Module 4 Flashcards
To confirm a fracture of the distal forearm, the physician would view an x-ray study of which of the following body parts?
A. Tibia and fibula
These are bones of the distal leg.
B. Carpal and metacarpal
These are bones of the hand.
C. Femur and patella
These are bones of the leg.
D. Calcaneus and malleolus
These are bones of the foot.
E. Radius and ulna
These are bones of the forearm.
E. Radius and ulna
These are bones of the forearm.
Which of the following may occur in children who are treated with aspirin for a viral infection?
A. Muscular dystrophy
This is a group of inherited diseases causing weakness and muscle degeneration.
B. Reye’s syndrome
This is a syndrome of increased intracranial pressure, hypoglycemia, and liver dysfunction, potentially occurring in children treated with aspirin for a viral infection.
C. Toxic shock syndrome
This is a severe illness thought to be caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
D. Infectious mononucleosis
This is a disease caused by the Epstein-Barr Virus.
E. Cytomegalovirus infection (CMV)
CMV is a human herpes virus. This virus can cause difficulty in infants and children ranging from minor symptoms to having late effects of vision and hearing loss.
B. Reye’s syndrome
This is a syndrome of increased intracranial pressure, hypoglycemia, and liver dysfunction, potentially occurring in children treated with aspirin for a viral infection.
The physician orders 75 mg of medication to be given intramuscularly. The medication is available in 50mg/mL vials. Which of the following is the correct dose to be administered?
A. 1.5 mL
1.5 mL x 50 mg/mL = 75 mg.
B. 0.5 mL
0.5 mL x 50 mg/mL = 25 mg, not 75 mg.
C. 1.75 mL
1.75 mL x 50 mg/mL = 87.5 mg, not 75mg.
D. 1.0 mL
1.0 mL x 50 mg/mL = 50 mg, not 75mg.
E. 0.75 mL
0.75 mL x 50 mg/mL = 37.5 mg, not 75mg.
A. 1.5 mL
1.5 mL x 50 mg/mL = 75 mg.
Which of the following is the time frame in which a Mantoux (PPD) TB test should be read?
A. 2 to 6 hours
This time frame is too short for an accurate reading of the Mantoux test.
B. 7 to 12 hours
This time frame is too short for an accurate reading of the Mantoux test.
C. 13 to 24 hours
This time frame is too short for an accurate reading of the Mantoux test.
D. 25 to 36 hours
This time frame is too short for an accurate reading of the Mantoux test.
E. 48 to 72 hours
The Mantoux TB test reaction must be read within 48 to 72 hours.
E. 48 to 72 hours
The Mantoux TB test reaction must be read within 48 to 72 hours.
Which of the following is known as the pacemaker of the heart?
A. Bundle of His
This is an area of cardiac tissue which sends a wave of electrical activity to the bundle branches.
B. Bundle branches
These are areas of the cardiac tissue which are stimulated by the Bundle of His and which stimulate the Purkinje fibers.
C. Sinoatrial node
The sinoatrial node is an area of the cardiac tissue known as the pacemaker of the heart.
D. Atrioventricular node
This is an area of heart muscle in the septum which sends a wave of electrical activity to the Bundle of His.
E. Purkinje fibers
These are areas of cardiac muscle which, when stimulated, cause ventricular contraction.
C. Sinoatrial node
The sinoatrial node is an area of the cardiac tissue known as the pacemaker of the heart.
Which of the following methods of examination would be used to determine a patient’s chest size increase from 36 to 42 inches during inspiration?
A. Palpation
Palpation is the examination of the body using the sense of touch.
B. Mensuration
Mensuration is the process of measuring the patient.
C. Percussion
Percussion involves tapping the patient with the fingers and listening to the sounds produced to determine the size, density, and location of an organ.
D. Auscultation
Auscultation is an examination technique that involves listening with a stethoscope to the sounds produced within the body.
E. Inspection
Inspection involves observation of the patient for any signs of disease.
B. Mensuration
Mensuration is the process of measuring the patient.
Which of the following is a description for the term “alopecia”?
A. Depigmentation of the skin
This is the meaning of the term “vitiligo.”
B. Abnormal hairiness
This is the meaning of the term “hirsutism.”
C. Absence of hair
This is the meaning of the term “alopecia.”
D. Loss of epidermis
This is the meaning of the term “erosion.”
E. Night blindness
This is the meaning of the term “nyctalopia.”
C. Absence of hair
This is the meaning of the term “alopecia.”
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action by the medical assistant when answering a telephone call from a patient who is angry about treatment received in the office?
A. Ask the physician to speak to the patient.
Listen to the patient to understand the problem, then refer the patient to the appropriate source.
B. Put the call on hold to give the patient time to calm down.
Listen to the patient to understand the problem.
C. Respond to the patient by using defensive language.
Remain calm and act respectful.
D. Listen as the patient explains the problem.
By listening to the patient, you will better understand the problem and be able to work toward a solution.
E. Immediately transfer the patient’s call to the office manager.
Get all necessary information so the problem can be understood prior to referring the patient to the appropriate source.
D. Listen as the patient explains the problem.
By listening to the patient, you will better understand the problem and be able to work toward a solutiD. Listen as the patient explains the problem.
By listening to the patient, you will better understand the problem and be able to work toward a solution.on.
Termination of the physician-patient relationship can take place appropriately when which of the following actions occur?
A. The last office note is documented to return for further treatment as needed.
This does not constitute legal documentation of patient dismissal.
B. The patient sends a letter to the physician refusing any further care and the physician sends a written response accepting, while offering referrals and medical records to the patient.
This is an acceptable termination.
C. The patient’s medical record is flagged as inactive.
This action alone does not establish a lawful termination.
D. Further office appointments are denied by the medical assistant.
The medical assistant does not have the authority to make decisions regarding denial of care.
E. At a scheduled appointment, the physician refuses to examine the patient or give further care to the patient due to noncompliance by the patient.
B. The patient sends a letter to the physician refusing any further care and the physician sends a written response accepting, while offering referrals and medical records to the patient.
This is an acceptable termination.
Which of the following color-coded evacuated tubes should be used when collecting blood if a serum specimen is required?
A. Red
This tube contains no anticoagulant and yields serum after the blood has clotted.
B. Lavender
This tube contains EDTA and is commonly used for hematology tests and will yield plasma if centrifuged.
C. Gray
This tube contains the anticoagulant sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate and will yield plasma if centrifuged.
D. Light blue
This tube contains the anticoagulant sodium citrate and is commonly used for coagulation studies and will yield plasma if centrifuged.
E. Green
This tube contains the anticoagulant heparin and will yield plasma if centrifuged.
A. Red
This tube contains no anticoagulant and yields serum after the blood has clotted.
A woman whose mother recently died of breast cancer is discovered to have a breast tumor and does not return for her follow-up appointment. Which of the following defense mechanisms is most likely contributing to the patient’s actions?
A. Regression
This means returning to the emotional or behavioral level of an earlier stage of growth and development.
B. Displacement
This refers to shifting an emotion or behavior from oneself to a more acceptable substitute.
C. Rationalization
This is assigning logical reasons or excuses to justify a situation or behavior the person does not want to acknowledge.
D. Denial
This refers to failing to hear or accept information that may provoke anxiety or fear.
E. Compensation
This is a process of psychologically counterbalancing perceived weaknesses by emphasizing strength in other areas.
D. Denial
This refers to failing to hear or accept information that may provoke anxiety or fear.
Which of the following is the serous membrane that lines the abdomen and covers the viscera?
A. Meninges
This is the protective membrane that surrounds the brain and spinal cord.
B. Perineum
This is the region of the female pelvis between the vaginal orifice and the anus.
C. Pericardium
This is the double-layered membrane surrounding the heart.
D. Peritoneum
The peritoneum is the double-folded membrane lining the abdominal cavity.
E. Pleura
This is the double-folded membrane surrounding each lung.
D. Peritoneum
The peritoneum is the double-folded membrane lining the abdominal cavity.
The term “hypophysis” refers to which of the
following?
A. Hypothalamus
This is a region of the brain above the pituitary gland.
B. Adrenal medulla
This is the inner portion of the adrenal gland.
C. Pituitary gland
Hypophysis is another term for the pituitary gland.
D. Thyroid gland
This is a gland on either side of the trachea.
E. Medulla oblongata
This is an area of the brainstem that connects the spinal cord with the rest of the brain.
C. Pituitary gland
Hypophysis is another term for the pituitary gland.
Which of the following is a characteristic being demonstrated by a medical assistant who is able to imagine taking the place of the patient and is therefore better able to understand the patient’s behavior?
A. Integrity
This term refers to demonstrating honesty.
B. Sympathy
This term describes feeling pity for someone.
C. Patient advocacy
This refers to the practice of acting in the best interest of patient.
D. Objectivity
This is the ability to see and analyze information.
E. Empathy
This term refers to the ability to understand what someone else is feeling.
E. Empathy
This term refers to the ability to understand what someone else is feeling.
When are co-payments due from patients with managed-care plans typically collected?
A. At the time a patient is sent a statement
Co-payments are normally collected at the time of service.
B. At the time services are rendered
It is standard practice to collect co-payments from patients with managed-care plans at the time of service.
C. Co-payments are not typically collected from patients with managed-care plans
Co-payments are required to be collected from the patient.
D. After all test results are reviewed with the patient
Co-payments are normally collected at the time that services are rendered.
E. Before the patient comes in for an office visit
Co-payments are normally collected at the time of service.
B. At the time services are rendered
It is standard practice to collect co-payments from patients with managed-care plans at the time of service.
