Module6 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the movement of the arm when a patient brings the wrist up to the same shoulder?

A. Pronation
This is the act of turning the palm down.

B. Extension
This refers to an increase in the angle between two bones.

C. Supination
This is the act of turning the palm up.

D. Flexion
This refers to a decrease in the angle between two bones.

E. Rotation
This refers to circular movement around an axis.

A

D. Flexion

This refers to a decrease in the angle between two bones.

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2
Q

Which of the following best describes information gained as a result of the physician-patient relationship?

A. Informed consent
This is a type of consent obtained after the patient has been given information on his condition, treatment options, and anticipated outcomes.

B. Professional liability
This refers to the legal and ethical responsibility of a physician for actions within the scope of medical practice.

C. Respondeat superior
This is a doctrine that states the physician is responsible for a medical assistant working under his/her direction or supervision.

D. Res ipsa loquitur
This is a legal term meaning “the thing speaks for itself” in negligent actions.

E. Confidential communication
This is information gained by the physician from patients and legally protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule.

A

E. Confidential communication

This is information gained by the physician from patients and legally protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule.

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3
Q

A popliteal area keloid describes which of the following conditions?

A. Wart on the plantar surface of the foot
This would be a growth on the bottom of the foot.

B. Mole on the back of the ankle
This would be a skin lesion of the calcaneus area.

C. Scar tissue on the back of the knee
Keloid is scar and popliteal refers to the area in back of the knee.

D. Mass on the shoulder
This would be a lump or swelling of the scapula area.

E. Polyp on the lower back
This would be a protrusion or abnormal growth in the lumbar area.

A

C. Scar tissue on the back of the knee

Keloid is scar and popliteal refers to the area in back of the knee.

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4
Q

Which of the following is a physician who specializes in the treatment of patients with carpal tunnel syndrome?

A. Orthopedist
An orthopedist is a physician who treats patients with disorders of the bones and joints with medical and surgical procedures.

B. Nephrologist
A nephrologist is a physician who specializes in the treatment of patients with disorders of the kidney.

C. Neurologist
A neurologist is a physician who specializes in treating diseases of the nervous system. The nervous system comprises the central and peripheral nervous system.

D. Pulmonologist
A pulmonologist is a physician who specializes in the treatment of patients with disorders of the lung.

E. Ophthalmologist
An ophthalmologist is a physician who specializes in the treatment of patients with disorders of the eye.

A

A. Orthopedist
An orthopedist is a physician who treats patients with disorders of the bones and joints with medical and surgical procedures.

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5
Q

Which of the following is an electrolyte that has an important influence on the muscle activity of the heart?

A. Chloride
This is a salt of hydrochloric acid and is needed to keep the proper balance of body fluids. It is an essential part of digestive stomach enzymes.

B. Potassium
This is the major element of intracellular fluid. Elevated or decreased blood potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmia.

C. Acid phosphatase
This is an enzyme elevated in prostate tissue.

D. Amylase
This is an enzyme that digests starches.

E. Phosphorus
This is a chemical element important in bone metabolism.

A

B. Potassium
This is the major element of intracellular fluid. Elevated or decreased blood potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmia.

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6
Q

After examining a competent adult patient who was bitten by a wild animal, the physician advises the patient to have a series of rabies injections. The patient refuses to undergo the injections and leaves the office. Which of the following actions should be taken by the practice?

A. Notify the police.
This is not a legal issue.

B. Send a certified letter to the patient outlining the consequences.
The physician has an obligation to notify the patient of the potential danger to his health in this situation.

C. Notify the local medical society.
The local medical society would have not involvement in this situation.

D. Send a certified letter to the patient’s family with a copy to the patient.
If the patient is a competent adult, then family need not be notified.

E. Notify the physician’s malpractice insurance carrier.
This is not a liability issue as long as the patient receives timely and proper notification from the physician.

A

B. Send a certified letter to the patient outlining the consequences.
The physician has an obligation to notify the patient of the potential danger to his health in this situation.

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7
Q

Which of the following indicates the appropriate time to send the initial report for a workers’ compensation case?

A. Immediately after the first visit
It is important to file the claim as soon as an examination has been done, so that benefits are not delayed.

B. Upon request of the insurance carrier
The insurance carrier would not be aware there was a claim unless there has been an initial report submitted.

C. Upon request of the patient
If the patient states the case is a work related illness or injury, a Worker’s Compensation report must be made, whether or not the patient requests it.

D. At the time the patient is discharged
The patient may not be discharged for an extensive amount of time. The patient’s payments, as well as the physician’s payments, would be significantly delayed.

E. After establishment of the diagnosis
It may take further testing or further visits to determine the diagnosis. The initial report must be sent right away.

A

A. Immediately after the first visit

It is important to file the claim as soon as an examination has been done, so that benefits are not delayed.

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8
Q

Which of the following conditions is consistent with a bacteriuria and pyuria in a clean-catch urine specimen?

A. A kidney stone
Typically a kidney stone will cause red blood cells to be seen in the urine.

B. Renal tubular degradation
In this condition, renal epithelial cells are often seen in the urine.

C. A urinary tract infection
The immune system responds to bacteria by secreting white blood cells into the area.

D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
This condition would most likely result in glucose and ketones being present in the urine specimen.

E. Renal cell carcinoma
This is a malignant process and is not suggested by the increased presence of bacteria and white blood cells in the urine.

A

C. A urinary tract infection

The immune system responds to bacteria by secreting white blood cells into the area.

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9
Q

Which of the following is a laboratory test that can be used to measure the inflammatory response in the body?

A. C-reactive protein (CRP)
The C-reactive protein (CRP) is a blood test for inflammation in conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis. The high sensitive C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) is used as a measurement for inflammation as a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

 B. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is an enzyme elevated in the blood of patients with bone or liver disease.

C. Hematocrit (HCT)
Hematocrit (HCT) testing is used as a test for anemia. The hematocrit is a measurement of the percentage of RBCs in a volume of whole blood.

 D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is an enzyme that may be elevated in the blood stream of patients with heart or liver damage/disease.

E. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is a hormone present in the blood and urine of pregnant women.

A

A. C-reactive protein (CRP)
The C-reactive protein (CRP) is a blood test for inflammation in conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis. The high sensitive C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) is used as a measurement for inflammation as a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

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10
Q

Which of the following best describes subjective information in the medical case history?

A. Patient’s family history
This information is subjective, based solely on the patient’s words.

B. Kidney biopsy report
This result is objective and can be observed.

C. Findings on physical examination
These findings are objective and can be observed.

D. Abnormal results on CT scan report
These results are objective and can be observed.

E. Laboratory results
These results are objective information and can be observed.

A

A. Patient’s family history

This information is subjective, based solely on the patient’s words.

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11
Q

Which of the following is a laboratory test for kidney function?
A. FBS (fasting blood sugar)
This is a test for fasting glucose level in the blood and is used as a screening test for diabetes.

B. HDL (high density lipoprotein)
This is a test for “good” cholesterol. A high HDL level is associated with a reduced risk for heart disease.
C. ALT (alanine aminotransferase)
This is a test for liver function.

D. PSA (prostate specific antigen)
This is a screening test for prostate cancer.

E. Creatinine
This is a test often used as a screening test for kidney function.

A

E. Creatinine

This is a test often used as a screening test for kidney function.

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12
Q

Which of the following positions requires the patient to lie on the left side with the left arm behind the body, the right leg flexed sharply upward, and the left knee slightly flexed?

A. Sims
Also called the lateral position, the patient is placed on their left side with the left arm and shoulder drawn behind the body so the weight is mostly on the chest.

B. Lithotomy
This position has the patient lying on their back with knees sharply flexed and is most often used for Pap smears.

C. Fowler
Fowler’s position has the patient sitting on the table with the head of the table elevated 90 degrees.

D. Prone
The patient lies face down in the prone position.

E. Trendelenburg
In the Trendelenburg’s position, the patient lies on their back with their head lower than the legs.

A

A. Sims
Also called the lateral position, the patient is placed on their left side with the left arm and shoulder drawn behind the body so the weight is mostly on the chest.

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13
Q

The medical assistant is asked to counsel the family of an 8-year-old with strep throat on the modes of transmission to minimize the spread of infection.

A. Isolate the patient from others in the household.
It is not necessary to isolate a child with strep throat as long as good health hygiene protocol are followed by the patient and the family.

B. Wash all the bedding and linens used by the patient each day.
Washing of bedding and linens is not the most effective method of minimizing the spread of Group A Streptococcus. These bacteria are easily spread by direct transmission of droplets or the sharing of personal items such as eating utensils.

C. Have the patient gargle with an antiseptic mouthwash to kill the strep bacteria in the throat.
While gargling might help the throat feel better, it is not a known method of killing Streptococcus group A.

D. Avoid sharing personal items such as eating utensils with the patient
Group A Streptococcus is easily spread by direct transmission through droplets and sharing of personal items like eating utensil.

E. Wear gloves when in the same room as the patient.
Wearing gloves is not the most effective method of minimizing the spread of Group A Streptococcus which is easily spread by direct transmission of droplets or sharing personal items such as eating utensils.

A

D. Avoid sharing personal items such as eating utensils with the patient
Group A Streptococcus is easily spread by direct transmission through droplets and sharing of personal items like eating utensil.

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14
Q

Which of the following medical specialties includes the study of the diseases and treatment of the male reproductive system?

A. Nephrology
Nephrology is the study of the kidney and its diseases.

B. Proctology
Proctology is the study of the colon, rectum, and anus.

C. Oncology
Oncology is the study and treatment of cancer and tumors.

D. Rheumatology
Rheumatology is the study of autoimmune disorders.

E. Urology
Urology refers to the study of the urinary system in males and females, and the male reproductive system.

A

E. Urology

Urology refers to the study of the urinary system in males and females, and the male reproductive system.

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15
Q

Which of the following is a vasodilator most commonly used to ease the pain of angina?

A. Nitroglycerin
Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator given for relief of angina.

B. Aspirin
Aspirin is the most common vasodilator and an anti-platelet drug that may be given to prevent the completion of a myocardial infarction. It is not used to relieve the pain of angina.

C. Digitalis
Digitalis is used for the treatment of heart failure or for an irregular heartbeat and does not affect angina pain.

D. Codeine
Codeine is an analgesic used to treat musculoskeletal pain. It would not be given to treat angina.

E. Coumadin
Coumadin is a blood thinner used in patients with a cardiac arrhythmia to prevent blood clots. It would not be effective for angina.

A

A. Nitroglycerin

Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator given for relief of angina.

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16
Q

Which of the following is the meaning of the combining form “salping / o”?

A. Pyloric sphincter
“Pylor / o” refers to the pyloric sphincter.

B. Fallopian tube
“Sahttps://www.brainscape.com/decks/10013766/cards/quick_new_cardlping / o” refers to the Fallopian tube.

C. Small intestine
“Enter / o” refers to the small intestine.

D. Salivary gland
“Sialaden / o” refers to the salivary glands.

E. Urinary bladder
“Cyst / o” refers to the urinary bladder.

A

B. Fallopian tube

“Salping / o” refers to the Fallopian tube.

17
Q

Which of the following elements found during a microscopic urine examination contains a nucleus?

A. White blood cell
A white blood cell contains a nucleus that is typically visible under high power microscopy. When a clean catch mid stream urine specimen contains more than five (5) white blood cells per high power field, it is consistent with a possible urinary tract infection.

B. Cast
A cast is a cylinder shaped structure formed in the kidney tubules and comprised of protein. While various cellular elements may be trapped in the protein, the cast itself does not contain a nucleus.

C. Yeast
Yeast cells do not have a visible nucleus. Yeast cells are identified by the processes of reproduction called budding and are often seen as vaginal contaminants found in the urine. Yeast may also be found in specimens from male patients, particularly those with diabetes

D. Red blood cell
Mature red blood cells do not contain a nucleus. Red blood cells appear in urine as bi-concave discs that are nearly colorless and typically smaller than white blood cells.

E. Bacteria
While bacteria do contain nuclear material, they do not have a visible membrane bound nucleus. Significant amount of bacteria found in a clean catch mid stream urine specimen is usually indicative of a urinary tract infection.

A

A. White blood cell
A white blood cell contains a nucleus that is typically visible under high power microscopy. When a clean catch mid stream urine specimen contains more than five (5) white blood cells per high power field, it is consistent with a possible urinary tract infection.

18
Q

Which of the following is the process of observing a patient to detect signs of disease?

A. Auscultation
Auscultation is an examination technique that involves listening with a stethoscope to the sounds produced within the body.

B. Mensuration
Mensuration is the process of measuring the patient.

C. Inspection
Inspection involves observation of the patient for any signs of disease.

D. Palpation
Palpation is the examination of the body using the sense of touch.

E. Percussion
Percussion involves tapping the patient with the fingers and listening to the sounds produced to determine the size, density, and location of organ.

A

C. Inspection

Inspection involves observation of the patient for any signs of disease.

19
Q

The blood pressure that the medical assistant has just taken is significantly higher than the readings taken on the same patient during past examinations. Which of the following is the first step the medical assistant should take to ensure the validity of the reading?

A. Take the other vital signs and recheck the blood pressure after a few minutes.
The blood pressure may be elevated if the patient has not rested in a quiet room for approximately 5 minutes.

B. Tell the patient to relax and retake the pressure immediately
Taking the blood pressure immediately may lead to venous congestion, resulting in an inaccurate reading.

C. Call the physician to the room to immediately retake the patient’s blood pressure.
If the blood pressure remains high, the physician may want to recheck it, but it is not necessary to do this immediately. Additionally, the patient should relax a few minutes before the blood pressure is retaken.

D. Ask another medical assistant to take the patient’s blood pressure.
Having another assistant check the blood pressure might result in increased anxiety.

E. Ask the patient if he has had a recent blood pressure test and what the reading was.
A common cause for elevated blood pressure is anxiety. Quizzing the patient about his blood pressure might increase this.

A

A. Take the other vital signs and recheck the blood pressure after a few minutes.
The blood pressure may be elevated if the patient has not rested in a quiet room for approximately 5 minutes.