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NHB > Motivation > Flashcards

Motivation Flashcards

1
Q

What is motivation responsible for?

A

Activation and direction of behaviour

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2
Q

Output from which three domains regulates homeostasis?

A
  1. Endocrine
  2. Behavioural
  3. Autonomic
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3
Q

What are the two types of motivation?

A
  1. Incentive motivation - pull

2. Deficit reduction - push

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4
Q

What are the two phases of motivated behaviour?

A
  1. Appetitive

2. Consummatory

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5
Q

What is appetitive behaviour?

A

Animal performs voluntary behaviour to seek out goal

Flexible

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6
Q

What is consummatory behaviour?

A

Animal interacts with goal object

Inflexible

Species-specific

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7
Q

How does decerebration affect motivated behaviour?

A

Loss of appetitive, goal-oriented behaviours

Can still perform simple reflexive responses

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8
Q

What is decerebration?

A

Cutting above midbrain to remove influence of forebrain

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9
Q

What is responsible for coordination of appetitive and consummatory behaviours?

A

Neural activity in forebrain

Activity in hypothalamus and amygdala

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10
Q

Where is the hypothalamus located?

A

Below and rostral to the thalamus

Bordered rostrally by optic chiasm and caudally by mammillary bodies

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11
Q

What does the hypothalamus receive inputs from?

A
  1. Neural inputs from brainstem
  2. Neural inputs from forebrain
  3. Neurons responsive to hormones
  4. Neurons responsive to temperature and osmolarity
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12
Q

What is the role of somatic afferents to the hypothalamus from the brainstem?

A

Neuroendocrine reflexes

eg. milk ejection and stereotypic behaviour (sex)

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13
Q

What is the role of visceral afferents to the hypothalamus from the brainstem?

A

From nucleus of solitary tract and reticular formation

Convey gustatory and olfactory information

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14
Q

What is the role of neural inputs to the hypothalamus from the forebrain?

A

Afferents from the amygdala and orbitofrontal cortex carry information about the motivational significance of external stimuli

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15
Q

What hormones is the hypothalamus sensitive to?

A

Steroid hormones

Many regions are rich in steroid hormone receptors

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16
Q

Where are cells sensitive to temperature found in the hypothalamus?

A

Preoptic area

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17
Q

Where are cells sensitive to osmolarity found in the hypothalamus?

A

OVLT

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18
Q

What are the features of hypothalamic capillaries?

A

Fenestrated capillaries

Open to entry of large molecules from blood into brain

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19
Q

How does the hypothalamus control endocrine output?

A
  1. Directly via neural signal to posterior pituitary

2. Indirectly via hormones secreted into portal plexus to anterior pituitary

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20
Q

Where is the pituitary portal plexus?

A

Median eminence

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21
Q

How does the hypothalamus control behavioural output?

A

Controls simple stereotyped behaviours via brainstem reflexes

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22
Q

Give some examples of stereotyped behaviours

A
  1. Shivering
  2. Gnawing
  3. Mounting
  4. Biting
  5. Drinking
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23
Q

What are the two coordinating centres for the autonomic system?

A
  1. Hypothalamus

2. Nucleus of the solitary tract

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24
Q

What does the NTS act on?

A
  1. Other brainstem nuclei

2. Neurons in spinal cord

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25
Q

What brain structures do elaborate homeostatic adjustments involve?

A

Reciprocal connections between NST and higher structures such as amygdala and paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus

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26
Q

What behaviour does cooling of the preoptic area of the hypothalamus elicit?

A

Reflexive shivering

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27
Q

What behaviour does warming of the preoptic area of the hypothalamus elicit?

A

Panting

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28
Q

What is the result of lesions to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus?

A

Impaired thermoregulatory behaviour in response to changes in ambient temperature

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29
Q

Where is the feeding centre in the brain?

A

Lateral hypothalamus

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30
Q

What is aphagia?

A

Loss of eating

Result of lesion to lateral hypothalamus

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31
Q

Where is the satiety centre in the brain?

A

Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus

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32
Q

What is the result of lesions to the ventromedial hypothalamus?

A

Over-eating

Obesity

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33
Q

What is the medial forebrain bundle?

A

Passes through lateral hypothalamus

Contains monoamine axons important for motivation

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34
Q

What is the role of the medial preoptic area?

A

Contains lots of steroid receptors for oestrogen/progesterone and testosterone

Important for copulatory behaviour

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35
Q

What is the result of lesion to the medial preoptic area in male rats?

A

Loss of copulatory behaviour

Cannot mount or intromit

Still show intense excitement in the presence of a female in heat

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36
Q

What environmental cues initiate feeding?

A
  1. Sensory stimulation due to food

2. Conditioned stimuli associated with food

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37
Q

What physiological cues initiate feeding?

A
  1. Declining levels of blood glucose and fatty acids
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38
Q

What are the short-term satiety mechanisms?

A
  1. Feedback from smelling, tasting and swallowing food
  2. Distension of stomach following ingestion
  3. Humoral factors released from duodenum act on pyloric receptors, eg. CCK
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39
Q

What is cholecystokinin (CCK)?

A

Hormone released by duodenum

Acts on pyloric receptors

Signal transmitted to brainstem, via vagus, to reduce feeding

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40
Q

What are the long-term satiety mechanisms?

A
  1. Signals arising from nutrient reservoirs, eg. leptin
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41
Q

What is leptin?

A

Peptide hormone secreted from adipose tissue

  1. Increases metabolic rate and decreases food intake
  2. Increases brain sensitivity to short-term satiety signals, eg. CCK
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42
Q

What are the two key neuropeptides involved in stimulating eating?

A
  1. Melanin-concentrating hormone (MCH)
  2. Orexin

In lateral hypothalamus

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43
Q

How are MCH and orexin activated?

A

Neuropeptide Y (NPY) secreting neurons in the arcuate nucleus

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44
Q

What is the effect of leptin on NPY neurons?

A

Inhibits NPY neuronal activity

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45
Q

What is the effect of ghrelin?

A

Activates NPY neurons directly

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46
Q

What is the effect of NPY release on the lateral hypothalamus?

A
  1. Voracious eating
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47
Q

What is the effect of NPY release on the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus?

A
  1. Decrease in metabolic rate

2. Decrease in insulin

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48
Q

What is the result of decreased MCH neuronal activity?

A
  1. Decreased feeding

2. Increase in metabolic activity

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49
Q

What is the effect of lesion to the ventromedial hypothalamus in female rats?

A
  1. Impaired sexual behaviours

2. Loss of lordosis and solicitation

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50
Q

What causes loss of male sexual behaviour?

A
  1. Lesion to medial preoptic area

2. Castration

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51
Q

What causes loss of female sexual behaviour?

A
  1. Lesion to ventromedial hypothalamus

2. Ovariectomy

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52
Q

Where are androgen receptors concentrated in the hypothalamus?

A

Medial preoptic area

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53
Q

Where are oestrogen and progesterone receptors concentrated in the hypothalamus?

A

Ventromedial hypothalamus

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54
Q

What kind of motivational responses survive hypothalamic lesions?

A

Incentive motivational responses

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55
Q

Where is the amygdala?

A

Anterior temporal lobe

Rostral to hippocampus

In end wall of inferior horn of lateral ventricle

Adjacent to olfactory cortex

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56
Q

What are the three basic subdivisions of the amygdala?

A
  1. Cortico-medial division
  2. Central nucleus
  3. Baso-lateral amygdala
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57
Q

What are the two principle efferent pathways of the amygdala?

A
  1. Ventral amygdalofugal pathway

2. Stria terminalis

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58
Q

What is the ventral amygdalofugal pathway?

A

Diffuse pathway

Courses directly across temporal stem

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59
Q

What is the stria terminalis?

A

Fibre bundle running around lateral ventricle in groove between caudate tail and thalamus

60
Q

What is the cortico-medial division of the amygdala?

A
  1. Receives olfactory information

2. Route via which pheromones come to elicit social and sexual behaviour

61
Q

What are pheromones?

A

Secretions from urogenital tract

Important cues in non-human animals

62
Q

What is the sexual nucleus of the amygdala?

A

Controls autonomic nervous system, endocrine system and simple motor reflexes

Afferents from solitary tract

Efferents to hypothalamus and brainstem

63
Q

What is the basolateral amygdala?

A

Receives input from higher order sensory regions

Projects to regions involved in planning and action in prefrontal cortex and ventral striatum

Responds to conditioned stimuli

64
Q

What is the effect of amygdala lesions on male sexual behaviour?

A

Loss of appetitive behaviour

Maintained copulatory behaviour

Can still mount and intromit but will no longer press lever to obtain light associated with female reward

65
Q

What is the effect of steroid hormones on the amygdala?

A

Promote appetitive behaviours

66
Q

What is the role of the amygdala in feeding?

A

Appetitive behaviour elicited by food cues

67
Q

How does the amygdala control voluntary action?

A
  1. Major output to ventral striatum

2. Ventral striatum receives specific dopaminergic input from A10 neurons in ventral tegmental area

68
Q

Where is the ventral tegmental area?

A

Midbrain

Adjacent to substantia nigra (A9)

69
Q

What is the effect of lesions of dopamine projections with 6-hydroxydopamine (6-OHDA)

A
  1. Profound depletions of dopamine in striatum
  2. Aphagia
  3. Adipsia
  4. Akinesia
70
Q

What is the nigrostriatal DA system?

A

Dopamine neurons in substantia nigra that project to the dorsal striatum

71
Q

What is the role of the nigrostriatal DA system?

A
  1. Activation of motor responses

2. Sensory-motor integration

72
Q

What kind of motivational behaviour is the dorsal striatum involved in?

A

Consummatory behaviour

73
Q

What kind of motivational behaviour is the ventral striatum involved in?

A

Appetitive behaviour

Incentive motivation

74
Q

What causes dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens?

A

Presence of primary rewards

Stimuli associated with primary rewards

75
Q

What are some examples of appetitive behaviours in anticipation of primary reward?

A
  1. Investigative behaviour

2. Locomotor activity

76
Q

How might hunger alter incentive motivational processes?

A

Orexin neurons activated in the hungry state send projections to the nucleus accumbens

77
Q

What is the mesolimbic pathway?

A

Dopamine projections to ventral striatum

78
Q

What is the brainstem reticular core continuous with?

A

Intermediate grey of spinal cord caudally

Lateral hypothalamus and subthalamic regions rostrally

79
Q

Where is the reticular core located?

A

Medially in the brainstem

80
Q

What is the reticular core compose of?

A

Loosely aggregated cells of different types and sizes intermingled with fibres of different orientations

81
Q

What are the two main categories of function of the reticular formation?

A
  1. Integration of basic stereotyped patterns of responding

2. Regulation of level of activity of brain

82
Q

What are some basic, stereotyped patterns of responding?

A

Pattern generation for:

  1. Posture and locomotion
  2. Swallowing
  3. Chewing
  4. Vomiting
  5. Sneezing

Regulation of respiratory cycle and cardiovascular control

83
Q

What is the ascending activating system?

A

Subserves sleep and wakefulness

Optimises processing of sensory stimuli

Attention

84
Q

What is in the isodendritic core?

A
  1. Reticular neurons
  2. Cholinergic neurons of basal forebrain
  3. Histaminergic neurons of posterior hypothalamus
85
Q

Where do reticular formation neurons project to?

A
  1. Cortex via medial forebrain bundle

2. Intralaminar nuclei of thalamus

86
Q

Where do the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus project?

A
  1. Cortex

2. Striatum

87
Q

What are the populations of neurons of the reticular formation?

A
  1. Dopamine
  2. Noradrenaline
  3. Serotonin
  4. Acetylcholine
88
Q

What does noradrenaline play a role in?

A

Attention and orienting

89
Q

What is the nucleus that releases noradrenaline?

A

Locus coeruleus

90
Q

What is the effect of activation of the locus coeruleus?

A

Increase in signal-to-noise ratio

Enhances inhibitory effect of meaningless stimulus

Increases excitatory effect of meaningful stimulus on hippocampal neurons

91
Q

When are locus coeruleus neurons maximally activated?

A

Times of stress

NA released in cortical terminal fields

92
Q

What are the serotonin systems involved in?

A

Behavioural inhibition, particularly in aversive situations

93
Q

What conditions are linked to reduced forebrain 5HT?

A
  1. OCD

2. Impulsive behaviour

94
Q

What disorders are treated with drugs that increase 5HT levels?

A
  1. Anxiety

2. Depression

95
Q

What is the function of forebrain cholinergic neurons?

A

Learning and memory

96
Q

What is the result of degeneration of forebrain cholinergic neurons?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

97
Q

How is sleep defined?

A

Normal suspension of consciousness

Specific pattern of electrical brain activity

98
Q

What is the circadian rhythm?

A

Daily cycle that patterns wakefulness and sleep in accordance with light levels

Generated by suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus

99
Q

How does EEG measure brain activity?

A

Measures electrical activity through surface scalp electrodes

Represents summed activity of many cortical cells

100
Q

What is the form of most of the activity contributing to the EEG?

A

Slow membrane potentials

EPSPs and IPSPs

101
Q

What are the two characteristic EEG patterns during the day?

A
  1. Beta activity

2. Alpha activity

102
Q

What is beta activity?

A

High frequency (15-60Hz)

Low amplitude

When eyes are open

Signals active cortex

Also in REM sleep

103
Q

What is alpha activity?

A

Lower frequency (8-13Hz)

Quiet resting states

104
Q

What are the five stages of sleep?

A

Stages 1-4 and REM

105
Q

What is stage 1 sleep?

A

Drowsy period

Theta waves

106
Q

What are theta waves?

A

Stage 1 sleep

Decreasing frequency (4-8Hz)

Increasing amplitude

107
Q

What is stage 2 sleep?

A

Light sleep

Further decreases in frequency

Intermittent high frequency spike clusters or spindles

108
Q

What stage sleep is associated with K complex?

A

Stage 2

109
Q

What is stage 3 sleep?

A

Moderate to deep sleep

Delta rhythms

110
Q

What stage sleep is associated with delta rhythms?

A

Stage 3 and 4

111
Q

What is stage 4 sleep?

A

Deepest sleep

Delta waves

112
Q

What are delta waves?

A

Lowest frequency

Highest amplitude

113
Q

What is REM sleep?

A

Rapid eye movement sleep

EEG looks like awake state

Beta rhythms

114
Q

What physiological changes are seen in non-REM sleep?

A

Decreases in:

  1. Muscle tone
  2. Heart rate
  3. Respiratory rate
  4. Blood pressure
  5. Metabolic rate
115
Q

What physiological changes are seen in REM sleep?

A

Increases in:

  1. Heart rate
  2. Blood pressure
  3. Metabolic rate
  4. Rapid rolling eye movements
  5. Paralysis of long muscles
116
Q

Which brain structures are more active during REM sleep than the awake state?

A
  1. Extrastriate cortex

2. Certain limbic structures

117
Q

Which brain structures are less active during REM sleep than the awake state?

A
  1. Prefrontal cortex

2. Primary visual cortex

118
Q

What are the functions of sleep?

A
  1. Restoration of mental and bodily functions
  2. Brain development in children
  3. Memory consolidation
119
Q

What are the two major contributors to control of the sleep-wake cycle?

A
  1. Thalamus

2. Brainstem modulatory neurotransmitter systems

120
Q

Which cholinergic neurons lead to wakefulness?

A

Pedunculopontine neurons in brainstem

121
Q

What kind of stimulation leads to slow wave sleep?

A

Low frequency stimulation of thalamus

122
Q

What underlies the transition from the non-REM state to the waking state?

A

Shift from intrinsic burst-firing to single-spike in cells of thalamus and cortex due to ACh and NA

123
Q

How does the thalamus synchronise with the cortex?

A

Intrinsic burst firing or intrinsic oscillatory mode

Disconnects cortex from outside world

124
Q

When is cortex disconnection maximal?

A

Delta wave sleep

125
Q

How does neurotransmitter activity change during non-REM sleep?

A

Activity of ACh, NA and 5HT decreases

126
Q

How does neurotransmitter activity change during REM sleep?

A

5HT and NA decrease activity even further than in non-REM sleep

Pedunculopontine cholinergic neurons become active

5HT and NA increase again just before offset of REM

127
Q

What is the FLIP-FLOP model for sleep/wakefulness?

A

Mutual inhibition between sleep and waking states

128
Q

Which area of the brain is important for switching between sleep and wakefulness?

A

Ventrolateral preoptic area of hypothalamus

Sleep-promoting region

129
Q

What does the VLPA reciprocally inhibit?

A

Ascending activating system

130
Q

What causes insomnia in the short-term?

A
  1. Stress
  2. Caffeine
  3. Jet-lag
131
Q

What causes serious insomnia?

A

Psychiatric disorders

132
Q

What is narcolepsy?

A

Frequent REM attacks during the day

Possible cataplexy

133
Q

What is cataplexy?

A

Temporary loss of muscle control

134
Q

What may cause narcolepsy in dogs?

A

Mutation in orexin receptor 2 gene

Absence of receptor leads to more frequent switching between waking and sleep

135
Q

What is another name for orexins?

A

Hypocretins

136
Q

When are orexin neurons most active?

A

Wakefulness

Especially during locomotor exploration

137
Q

Where do orexin neurons project to?

A

Excitatory projections to reticular modulatory systems

138
Q

What is the role of orexin neurons?

A

Increase activity in arousal pathways

Tip balance of flip-flop switch towards waking state

139
Q

What is the principle clock in humans?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

140
Q

Where is the suprachiasmatic nucleus?

A

Anterior hypothalamus

Lies above optic chiasm on each side of third ventricle

141
Q

How does the SCN receives its light information?

A

Directly from the retina via retinohypothalamic tract

142
Q

What is melanopsin?

A

Visual pigment in a subset of retinal ganglion cells

Particularly sensitive to blue wavelength light

These ganglions send their axons to SCN

143
Q

What structures does the SCN connect to?

A
  1. Dorsomedial nucleus
  2. Midline thalamus
  3. Bed nucleus of stria terminalis
144
Q

How does the SCN control circadian rhythmicity?

A

Regulation of VLPA via DMN

145
Q

What conditions are associated with sleep disorders?

A
  1. Depression
  2. Anxiety
  3. Huntington’s
  4. Alzheimer’s

NHB (17 decks)

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