Module 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following types of examinations would be performed to hear a heart murmur?

A. Mensuration
Mensuration is the process of measuring the patient.

B. Auscultation
Auscultation is an examination technique that involves listening with a stethoscope to the sounds produced within the body.

C. Percussion
Percussion involves tapping the patient with the fingers and listening to the sounds produced to determine the size, density, and location of organ.

D. Palpation
Palpation is the examination of the body using the sense of touch.

E. Inspection
Inspection involves observation of the patient for any signs of disease.

A

B. Auscultation
Auscultation is an examination technique that involves listening with a stethoscope to the sounds produced within the body.

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2
Q

Which of the following describes a surgical procedure that connects the common bile duct with the middle portion of the small intestines?

A. Choledochojejunostomy
This is the procedure that connects the bile duct to the jejunum.

B. Choledochoduodenostomy
This is the surgical formation of a passage between the common bile duct and the duodenum.

C. Choledocholithotomy
This is removal of a gallstone through an incision of the bile duct.

D. Choledochostomy
This is surgical incision for drainage of the common bile duct.

E. Choledochoenterostomy
This is surgical formation of a passage between the common bile duct and the intestine.

A

A. Choledochojejunostomy

This is the procedure that connects the bile duct to the jejunum.

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3
Q

Which of the following procedures involves the removal of a part of the small intestine?

A. Duodenectomy
The duodenum is the upper portion of the small intestine.

B. Gastrectomy
Gastrectomy involves removal of the stomach which is not part of the small or large intestine.

C. Colectomy
The colon is the large intestine.

D. Esophagectomy
The esophagus is not part of the small or large intestine.

E. Appendectomy
The appendix is part of the colon or large intestine.

A

A. Duodenectomy

The duodenum is the upper portion of the small intestine.

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4
Q

Which of the following is a physician who specializes in disorders of the eye and performs surgical procedures as necessary?

A. Ophthalmologist
An ophthalmologist is a physician (doctor of medicine, MD, or doctor of osteopathy, DO) who specializes in the medical and surgical care of the eyes and visual system and in the prevention of eye disease and injury.

B. Optometrist
An optometrist is a health care practitioner who provides primary eye and vision care, performs eye examinations to detect vision problems, and prescribes corrective lenses to correct those problems.

C. Optician
This individual is trained (either formally or on-the-job) in procedures for fitting eyeglasses and making lenses to correct vision problems. An optometrist performs eye examinations and writes prescriptions for corrective lenses; an optician fills that prescription.

D. Otolaryngologist
This is a specialist that deals with diseases of the ears, nose and throat. They do not treat eye disorders.

E. Osteologist
This is a specialist in the study of the skeletal system.

A

A. Ophthalmologist
An ophthalmologist is a physician (doctor of medicine, MD, or doctor of osteopathy, DO) who specializes in the medical and surgical care of the eyes and visual system and in the prevention of eye disease and injury.

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5
Q

A patient comes to the family practice physician’s office for a routine physical examination. By requesting an examination, the patient has consented to which of the following procedures?

A. Testing knee jerk reflexes
Striking the patellar ligament with a reflex hammer produces a signal that travels to L4 in the spinal cord. The patellar reflex is part of a routine physical examination. This reflex may be absent in patients with nerve damage.

B. Taking a biopsy of a localized skin nodule
Excision of lesions is not part of a routine physical.

C. Testing the heart by echocardiogram
This is a cardiac ultrasound imaging and is not part of a routine physical.

D. Drawing a specimen for blood gasses
Assessment of arterial blood gas is not part of a routine physical.

E. Determining blood pressure in the lower legs by Doppler
This vascular study is not part of a routine physical.

A

A. Testing knee jerk reflexes
Striking the patellar ligament with a reflex hammer produces a signal that travels to L4 in the spinal cord. The patellar reflex is part of a routine physical examination. This reflex may be absent in patients with nerve damage.

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6
Q

For purposes of collections control, how often should the medical assistant verify the patient’s demographic
data?

A. On each visit
Patient demographics may change at any time.

B. When the patient’s account is delinquent
Waiting until an account is delinquent to check demographics may result in further collection problems. The patient may not receive bills if their demographic information is not kept current.

C. When the patient changes insurance carriers
Proof of insurance should be requested at each visit as coverage may change at any time.

D. Once a year
Patient demographics may change between each visit.

E. When the patient’s account statement is returned as undeliverable
It would never be correct to wait until mail is no longer deliverable. Demographics should be checked at each visit so this situation does not occur.

A

A. On each visit

Patient demographics may change at any time.

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7
Q

Warfarin (Coumadin) is categorized as which of the following types of medications?

A. Antiemetic
This medication would be used to prevent vomiting.

B. Antipyretic
This medication would be used to lower a fever.

C. Antiviral
This medication would be used to fight an infection caused by a virus.

D. Anticoagulant
Coumadin helps prevent blood clots.

E. Antipruritic
This medication would be used to treat itching.

A

D. Anticoagulant

Coumadin helps prevent blood clots.

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8
Q

Which of the following arteries is most often used for assessing the pulse on a conscious patient?

A. Dorsalis pedis
This pulse can be difficult to palpate and would necessitate the removal of shoes and socks.

B. Temporal
The temporal artery can be small and difficult to assess.

C. Radial
The radial pulse is the most frequently monitored and easily accessible pulse in the body.

D. Femoral
Although easily palpable, this would entail palpating the patient’s groin, and would not be utilized routinely in a conscious patient.

E. Brachial
The brachial artery is often difficult to access and could require removal of long sleeve clothing.

A

C. Radial

The radial pulse is the most frequently monitored and easily accessible pulse in the body.

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9
Q

Which of the following describes “adduction”?

A. Decreasing the angle between bones
This action would be referred to as flexion.

B. Circular motion of a limb
This action would be referred to as circumduction.

C. Movement of a bone around its central axis
This action would describe rotation.

D. Increasing the angle between bones
This action would be referred to as extension.

E. Movement of a body part toward the body’s midline
This describes adduction.

A

E. Movement of a body part toward the body’s midline

This describes adduction.

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10
Q

Which of the following arteries is most often used for assessing the pulse on a conscious patient?

A. Dorsalis pedis
This pulse can be difficult to palpate and would necessitate the removal of shoes and socks.

B. Temporal
The temporal artery can be small and difficult to assess.

C. Radial
The radial pulse is the most frequently monitored and easily accessible pulse in the body.

D. Femoral
Although easily palpable, this would entail palpating the patient’s groin, and would not be utilized routinely in a conscious patient.

E. Brachial
The brachial artery is often difficult to access and could require removal of long sleeve clothing.

A

C. Radial

The radial pulse is the most frequently monitored and easily accessible pulse in the body.

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11
Q

Of the following groups, which would typically have the highest blood pressure readings?

A. 25-year-old office assistant
A 25-year-old office assistant, in general, would not have the usual risk factors that might place them at increased risk of hypertension.

B. Elderly obese woman
The combination of age and obesity, which may also indicate a decreased activity level, would place this patient at an increased risk.

C. 45-year-old male runner
Exercise would tend to offset the hypertension risk factor of male sex.

D. Obese male teenager
Although obesity plus the risk factor of male sex would place this teenager at increased risk of hypertension, this is not the highest risk group.

E. 6-year-old child
There is a direct relationship between age and high blood pressure, with children at lower risk than adults.

A

B. Elderly obese woman
The combination of age and obesity, which may also indicate a decreased activity level, would place this patient at an increased risk.

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12
Q

Which of the following demonstrates voluntary muscle actions?

A. Breathing
Breathing takes place due to involuntary muscle action.

B. Heart beat
The heart beat is due to involuntary muscle action.

C. Flexion
Flexion is the voluntary bending of a limb by decreasing the angle between two bones.

D. Peristalsis
Peristalsis takes place due to involuntary muscle action.

E. Pupil dilation
Pupils dilate due to involuntary muscle action.
Exit ExamPreviousNext

A

C. Flexion

Flexion is the voluntary bending of a limb by decreasing the angle between two bones.

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13
Q

which of the following information is found on the patient registration form?

A. Name of the person to contact in an emergency
This is one of the necessary items requested on a patient registration form.

B. Patient allergies
These are listed in the patient medical record.

C. Use of alcohol or drugs
This is found in the social history of the medical record.

D. Laboratory results from another physician
These are entered in the laboratory section of the medical record.

E. Social and occupational history
This is found the medical record.

A

A. Name of the person to contact in an emergency

This is one of the necessary items requested on a patient registration form.

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14
Q

A mother calls regarding her teenage son who has had a chemistry experiment blow up in his face. Which of the following should the mother be instructed to do prior to transporting her son for medical care?

A. Rinse his face and eyes with water for at least 15 minutes
Eye irrigation is most important to wash away damaging chemicals.

B. Rinse his face and eyes with a salt solution to neutralize the chemicals
Although saline can be used to irrigate the eyes, mixing a salt solution would delay irrigation of the eyes unnecessarily. Rinsing with plain water can prevent this delay.

C. Do nothing until the chemical has been identified by the poison control center
The type of chemical does not need to be known to begin basic first aid of irrigating the eyes to neutralize chemicals.

D. Cover his facial wounds with a soothing cream such as petroleum
The treatment of the facial wounds should be at the discretion of the provider. The possibility of harmful chemicals in the eyes is more pressing.

E. Place a sterile wet compress over his eyes and face
Although the possibility of chemical exposure to the face may be important, the possibility of harmful chemicals in the eyes is a more pressing problem.

A

A. Rinse his face and eyes with water for at least 15 minutes
Eye irrigation is most important to wash away damaging chemicals.

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15
Q

What is the total magnification of a specimen using a microscope with ocular lenses of 10X and a low power objective lens of 10X?

A. 5X
This can be the magnification of an ocular lens.

B. 10X
This is typical magnification of an ocular lens.

C. 40X
This is typical magnification of the high dry objective lens.

D. 1000X
This is typical magnification of a specimen on oil immersion (ocular lens 10X times oil immersion objective lens 100X).

E. 100X
This is the total magnification of a specimen as determined by multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens times the magnification of the objective lens.

A

E. 100X
This is the total magnification of a specimen as determined by multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens times the magnification of the objective lens.

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16
Q

A patient was seen in the office to discuss a newly diagnosed heart condition. Later in the day, the same patient calls the office with additional questions for the physician. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response by the medical assistant?

A. Transfer the call to the physician immediately.
Only urgent phone calls should be transferred to the physician immediately.

B. Give enough information so that the patient may conduct a web-based search of medical sites on the condition.
The patient should have questions answered by the diagnosing physician.

C. Offer to send a copy of all laboratory reports.
While the patient may want a copy of laboratory reports, this action alone may not answer questions regarding medical diagnosis and treatment.

D. Obtain all necessary information and tell the patient you will inform the physician.
The physician can decide if the patient should make an appointment or if questions can be answered with a phone call.

E. Schedule an appointment for the patient to come in right away to visit with the physician.
Since the patient was just seen, the physician may be able to answer the patient’s questions with a phone call.

A

D. Obtain all necessary information and tell the patient you will inform the physician.
The physician can decide if the patient should make an appointment or if questions can be answered with a phone call.

17
Q

Which of the following parts of Medicare covers the cost of hospital care?

A. Part D
Medicare part D is coverage for prescription drugs.

B. Part C
Part C is the part of Medicare policy that allows private health insurance companies to provide Medicare benefits. These Medicare private health plans, such as HMOs and PPOs, are known as Medicare Advantage plans.

C. Part B
Medicare Part B is coverage for physician’s services

D. Part A
Medicare Part A is coverage for hospital fees for care
Exit ExamPreviousNext

A

D. Part A

Medicare Part A is coverage for hospital fees for care

18
Q

Which of the following suffixes has the same meaning as “ - algia”?

A. -esis
“ - esis” means condition or state of.

B. -pathy
“ - pathy” means disease.

C. -dynia
“ - dynia” and “ - algia” both mean pain.

D. -physis
“ - physis” means to grow.

E. -tropia
“ - tropia” means to turn.

A

C. -dynia

“ - dynia” and “ - algia” both mean pain.

19
Q

Which of the following types of shock is the result of an antigen-antibody reaction?

A. Cardiogenic
This type of shock occurs when the heart is unable to adequately pump blood to the organs and may cause rapid breathing, rapid heart rate, and loss of consciousness. Cardiogenic shock may result in damage to the heart muscle and other organs.

B. Hypovolemic
This type of shock is caused by a loss of about 20% of blood or other body fluids which may be caused from burns, vomiting, excessive perspiration, or internal/external bleeding. Symptoms include anxiety/agitation, confusion, cool/clammy skin, weakness, and decreased urinary output.

C. Psychogenic
This type of shock occurs when blood vessels dilate in response to unpleasant physical or emotional stimuli and typically results in feeling dizzy, nauseous, light headed, and may cause loss of consciousness.

D. Neurogenic
This type of shock occurs when the nervous system is unable to control the diameter of blood vessels and is often the result of a brain or spinal injury. Neurogenic shock results in hypotension and bradycardia which may lead to organ dysfunction and can result in death.

E. Anaphylactic
This is a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur within seconds or minutes of exposure to triggers such as certain foods, medications, insect venom, and other substances. Signs and symptoms may include respiratory distress, rapid, weak pulse, skin rash, nausea, and vomiting.

A

E. Anaphylactic
This is a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur within seconds or minutes of exposure to triggers such as certain foods, medications, insect venom, and other substances. Signs and symptoms may include respiratory distress, rapid, weak pulse, skin rash, nausea, and vomiting.

20
Q

Which of the following is contained in the reference book Current Procedural Terminology (CPT)?

A. Governmental regulations for laboratory procedures
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) is the document that contains this information.

B. Codes for diagnoses
Diagnosis codes are contained in the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-CM) reference book.

C. Codes for reporting physician services
Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) translates services performed into Procedural Codes for billing purposes.

D. Drug administration regulations for physicians’ offices
Drug administration and record keeping requirements are determined by the Drug Enforcement Administration.

E. Medical record keeping requirements
Requirements for keeping medical records are generally determined by state statutes and corporate policies.

A

C. Codes for reporting physician services

Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) translates services performed into Procedural Codes for billing purposes.