

Complications associated with a hip fracture

A

Non union
Failure of fixation
Avascular necrosis

148
Q

What is the blood supply to the hip

A

Majority is derived from capsular vessels which are formed from the anastomoses of the medial and lateral femoral circumflex vessels - these vessels are branches of the profunda femoris

149
Q

What are the ALTS steps

A

Primary survey - airway, breathing circulation to detect and rectify immediately life-threatening injury (airway obstruction, major thoracic trauma causing serious respiratory compromise and hypovolaemic shock); this will include airway management and fluid resuscitation

Secondary survey - head to toe examination to detect any important but not life-threatening injury

A limited history is obtained from the patient, relatives or paramedical staff

Lateral cervical spine, chest and pelvic radiographs are obtained in all patients

150
Q

Which injuries are associated with haemarthrosis of the knee

A

Tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
Fractures of the tibial plateau or osteochondral fractures of the femoral condyle
Dislocation of the patella
Meniscal tears if there is a peripheral detachment
Rupture of patellar of quadriceps tendon causes a lot of bleeding but there is no contained haemarthrosis because the capsule is disrupted

151
Q

Investigation of choice in a suspected ruptures anterior cruciate ligament

A

MRI

152
Q

Management of ligament injury - ACL

A

Non-operative in the acute setting
ACL tears or ACL and MCL tears often associated with marked swelling and stiffness of the knee in the weeks after injury

Physiotherapy is the initial management to allow time for swelling and stiffness to resolve

Surgical reconstruction once the swelling has resolved

153
Q

Presentation of a posterior shoulder dislocation

A

Shoulder fixed in internal rotation
If the elbow is flexed to 90 it will be apparent that the shoulder is internally rotated and no external rotation is possible

154
Q

What can cause an achilles tendon rupture

A

Dorsiflexing force applied suddenly to the forefoot that is resisted by powerful plantarflexion of the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles

155
Q

What is genu recurvatum

A

When both knees are extended at rest –> hypermobility

156
Q

Empiric antibiotic treatment in a septic arthritis

A

Suspect staph aureus or strep pyogenes so give IV flucloxacillin and benzylpenicillin or amoxicillin for 2 weeks

Then oral antibiotics for 4 weeks

157
Q

What must you consider before starting someone on biologic therapy such as anti-TNF

A

Careful history to rule out current infection; check past history for infection with tuberculosis (do chest Xray at baseline)

Patients should not have a malignancy or have had a malignancy in the previous 10 yrs

Those with MS and heart failure are excluded

158
Q

Antibodies to screen for coeliac disease

A

Anti-endomysial antibodies

159
Q

If suspecting gout what investigation would you do

A

Polarised light microscopy of joint contents - will show negatively birefringent crystals

160
Q

Antibody findings that are suggestive of SLE

A

Anti-nuclear antibodies and antibodies to double stranded DNA

161
Q

Which blood products are associated with increased risk of thrombotic complications

A

Anti-phospholipid antibody and lupus anticoagulant

162
Q

Management of anti-phospholipid syndrome

A

Lifelong anticoagulation - aspirin and heparin should be given throughout all future pregnancies and thereafter given warfarin

163
Q

What is the difference between subluxation and dislocation

A

Subluxation is partial dislocation of the bone from its normal position so that some of the articular surfaces are still in contact

Dislocation is complete dislocation of the bone from its normal position so that the articular surfaces are no longer in contact

164
Q

Which lobe of the lungs is most commonly affected by aspiration pneumonia

A

Right lower lobe

165
Q

Are calf DVTs more or less likely to thrombose to the lungs

A

Less

166
Q

What is the cause of webbing of fingers and toes

A

Failure of programmed cell death

167
Q

What do you call webbing of the fingers

A

Syndactylyl

168
Q

What do you call too many fingers

A

Polydactylyl

169
Q

Which embryonic component is responsible for muscle development

A

Myotome

170
Q

When does the pubic symphysis become mobile

A

Childbirth

171
Q

Which fracture can lead to carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Colles fracture

172
Q

Where is hip pain commonly referred to

A

Groin and knee

Sometimes thigh laterally

173
Q

Main nerve supply to the hip joint

A

Obturator

174
Q

Damage to the sciatic nerve would cause

A

Drop foot

175
Q

Nerve supply to sartorius

A

Femoral

176
Q

What is a locked knee

A

A knee that cannot be fully extended - can flex fully

177
Q

Most common associated problem with juvenille idiopathic arthritis

A

Uveitis

178
Q

What is a bursa

A

Sac lined with synovial membrane, filled with a small amount of synovial fluid that provides cushioning to allow muscles to move over each other

179
Q

Medical term for knock knees; bow legs

A

Genu valgrum

Genu varum

180
Q

Neuropraxia

A

Transient damage to a nerve such as compression, stretching

- have good prognosis

181
Q

Neurotmesis

A

Partial or complete severance of a nerve, with disruption of the axon and its myelin sheath and the connective tissue elements

MSK (12 decks)

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