MQB Flashcards
Main source of inflight electrical power?
Main Gen
How many electrical generators onboard?
2
Below what voltage will the HDFD shutdown?
18V
What is the order of priority of electrical supply to the busbars?
Main Gen, External Power, Aux Gen
Highest electrical load PDMC vs Pitot probes?
Pitot Heaters
What provides AC power?
Generators
Where are the inertia switches located?
In each mainwheel bay
Which of the following are powered from the battery busbar:
- Normal cockpit lights
- DC Starter pump
- Map lights
- ACP
Map lights
Below what voltage is reversion to BUOXY automatic?
20V
When batt switches are ON/FRONT, what is the battery busbar connected to?
Essential Services bus
Power output of main and aux Gens?
Main: 25kVA
Aux: 12kVA
With batt switches off, do the map lights still work?
Yes
Two CWS captions still enabled with external power applied and the LP cock closed:
FIRE and APU FIRE
What powers the CWS
Essential Services bus
Does pushing the attention getter cancel the flashing in the other cockpit?
Yes
Is the tone that precedes “HEIGHT”, “LOW HEIGHT”, “PULL UP” and “ALTITUDE” alerts the same?
No
What does PINS caption indicate?
Pin still in seat with canopy LOCKED (operates independently in each cockpit)
What switches are required to be made to close the LP fuel cock?
At least one LP Cock switch closed, and one Fuel Pump switch off.
With C/Line fitted, what does the TRANS/O’RIDE switch do?
Removes CL EMP indications, ensures pressurisation to fuselage tank maintaned. (Quiz answer D-All of the above)
Why are the tanks pressurised?
Reduce vaporisation, and assist fuel transfer
The C/LINE tank cannot be jettisoned TRUE/FALSE
TRUE i.e. cannot be jettisoned
If the FUEL caption comes on with EITHER flaps or LG down, will it stay on?
Yes i.e. TRUE
With C/LINE fitted & CL showing in the PORT window of EMP, what would a blank STBD window indicate?
C/LINE contents signal failure
FUEL caption time delay?
10sec
If you suspect the FADEC has lost control of the engine, which checklist should be actioned?
Abnormal engine behaviour
Min RPM for a cold windmill relight?
10%
How long should you wait between APU starts?
3 min
How many APU starts are allowed before having the fault investigated?
3
How long are igniters energised for after relight button is pressed?
30sec
EMP data is independent in each cockpit TRUE/FALSE
True
Actions on EMP showing corrupt/frozen data?
Press EMP reset
Will the standby lane of the EEC automatically take control if the dominant lane fails?
Yes
How long should you wait, after setting the throttle to idle during an immediate relight, and before setting the throttle to OFF, for the engine to start?
30sec
Above what Nh RPM will the EMP blank?
120%
If a self-clearing surge is detected, the FADEC will activate the igniters, causing EMP IGN caption to illuminate TRUE/FALSE
True
Does the APU have its own oil system that it’s contents can be checked preflight
Yes
After confirmed APU fire, how long should you wait prior to ejecting?
Eject immediately
What effect does pressing the relight button have on Main Gen if pressed when airborne?
Trips Main gen offline
How can a blocked Hyd filter be detected?
Red-edged telltails through fuselage inspection holes
Below what Nh RPM is Hyd2 automatically offloaded?
42%
What speed is the RAT effective down to?
<105KCAS
What side is Hyd2 routed?
Left
Which hyd system powers aileron/tailplane PFCU’s?
Both Hyd1 and 2
What is the purpose of the Hyd accumulators
Instantaneous supply, pressure damping, emergency supply (quiz answer D-all of the above)
Does the RAT have it’s own accumulator
Yes
What does the RAT caption indicate
RAT has deployed
How many flying control accumulators are there
2
If both Gens are offline, will the yaw damper fail
Yes
What is the recommended approach technique if airbrake has failed in the out position
Shallower than normal Straight-In approach and do NOT flare
Restriction on flap use if airframe icing visible?
Full flap prohibited
What will the airbrake do if it is out when LG is selected down
Auto retract
COMBAT illuminated - does this indicate flap position or selection
Selection only
Which controls are powered by a PFCU?
Ailerons, rudder, tailplane
Trim switch cockpit priority
Rear overrides front
Can the brake control valve be damaged if parking brake is applied at the same time as the toe brakes
Yes
What does the gear CONFIRM button do?
Transmits 1kHz tone confirming gear locked down, on the radios selected on the front ACP
Min wheel speed before Antiskid functions
35kts
Max speed with flaps 1/2
250KCAS
If gear handle light illuminates when batts are switched on, should you continue or U/S
U/S as it could indicate gear is unlocked, or STBY lowering explosive start valves aren’t connected
Tailplane feel proportional to G is provided by an inertia weight in addition to the spring feel unit TRUE/FALSE
True
If OAT 32degC or greater the APU should be left running TRUE/FALSE
True
Does the DEMIST function increase the proportion of air delivered to the canopy demist sprays
Yes
Does the gear need to be selected down for the Aux cooling fan to operate
Yes
How many separate oxygen supplies are there in each cockpit
3
Can the seat penetrate the canopy if the MDC fails
Yes
What does the IFF CODES - SINGLE/TWIN switch do?
Sets the number of seats that need to eject prior to erasing IFF codes
Oxy pressure felt at the mask is constant to 38,000’, then increases linearly with altitude TRUE/FALSE
True
What does an amber BUOXY caption indicate
Backup oxy supply is operating correctly after either a manual or auto selection
Where does the OBOGS supply come from?
Either HP bleed air from the engine, or LP air from the APU
What is the minimum safe ejection height if above 350kts, zero bank and between 5,000 and 10,000’
100’AGL
Actions on seeing a flare from the RCO on a hot pass
Go dry
20deg Auto recovery G and attitude?
5G to 15deg NU
Planned release height for 10deg CCIP?
3,500’
Planned release height for 20deg Auto?
5,300’
Planned release height as #2 in an echelon 20deg Auto?
6,300’
How many BDU’s can be carried in each CBLS?
4
What QNH should be set when on BADR range
Tabuk local
Requirements for “switches safe”
Late arm - Safe
WSR - press
When can Late arm-ARM be selected when on BADR
RCO “cleared hot”, wings level on attack direction, correct target identified (Quiz answer D-all of the above)
Min spacing on BADR?
15sec
Low level mission RADALT setting
180’
Max degrees of turn allowed before terminating a pop attack during the roll in
90deg
If carrying CBLS and operating on RWY06, can the MASS be set to LIVE in front of the sun shelters?
No
10deg Strafe/application bombing pattern altitude?
5,400’
20deg application pattern altitude?
9,600’
Downwind altitude for application pops?
4,000’
Off target HDG for lead post a 20/10 split attack at BADR?
130deg
BADR pop attack ingress speed
440KCAS
Roll in altitude for a 20/10 pop attack on BADR
4,100’
Roll in altitude for a 30/20 pop attack on BADR
7,500’
How is STT commanded when cursor is over a trackfile
Castle in
If ‘radar bumped’, how long is the previously selected entity rejected for?
5sec
What is the HOTAS for dispensing flares only
Throttle dispense switch aft
What is the HOTAS for dispensing chaff only
Throttle dispense switch forward
What is the HOTAS for dispensing both chaff and flare
Throttle dispense switch in
How is radar elevation adjusted?
HOTAS stadiametric ranging control
How are SRM’s selected
HOTAS A/A weapon select down
Alternate airfield visibility requirements?
3k vis OR published minimums +1600m (whichever is higher)
(ETA +/- 1hour)
During intercepts, you may enter the hostile’s block if he is outside 10 nm.
True
Aircrew who have been sick are grounded until cleared by the flight surgeon TRUE/FALSE
True
Minimum crew rest period
12hrs
At low level you must avoid towns and built up areas by ____ or climb to ____ by day or _____ by night.
2nm, 2,000’AGL (MSA at night)
What is the minimum authorized height for solo aerobatics by a trainee?
8,000’AGL
For air combat, the TA is to be a minimum of 5,000’AGL TRUE/FALSE
True
HEFOE of clenched fist followed by 2 fingers?
Electrical malfunction
How is ESA calculated in mountainous terrain?
+2,000’ added to the highest obstacle within 25nm (rounded up to nearest 100’)
Minimum landing fuel?
130kg
Min duration after scuba diving prior to flying
24hrs
Can you fly in thunderstorms
Gee let me think
Under radar control, with 2 way comms, single seat fighters can perform and log SIMULATED instrument time in VMC TRUE/FALSE
True
Can you log ACTUAL instrument time in VMC
No
During IFR operation, a suitable alternate airfield must be available TRUE/FALSE
True
Ceiling of 1,500’, vis 4.5km, are you VFR or IFR
IFR
For an alternate to be suitable, what forecast and actual conditions must exist
Ceiling: 1,000’, or published IAP+500’
Vis: 3000m, or published IAP+1600m
Both: Whichever is higher
Trainee wx minimums to attempt an IAP?
700’ ceiling, 5km vis
Day VFR airfield wx minimums?
1,500’ ceiling
5km vis
Trainee MOA (unless specifically cleared by a syllabus)?
500’ AGL
Moderate bird hazard declared by SOF, and birds observed in the departure lane, formation/solo trainee departures are NOT permitted TRUE/FALSE
True
Total comm failure on IMC departure, should you continue with the SID IAW last issued clearance
Yes
Min Vis/cloud base before TAC/ILS approach is to be carried out?
5km vis
1,500’ AGL
Flying the SID from RWY24 to Area 1, you must turn right at 3’500’ to intercept the 080deg radial TRUE/FALSE
False
Tabuk 100nm MSA
10,000’
Tabuk 25nm MSA
6,000’
Aircraft may operate VFR or IFR in the Tabuk TMA/CTR TRUE/FALSE
True
MSA if operating in Area 1-4
6,300’
LL fuel consumption with DI0 and 420KCAS?
21.8kg/min
What is the optimum AOA for a normal approach?
5deg
Tabuk ILS24 morse ident?
Answer B
OWEJ ILS33 morse ident?
Answer D
NORDO recovery, steady red light on finals: actions?
Give way to traffic and continue circling
Flashing white light from tower after landing: actions?
Return to starting point on airfield
The maximum operating level in areas 1-4 between 1800 and 0600 is restricted to below FL260
True
At night the maximum number of aircraft in the closed pattern is _____ of which _____ may be solo trainer pilots?
4,2
Right intake Nav light colour?
Green
Left intake Nav light colour?
Red
Normal body balancing mechanisms include:
D-all of the above
MAP stands for:
Missed approach point
80% of all information is received through which system/organ?
Visual
Staring at a stationary light for 6-12sec, what effect will visual autokinesis have on it?
It will appear to move
Arcing at 60nm, M0.6, FL200, aiming to intercept the 115deg radial from the north, what is the LR
111deg
Flying 0.7M FL200 on 100deg radial, heading 100deg. What range should you begin your turn onto the 80nm arc?
75nm
Assisted relight max alt?
20,000’
Flaps full, 3/4, or 1/2 G-limits
0 to +2.5G
2ship formation T/O and landing xwind limt
15kts
Assisted relight can be attempted with a speed 165-250kts and <20,000’ TRUE/FALSE
True
Max speed/Mach after HYD1 and HYD2 failure
300KCAS/M0.6
Max number of turns in a intentional spin
4
Max speed and xwind for streaming brakechute
160kts and 25kts xwind
Reduced sink-rate landing above what AUW?
5900kg
RoD <624fpm
Max combined taxi+wind speed for open canopy
40kts
Max airspeed for assisted relight?
250KCAS
Is it mandatory to operate the APU with OAT between 18 and 32degC
No
Prohibited manouvres
Flick/snap, Stall turns, tailslides
If airframe icing visible, landings must be made with 1/2 flap only TRUE/FALSE
True
Entry alt for intentional spins
25,000-30,000k’ AMSL
Max IAS allowed during a spin?
200kts
Min height to initiate recovery from a spin?
15,000’AGL
Airframe IAS limit between 11,000 and 28,000’
500kts
Is intentional spinning permitted with wingtip stores fitted?
No
Max Nh RPM before turning batts off on shutdown
10%
Deliberate inverted spinning is not permitted TRUE/FALSE
True
What captions are illuminated for 10sec following EEC power up?
EEC, SRG, T6NL, (GO)
Can combat flap be used for rolling manouvers during aerobatics?
Yes
Rapid rolling max G for 360deg at 400kts (basic A/C)
+3G
Rapid rolling max G for 180deg at 400kts (AUW between 6200 and 7000kg)
+4.6G
Rapid rolling max G for 180deg at 400kts (AUW>6200kg)
+4.6G
Immediate Relight max altitude?
None
Can you use airbrake after a HYD1 failure?
No
After 3 turns in a spin, speed has increased to 170kts. You should immediately recover TRUE/FALSE
False
Spinning is permitted with a C/L tank fitted, as long as it is empty TRUE/FALSE
True
Flight in icing conditions should be avoided where possible TRUE/FLASE
True..
Where is the GPS FOM located?
Top left of MFDs
Flashing NAV pressed 4 min after turning INU on - what will happen?
System enters NAV mode
HDFD shows AoB up to 60deg, HUD only to 45deg TRUE/FALSE
True
Main aircraft system uses most recent hPa setting, irrespective of whether the input source was baro altimeter or DEP TRUE/FALSE
True
Head-down Baroalt elevation tolerance with QNH set
+-75’
With a valid GPS signal. PP lat/long can be altered before the INU is fully aligned TRUE/FALSE
False
Holding pattern speed/AoB
250KCAS , 30deg AoB
Outbound radial using 30deg AoB at M0.76, what range should a turn be started to capture the 40DME arc?
34.4nm
How can you set both radios to GUARD Rx and Tx
CNI press EMERG so it is red and boxed
In ILS steering, the deviation bar shows localiser deviation regardless of CRS bar setting TRUE/FALSE
True
Instrument T/O FPA at rotate?
5deg NU
VOR stands for..
VHF Omni Directional
