Mosby CLIs Flashcards

1
Q

Indications for Urine Glucose Test

A

Part of routine urinalysis, can also monitor effectiveness of therapy for diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are other tests that can confirm a suspected diagnosis w/ a positive urine glucose test

A

Fasting glucose, glucose tolerance, glycosylated hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What normally filters glucose from the blood

A

Glomeruli of the kidney, reabsorbed in proximal renal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the renal threshold to reabsorb the glucose

A

180 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Associated w/ transport defects in the proximal renal tubules causing lgucosuria - genetic defect that can also affect the metabolism and excretion of amino acids and electrolytes

A

Fanconi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Indication for Nerve conduction study

A

To identify peripheral nerve injury in patients w/ localized or diffuse weakness, muscle atrophy, dysethesia, paresthesia, and neurogenic pain

Can document severity of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is the electrical impulse of a nerve conduction study placed to evaluate motor nerves? Sensory nerves?

A

Motor: proximal
Sensory: distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What study is done in conjunction w/ a Nerve Conduction Study

A

EMG - electromyoneurography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is normal conduction velocity for upper extremities? Lower extremities?

A

UE: 50-60
LE: 40-50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What could a slower conduction velocity be indicative of? Faster conduction? No conduction?

A

Slower: trauma, contusion, neuropathies

Faster: pathologic condition not indicated

None: complete nerve transection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is muscular factor evaluated in a nerve conduction study?

A

Measuring distal latency (time required for stimulation of nerve to cause muscular contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Equation for nerve conduction study

A

Conduction velocity = Distance/(Total-Distal Latency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vitamin B1

A

Thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vitamin B2

A

Riboflavin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vitamin B3

A

Niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vitamin B4

A

Pantothenic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vitamin B6

A

Pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vitamin B7

A

Biotin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vitamin B9

A

Folate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vitamin B12

A

Cyanocobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vitamin C

A

Ascorbic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Vitamin A

A

Retinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vitamin D

A

25-Hydroxy vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Vitamin E

A

Alpha-tocopherol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vitamin K1

A

Aqua-Mephyton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Indication for Vitamin B12 testing

A

Identify cause of megaloblastic anemia, used in evaluation of malnourished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Vitamin B12 is necessary for conversion of inactive form of ___ to active form

This is necessary for formation of ___ and for synthesis of ___ and ____

A

folate

RBCs

Nucleic acids, amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How many months of Vitamin B12 depletion are needed before anemia occurs

A

6-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the main sources of Vitamin B12

A

Meat, eggs, dairy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is necessary for B12 absorbtion

A

Intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Top cause of vitamin B12 defiency? Next most common cause? Third most common?

A

Intrinsic factor deficiency

Lack of gastric acid

Malabsoption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does serum B12 measure?

A

Recent B12 ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a better measure of prolonged B12 defiency?

A

urinary methylmalonic acid (MMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The active form of B12 is essential in the itnracellular conversion of ___ to ___

A

L-methylmalonyl coenzyme A (MMA CoA)

Succincyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

W/o B12, MMA CoA is metabolized to ____ which is excreted by ____

A

MMA

Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Critical Values of Magnesium

A

9 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is magnesium found in the body?

A

Most intracellularly, about half in bone, most bound to ATP and is important in phosphorylation of ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

___, ____, and ___ synthesis depend on Magnesium

A

Carbohydrate, protein, nucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Low magnesium may increase cardiac ___ and aggravate cardiac ____

A

irritability, arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hypermagnesmia retards

A

neuromuscular conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is cardiac conduction slowing visible in magnesium excess

A

Widened PR and QT intervals, wide QRS

Diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which 3 positively charged elements are used intracelllularly

A

Potassium, Magnesium, Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

magnesium increases the intestinal absorption of

A

calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Alcohol abuse increases ____ in the urine

A

magnesium loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Moderate hypomagnesmia occurs w/ ___,___,___, and ___ or __ in pregnancy

A

diabetes, hypoparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hyperaldosteronism

toxemia

46
Q

What are increased magnesium levels most commonly associated w/

A

ingestion of magnesium-containing antacids

or chronic renal disease

47
Q

Lysis of RBCs results in

A

Falsely high quantities of magnesium into the blood

48
Q

Increased Magnesium caused by

A

renal insufficiency, Addison disease, Ingestion of antacids or salts, hypothyroidism

49
Q

Decreased Magnesium caused by

A

Malnutrition, malabsorption, hypoparathyroidism, alcholism, chronic renal tubular disease, diabetic acidosis

50
Q

Indication of GH testing

A

Used to indentify GH deficiency in adolescents w/ short stature, delayed sexual maturity

gigantism or acromegaly

51
Q

Stimulates GH release from pituitary

A

Hypothalamus secretes growth hormone-releasing hormone

52
Q

What is the most commonly tested somatomedin

A

somatomedin C

53
Q

Where is somatomedin C produced and what does it effect

A

liver

cartilage

54
Q

High levels of somatomedins stimulate the production of

A

somatostatin from the hypothalamus

55
Q

When is GH secreted

A

sleep, exercise, ingestion of protein, response to hypoglycemia

56
Q

In total absence of GH, linear growth occurs at ___ of normal rate

A

1/2 to 1/3 of normal rate

57
Q

Why are random assays for GH not adequate determinates of GH deficiency/excess

A

GH secretion is episodic

Should be drawn 60-90 minutes after deep sleep or 30 minutes after exercise

58
Q

Why is IGF not helpful in suspected GH deficiency

A

Levels are affected by nurtirional status, liver and thyroid function, and age

59
Q

What test is used in suspected GH deficiency

A

GH stimulation test

60
Q

What test is used to identify gigantism or acromegaly

A

Growth hormone suppression test - oral glucose tolerance test

61
Q

Indications for Somatomedin (IGF-1)

A

Used to identify patients w/ growth hormon deficiency, pituitary insufficiency, and acromegaly

62
Q

How do somatomedins and GH differ

A

do not vary by time of day, food intake, or exercise because they are bound to proteins and are durable or long-lasting

63
Q

What are some nonpituitary causes of reduced IGF-1 levels

A

malnutrition, severe chronic illnesses, sever liver disease, hypothyroidism, renal failure, IBS, Laron dwarfism

64
Q

Is less age dependent and is more accurate w/ 97% specificity and sensitivity

A

IGF BP3

65
Q

Why is thyroxine tested in patients w/ short stature?

A

Rule out hypothyroidism

66
Q

Why is somatomedin C, GH, and GH stimulation tested in patients w/ short stature?

A

Rule out GH deficiency

67
Q

Why are xray films of wrists tested in patients w/ short stature

A

To Document growth retardation

68
Q

Why is calcium tested in patients w/ short stature?

A

Rule out pseudohypoparathyroidism

69
Q

Why is phosphate tested in patients w/ short stature

A

rule out rickets

70
Q

Why is bicarb tested in patients w/ short stature

A

rule our renal tubular acidosis

71
Q

Why is BUN tested in patients w/ short stature

A

rule our renal failure

72
Q

Why is BC tested in patients w/ short stature

A

Rule out anemia or nutrition/chronic disorders

73
Q

Why is sedimentation rate tested in pt. w/ short stature

A

rule out IBS

74
Q

Why is chromosomal karyotype tested in patients w/ short stature

A

Rule out chromosomal abnormalities

75
Q

Indication for glycosylated hemoglobin test

A

used to diagnose and monitor diabetes treatment, measures amount of HbA1c in blood and provides a long term index of patient’s average blood glucose levels

76
Q

98% of hemoglobin in RBC is in what form

A

Hemoglobin A, 7% of this is HbA1

77
Q

What are the 3 components of HbA1

A

A1a, A1b, A1c

78
Q

Which component of HbA1 binds w/ glucose and is the most accurate measurement of glycosylated hemoglobin

A

A1c

79
Q

Benefit of Glycosylated hemoglobin testing? Negative of testing?

A

Can be drawn regardless of recent meal

Doesn’t reflect acute changes in glucose usage

80
Q

What provides a more recent measurment of glucose levels aside from glycosylated hemoglobin testing

A

Glycated protein or fructosamine testing (shorter half-lives)

81
Q

What are the two tests to confirm diabetes mellitus

but what does Diabetes federation say can be used instead?

A

fasting blood glucose and GTT

2 abnormal GHb assays

82
Q

GHb levels can be correated w/

A

mean plasma glucose levels via

MPG = (35.6*GHb) - 77.3

83
Q

Correlation between GHb and MPG if A1c is below 6% and MPG is below 135

A

Nondiabetic range

84
Q

Correlation between GHb and MPG if A1c is 8% and MPG is 205

A

action suggested

85
Q

Indication for glucose tolerance test

A

used to assist in diagnosis of diabetes mellitus

86
Q

How will a patient w/ diabetes react to oral glucose test

A

serum glucose levels will be greatly elevated for 1-5 hours post administration, glucose may be present in urine

87
Q
What are the levels of glucose needed to diagnose Gestational diabetes at the following times: (2 or more)
fasting
1 hour
2 hour
3 hour
A

105
190
165
145

88
Q

O’ Sullivan’s test

A

pregnant women tested between 24-28 weeks w/ 50g dose of glucose

89
Q

Indications for Postprandial glucose test

A

measurement of glucose in patients blood 2 hoours after a meal is ingested - used to diagnose diabetes mellitus

90
Q

What range of results from a PPG test are indicative of PPG

A

greater than 200

91
Q

Critical levels of Glucose M/F

A

M: 450
F: 450

92
Q

What two substances control glucose levels

A

insulin and glucagon

93
Q

Where is glucagon produced

A

alpha cells of pancreatic islets of Langerhans

94
Q

Indications for blood cortisol test

A

measure of serum cortisol - performed in pt. w/ suspected hyper/hypo functioning adrenal glands

95
Q

Corticotropin-releasing hormone is made in ____ and stimulates ___ production in the ____

A

hypothalamus
ACTH
Anterior pituitary gland

96
Q

ACTH stimulates the ____ to produce cortisol which has a negative feedback on ___ and ___

A

adrenal glands

CRH and ACTH

97
Q

When are cortisol levels highest? lowest?

A

6-8am
midnight

DIURINAL Variation

98
Q

What are high levels of cortisol indicative of? Low levels?

A

cushing syndrome

addison syndrome

99
Q

Indication for complement assay

A

to diagnose hereditary deficiencies of complement peptides and monitor activity of infectious or autoimmune diseases

100
Q

What is the main function of total complement

A

increase vascular permeability

101
Q

The absence of early components C1-C4 has what effect?

A

inability of complement immune complexes to activate the cascade - unable to clear immune complexes

102
Q

Absence of late componets C5-9 has what effect?

A

Inability to form MAC - increased susceptibility to infections w/ encapsulated microorganisms

103
Q

What is the most common inherited complement deficiency

A

C2

104
Q

What usually causes acquired complement deficiencies

A

Ongoing inflammatory/infectious diseases

105
Q

Why do complement assays need to be frozen immediately

A

C3 is very unstable at room temp

106
Q

Indication for AChR test

A

diagnose acquired myasthenia gravis and to monitor patient response to immunosuppressive therapy

107
Q

Disease in which antibodies block/destroy receptors for ACh leading to muscle weakness and fatigue

A

myasthenia gravis

108
Q

The AChR binding antibody can activate compliment which leads to

A

loss of AChR

109
Q

AChR modulating antibody causes

A

receptor endocytosis resulting in loss of AChR expression

110
Q

What is the most commonly used method for detection of AChR antibodies

A

Quantitative Radioimmunoassay/Semi-Quantitative Radioreceptor Assay

111
Q

Anti-Striated Muscle antibody titers greater than 1:80 indicative of

A

myasthenia gravis

can be found in rheumatic fever, MI, post-cardiotomy states