Module 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

medical specialists is most likely to manage a patient with basal cell carcinoma?

A

Dermatologist

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2
Q

he most important reason a written consent is required prior to using e-mail to communicate with a patient?

A

E-mail is not considered a secure form of communication.
Consent to send communication by e-mail is necessary because information can be intercepted and received by someone who is not the intended recipient.

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3
Q
  1. According to OSHA regulations, which of the following would be an example of an engineering control?
    A. Biohazard sharps container
    According to OSHA, engineering controls isolate or remove hazards from the workplace.
    B. Not eating or drinking in areas where blood and body fluids are present
    This is a work practice control.
    C. Not recapping contaminated needles
    This is a work practice control.
    D. Wearing personal protective equipment
    This is a work place control.
    E. Hand washing
    This is a work practice control.
A

A. Biohazard sharps container

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following individuals can receive invasive medical treatment without a signed consent form?
    A. An adult patient needing general anesthesia
    An adult patient must sign the form prior to anesthesia being administered.
    B. An emancipated minor
    An emancipated minor must sign a consent form if receiving invasive treatment.
    C. An unconscious patient whose life is in danger
    Life-saving treatment can be rendered without consent in the event the patient is unable to give consent.
    D. A patient aged 65 years or over
    Patients aged 65 and older are not exempt from signing a consent form, but if incapacitated, may have to have a medical power of attorney sign for them.
    E. A minor
    A minor cannot receive treatment without a signed consent form by a parent or guardian.
A

C. An unconscious patient whose life is in danger

Life-saving treatment can be rendered without consent in the event the patient is unable to give consent.

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is the cranial nerve primarily involved in blindness?
    A. Olfactory
    This nerve contributes to the sense of smell as it carries information from the nasal epithelium to the olfactory center in the brain.
    B. Oculomotor
    This nerve contains both sensory and motor fibers and is responsible for operating muscle sense and movement in the eye, eye accommodations, and pupil restriction.
    C. Optic
    This nerve transforms information about vision to the brain. It supplies information to the retina in the form of ganglion cells.
    D. Abducent
    This nerve performs the function of turning the eye laterally.
    E. Trochlear
    This nerve is a motor nerve that helps move the eye in a lateral (toward the midline) direction.
A

C. Optic
This nerve transforms information about vision to the brain. It supplies information to the retina in the form of ganglion cells.

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6
Q

Practice Exam 09:31
100%
6. Which of the following is the vein that returns the blood to the heart from parts of the body below the diaphragm?
A. Subclavian vein
The subclavian vein is a continuation of the axillary vein and carries blood from the arm towards the heart.
B. Superior vena cava
The superior vena cava returns blood to the heart from the head and neck, upper extremities, and thorax.
C. Inferior vena cava
The inferior vena cava carries blood from the lower part of the body back to the heart.
D. Axillary vein
The axillary vein is located in the upper arm and carries blood from the arms to the heart.
E. Brachiocephalic vein
The brachiocephalic vein drains the viscera of the thorax, and receives blood from other veins, mainly from the head and neck and upper extremities.

A

C. Inferior vena cava

The inferior vena cava carries blood from the lower part of the body back to the heart.

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7
Q
Which of the following is a suffix referring to pain?
 A. –dynia
This refers to pain.
 B. –acusis
This refers to hearing.
 C. –penia
This refers to deficiency.
 D. –orexia
This refers to appetite.
 E. –malacia
This refers to softening.
A

A. –dynia

This refers to pain.

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following terms refers to a disease process that has no defined course and is of unknown origin?
    A. Etiologic
    This is a term that means pertaining to the cause of a disease.
    B. Biologic
    This is a term that pertains to the study of living organisms.
    C. Symbiotic
    In parasitology, this is a term that means pertaining to the close association of two dissimilar organisms.
    D. Diastolic
    This is a term that pertains to the period of dilation of the heart.
    E. Idiopathic
    This is a term that means occurring without known cause.
A

E. Idiopathic

This is a term that means occurring without known cause.

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9
Q

Which of the following types of white blood cells would most likely be increased above the normal level in a patient with an acute bacterial infection?
A. Basophil
An alteration in bone marrow function such as leukemia or Hodgkin’s disease may cause an increase in basophils.
B. Monocyte
The monocyte percentage might increase during a long term infection such as tuberculosis or with a chronic inflammatory disease, but would typically not spike during an acute bacterial infection.
C. Lymphocyte
The lymphocyte percentage often increases during viral infections.
D. Eosinophil
Eosinophil percentage is most likely to increase during an allergic reaction and would not spike due to an acute bacterial infection.
E. Neutrophil
Neutrophils are the first line of defense against bacterial infections and the percentage of this white blood cell would most likely increase.

A

E. Neutrophil
Neutrophils are the first line of defense against bacterial infections and the percentage of this white blood cell would most likely increase.
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10
Q

According to the guidelines established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which of the following is the most appropriate agent for disinfecting the counter in the hematology laboratory?
A. 70% Alcohol
Alcohol is not an appropriate disinfectant for a large area, such as a counter.
B. 0.9% Normal saline
Normal saline solution will not serve as a disinfectant.
C. 10% Bleach solution
A 10% bleach solution is an effective and noncaustic disinfectant that can be used for laboratory countertops.
D. Cidex
Cidex is used to disinfect instruments, but requires a long exposure of 10 hours or greater.
E. Hot, soapy water
Hot, soapy water is used to sanitize a countertop, but not to disinfect.

A

C. 10% Bleach solution

A 10% bleach solution is an effective and noncaustic disinfectant that can be used for laboratory countertops.

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11
Q

Which of the following is a common side effect of some diuretics?
A. Hypouricemia
Hypouricemia is a low level of uric acid in the blood and this is not a side effect of thiazide diuretics.
B. Hyperchloremia
Hyperchloremia is elevated chloride in the blood. This is not a side effect of thiazide diuretics.
C. Hypoglycemia
Hypoglycemia means low levels of glucose in the blood. This is not a side effect of thiazide diuretics.
D. Hypokalemia
Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood. It is a common side effect of thiazide diuretics.
E. Hypernatremia
This means elevated sodium in the blood. Thiazide can cause hyponatremia, but not hypernatremia

A

D. Hypokalemia

Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood. It is a common side effect of thiazide diuretics.

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12
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe a medical assistant who supports standards of ethical care and speaks up for patient rights?
A. Advocate
An advocate is one who pleads, defends, or maintains the cause of another.
B. Good Samaritan
A Good Samaritan is one who stops to render help without expectation of payment.
C. Defendant
A defendant is a person or entity charged or sued in a legal action.
D. Arbitrator
An arbitrator is a neutral third party who listens to issues and information presented and renders an opinion.
E. Plaintiff
A plaintiff is a person or group that brings legal action to court.

A

A. Advocate

An advocate is one who pleads, defends, or maintains the cause of another.

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13
Q

The following patients are in the reception room when the physician arrives. Which patient should be seen first?
A. An 8 year old with 102 degree fever and cough of 12 hours duration
This fever and length of duration would not be more critical than a head injury.
B. A 16 –year- old football player who was injured and has slurred speech and confusion
These symptoms related to a head injury would take priority over the others waiting.
C. An afebrile 60 year old with a cough and sore throat of 48 hours duraion
The absence of fever with a cough and sore throat is not considered an emergency.
D. A 16 year old with menorrhagia over the past 2 days
Excessive menstrual flow is not an emergency situation.
E. A 10-year-old child with diarrhea over the past 24 hours
This patient would not be considered an emergency situation.

A

B. A 16 –year- old football player who was injured and has slurred speech and confusion
These symptoms related to a head injury would take priority over the others waiting.

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14
Q

Which of the following is a written document that names a person as a proxy responsible for making medical decisions on behalf of a patient who is unable to do so for himself/herself?
A. Organ donor card
An organ donor card indicates the patient’s wish to make an anatomical gift at the time of death.
B. Living will
A living will is prepared when a patient is alive, competent, and able to make decisions they want regarding end of life care.
C. Do not resuscitate order
A DNR order is a document that instructs the healthcare providers to not revive the patient when death occurs.
D. Patient Bill of Rights
The Patient Bill of Rights is a document that outlines the rights and responsibilities of an individual who is receiving health care.
E. Durable power of attorney for health care
A durable power of attorney for health care allows a designated person to act on another’s behalf if that individual becomes incapacitated or in any way unable to make their own health care decisions.
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A

E. Durable power of attorney for health care
A durable power of attorney for health care allows a designated person to act on another’s behalf if that individual becomes incapacitated or in any way unable to make their own health care decisions.

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15
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step when rooming a patient who comes to the office with a recent laceration of the finger that is still bleeding?
A. Ask the patient when he received his last tetanus shot
Although tetanus status is important to determine before treatment of the patient is complete, controlling bleeding should occur first.
B. Elevate the patients arm above the head
Although elevating the patient’s arm above the heart may decrease the blood flow, this action alone would not ordinarily control bleeding from a laceration.
C. Apply a tourniquet
A tourniquet is only used to save a life or a limb. It is never used to control bleeding from a lacerated finger.
D. Notify the physician to come immediately
An attempt to control the bleeding should be initiated before notifying the physician.
E. Apply direct pressure to the patient’s wound
The most effective way to control bleeding is to apply direct pressure to the bleeding site.

A

E. Apply direct pressure to the patient’s wound

The most effective way to control bleeding is to apply direct pressure to the bleeding site.

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16
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate reference source for locating a code for chronic bronchitis for the purpose of scheduling a chest x-ray?
A. International Classification of Diseases, Clinical Modification (ICD-CM)
This reference is used to identify a diagnosis.
B. Relative Value Scale (RVS)
This reference helps establish reimbursements.
C. Current Procedural Terminology (CPT)
This reference is for procedure codes.
D. Diagnosis Related Groups (DRGs)
This is a system to classify hospital cases into specific groups.
E. Health Care Financing Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS)
This reference is for supplies and certain procedures.
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A

A. International Classification of Diseases, Clinical Modification (ICD-CM)
This reference is used to identify a diagnosis.

17
Q

Coding for the removal of a pituitary tumor is located under which of the following body system descriptions of the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) book?
A. Nervous
The nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord and nerves but does not include the pituitary gland.
B. Urinary
The urinary system includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and the urethra but does not include the pituitary gland.
C. Musculoskeletal
This system includes the bones, muscles, ligaments, and tendons but does not include the pituitary gland.
D. Endocrine
The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland that releases many hormones which affect growth, sexual development, metabolism and human reproduction.
E. Circulatory
The circulatory system includes the heart and vessels but does not include the pituitary gland.

A

D. Endocrine
The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland that releases many hormones which affect growth, sexual development, metabolism and human reproduction.

18
Q

Which of the following is objective information relating to a patient’s health?
A. Patient is feeling depressed
Depression cannot be measured and is considered subjective
B. Intermittent left-sided chest pain
The reporting of pain is considered subjective information
C. Dizziness with a headache
Dizziness is subjective information reported by the patient
D. Ongoing pain in right lower quadrant
The reporting of pain is considered subjective and cannot be measured
E. Absence of patellar reflex
This is objective information that can be obtained by testing for the patellar reflex
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A

E. Absence of patellar reflex

This is objective information that can be obtained by testing for the patellar reflex

19
Q

In which of the following situations might a physician be held liable under the Doctrine of respondeat superior?
A. The medical assistant helps a patient take her home medications while the patient is at the office. The patient is given 2 (two) 500 mg. tablets of Metformin instead of 1 (one) 500 mg.
The physician can be held legally liable for the mistake of the medical assistant under the Doctrine of respondeat superior.
B. An intern observing a physician in the operating room discusses the surgery and patient outside of the hospital with friends.
The physician is not liable for this unethical behavior under the doctrine of respondeat superior.
C. The physician writes a prescription, but the pharmacist compounds it incorrectly.
Pharmacists practice under their own license and would be held responsible.
D. The hospital housekeeping staff did not clean up a spill and a patient fell as a result.
The physician is not normally liable for the hospital housekeeping staff actions or inactions.
E. The physician renders emergency care to a patient on the roadside while on vacation.
The doctrine does not apply in this situation. Physicians in most states would be protected under “Good Samaritan Acts” in this situation.

A

A. The medical assistant helps a patient take her home medications while the patient is at the office. The patient is given 2 (two) 500 mg. tablets of Metformin instead of 1 (one) 500 mg.
The physician can be held legally liable for the mistake of the medical assistant under the Doctrine of respondeat superior.

20
Q

Which of the following is a diagnostic procedure in which there is internal visualization of the urinary bladder?
A. Urethral dilation
This is widening of the urethra by insertion of a catheter or dilator.
B. Cystoscopy
This is visual examination of the interior urinary bladder using a cystoscope.
C. Pyelography
This is radiography of the renal pelvis and ureter after intravenous injection of contrast material.
D. Nephrostomy
This is an opening created from the kidney to the exterior of the body.
E. Cystography
This is radiography of the urinary bladder.
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A

B. Cystoscopy

This is visual examination of the interior urinary bladder using a cystoscope.