Module 7 Flashcards
Which of the following would be administered to relieve mild insulin shock in a conscious patient?
A. Orange juice
Orange juice will quickly deliver glucose to relieve the insulin shock.
B. Insulin
Insulin will further decrease the patient’s glucose level and will not relieve insulin shock.
C. Epinephrine
Epinephrine is often administered in allergic reactions, but not in insulin shock.
D. An antihistamine
An antihistamine is for allergic reactions and will not relieve insulin shock.
E. An oral hypoglycemic
An oral hypoglycemic will further reduce the patient’s glucose level.
A. Orange juice
Orange juice will quickly deliver glucose to relieve the insulin shock.
Which of the following is the correct milliliters of gamma globulin that would be prepared for a 190 pound patient who is to be given 0.02mL of gamma globulin per pound of body weight?
A. 9.5mL
0.02mL per pound x 190 pounds= 3.8mL.
B. 0.38mL
0.02mL per pound x 190 pounds= 3.8mL.
C. 0.95mL
0.02mL per pound x 190 pounds = 3.8mL.
D. 0.038mL
0.02mL per pound x 190 pounds= 3.8mL.
E. 3.8mL
The dose would be 3.8mL ( 0.02mL per pound x 190 pounds = 3.8mL ).
E. 3.8mL
The dose would be 3.8mL ( 0.02mL per pound x 190 pounds = 3.8mL ).
The timing of an autoclave load should begin when the proper pressure is reached and which of the following is achieved?
A. The preheat period has begun
The proper temperature needs to be reached.
B. The desired temperature is reached
Timing should begin when the proper temperature and pressure are reached.
C. The autoclave door is hot to the touch
The temperature in the chamber must be appropriate for the load.
D. The door is secured tightly
The temperature and pressure will not be appropriate when the door is first closed.
E. Steam begins to flow from the exhaust valve
This happens at the end of the cycle when the autoclave is vented.
B. The desired temperature is reached
Timing should begin when the proper temperature and pressure are reached.
Which of the following is subjective information on a medical record?
A. Palpable liver
A palpable liver can be detected by the physician.
B. Atrial fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation is an objective finding resulting from an EKG or cardiac monitor.
C. Cholesterol level of 155 mg/dL
A cholesterol level is objective information because it is measured.
D. Social history of smoking one pack a day
Social history is subjective data based on what the patient states.
E. Blood pressure of 120/74 mmHg
A blood pressure is objective information because it is measured.
D. Social history of smoking one pack a day
Social history is subjective data based on what the patient states.
Of the following terms, which is a plane that divides the anterior portion of the body from the posterior portion?
A. Transverse
This plane divides the body into upper and lower portions.
B. Proximal
This is not a plane, but a description that means nearest point of attachment.
C. Sagittal
This plane divides the body into right and left halves (vertical).
D. Frontal or coronal
This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
E. Median
This is not a plane, but a term referring to the middle of the body.
D. Frontal or coronal
This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
Which gauge needle is most commonly used for a subcutaneous injection?
A. 22
This is used for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.
B. 20
This is used for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.
C. 25
This is the most commonly used gauge for subcutaneous injections.
D. 18
This is not routinely used for injections.
E. 21
This is used for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.
C. 25
This is the most commonly used gauge for subcutaneous injections.
A patient with cyanosis, cool clammy skin, hypotension, altered consciousness, rapid pulse and rapid breathing would be exhibiting signs of which of the following conditions?
A. Hypothermia
The signs and symptoms of hypothermia (low core body temperature) are shivering, numbness, drowsiness, apathy, a glassy stare, and decreased levels of consciousness.
B. Heat stroke
The signs of heat stroke generally include red hot dry skin, increased body temperature, and severe headache.
C. Stroke
The signs and symptoms of stroke may include sudden weakness or numbness of the face, arms or legs on one side of the body, difficulty speaking, vision changes, dizziness, confusion and headache.
D. Shock
The signs and symptoms of shock include weakness, restlessness, pallor, cool and clammy skin, cyanosis, rapid breathing, and rapid pulse.
E. Obstructed airway
The signs of obstructed airway include coughing and difficulty breathing. It can lead to cyanosis and ultimately loss of consciousness.
D. Shock
The signs and symptoms of shock include weakness, restlessness, pallor, cool and clammy skin, cyanosis, rapid breathing, and rapid pulse.
A 66-year-old Medicare patient comes in with a back injury. When describing the injury, he states that it happened at his part-time job while helping a customer load a new washing machine. A health care claim for the patient should be submitted to which of the following entities:
A. Social Security Disability Office
Social Security disability does not apply to this situation.
B. Medicaid
Patients with Medicare coverage are not automatically covered by Medicaid. Medicaid coverage is based on income guidelines.
C. Medicare
Even though the patient has Medicare coverage, worker’s compensation would be responsible for this injury which occurred on the job.
D. Workers compensation
An injury that occurs at work would be covered under workers compensation.
D. Workers compensation
An injury that occurs at work would be covered under workers compensation.
A patient needing cataract surgery could be referred appropriately to which of the following health care providers?
A. Otorhinolaryngologist
This is a physician who treats disorders of ears, nose and throat.
B. Ophthalmologist
This is a physician specializing in treatment of diseases of the eyes.
C. Optometrist
This is a doctor of optometry who performs eye examinations and prescribes lenses, but is not a physician.
D. Optician
This is an allied health worker who fits corrective eyeglass lenses.
E. Oncologist
This is a physician who treats benign and cancerous tumors.
B. Ophthalmologist
This is a physician specializing in treatment of diseases of the eyes.
Which of the following statements describes the purpose for cancer screening tests?
A. To detect a cancer before symptoms appear.
Screening tests are done when you have no symptoms. They are meant to help find cancer at an early stage before symptoms appear.
B. To confirm the physician’s suspicion of a cancer being present based on history and/or physical exam.
If the physician already suspects that a patient may have a cancer, he will move to further diagnostic testing, without a screening test.
C. To assess a cancer’s likelihood to respond favorably to treatment.
A screening test does not provide any prognosis. For some cancers, finding and treating the cancer early does not necessarily improve the chance of a cure or help the patient live longer.
D. To provide assurance to the patient that there is no cancer present.
Screening test results may appear to be normal even though there is a cancer. This is called a false-negative result.
E. To diagnose the specific type of cancer which is present.
Screening tests are not meant to diagnose cancer. If a screening test is abnormal, more tests are usually necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
A. To detect a cancer before symptoms appear.
Screening tests are done when you have no symptoms. They are meant to help find cancer at an early stage before symptoms appear.
Of the following methods to administer medications, which would have the fastest delivery to the blood stream?
A. Subcutaneous
This injection goes under skin for absorption and the absorption is similar in time to that of an intramuscular injection.
B. Sublingual
Medication administered under the tongue diffuses immediately into the capillary network and enters the systemic circulation.
C. Oral
This requires the medication to go to the stomach for absorption into the GI tract.
D. Z track
This is a technique for intramuscular injections that prevents leakage of the medication into subcutaneous tissue. It does not speed up absorption.
E. Intramuscular
While intramuscular route is faster than oral, the absorption occurs through capillary membranes into the plasma. This route is not one of the fastest delivery methods.
B. Sublingual
Medication administered under the tongue diffuses immediately into the capillary network and enters the systemic circulation.
Which of the following types of examinations would be used to determine the presence of a breast lump?
A. Palpation
Palpation is the examination of the body using the sense of touch.
B. Percussion
Percussion involves tapping the patient with the fingers and listening to the sounds produced to determine the size, density, and location of organ.
C. Mensuration
Mensuration is the process of measuring the patient.
D. Inspection
Inspection involves observation of the patient for any signs of disease.
E. Auscultation
Auscultation is an examination technique that involves listening with a stethoscope to the sounds produced within the body.
A. Palpation
Palpation is the examination of the body using the sense of touch.
Which of the following is the nerve that stimulates the diaphragm?
A. Vagus
The vagus nerve supplies nerve fibers to the larynx, lungs, heart, esophagus, stomach, and most of the abdominal viscera.
B. Sciatic
The sciatic nerve affects the muscles and sensations in the leg.
C. Accessory
The accessory nerve has two branches. The distribution of one branch is the pharynx and larynx, and the other branch is the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
D. Trochlear
The distribution of the trochlear nerve is the superior oblique muscle of the eye.
E. Phrenic
The motor nerve to the diaphragm is the phrenic nerve.
E. Phrenic
The motor nerve to the diaphragm is the phrenic nerve.
Which of the following instruments is used to ligate a small blood vessel?
A. Curved scissors
Curved scissors are cutting instruments with curved blades used for cutting tissue, not to clamp a vessel.
B. Allis tissue forceps
Allis tissue forceps are used for grasping tissue and are not used to clamp a vessel.
C. Mosquito hemostat
Hemostats are used to clamp off blood vessels. A mosquito hemostat would be the appropriate sized instrument to ligate a small vessel.
D. Kelly hemostat
Although a Kelly hemostat can be used to clamp vessels, it is larger than a mosquito hemostat and would be used for larger vessels.
E. Small iris scissors
Small iris scissors are cutting instruments and are not used to clamp a vessel.
C. Mosquito hemostat
Hemostats are used to clamp off blood vessels. A mosquito hemostat would be the appropriate sized instrument to ligate a small vessel.
Bills are never submitted to a patient who is being treated while under which of the following insurance plans?
A. Worker’s Compensation
There is no patient responsibility with Worker’s Compensation insurance.
B. Blue Cross and Blue Shield
Patients may be billed for non-covered services as well as copays and deductibles.
C. TriCare
Patients may be billed for their co-pays or deductibles.
D. Medicare part B
Patients with Medicare part B may be billed for their deductible and copays or services stated on the signed advance beneficiary notice.
E. Medicare part A
Patients with Medicare part A are subject to copays and deductibles.
A. Worker’s Compensation
There is no patient responsibility with Worker’s Compensation insurance.
