Module 10 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following serum levels is most likely to be increased in a patient with liver disease?

A. Creatinine
The kidneys maintain the serum creatinine in a normal range. An elevated serum creatinine level signifies impaired kidney function or disease.

B. Calcium
A serum calcium level is usually ordered to screen for conditions related to bones, heart, nerves, kidneys and teeth.

C. Acid Phosphatase
Acid Phosphatase is produced by the prostate gland and may be increased in prostate cancer.

D. Uric Acid
An elevated serum uric acid level is generally found in the diagnosis of gout.

 E. Alanine Aminotransferase
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is found inside liver cells and when the liver is damaged or inflamed, ALT can be released into the bloodstream.
A
E. Alanine Aminotransferase
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is found inside liver cells and when the liver is damaged or inflamed, ALT can be released into the bloodstream.
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2
Q

Patients are most likely to remember instructions when the medical assistant uses which of the following educational methods?

A. The instructions are written.
Patients remember and are better able to understand a printed document. They can refer back to it as necessary.

B. Detailed instructions are repeated several times on a video.
Too much information can confuse a patient, which makes it less likely to be remembered.

C. Instructions are discussed at length face to face.
It is better to give written instructions and allow patient to read the information more than once. Information overload can cause patient to lose focus/ interest.

D. The most important information is saved for last.
Attention span may be short and patient may not be focused by that time.

E. Medical terms are emphasized.
Simple lay terms are better understood by patients.

A

A. The instructions are written.

Patients remember and are better able to understand a printed document. They can refer back to it as necessary.

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3
Q

Which of the following is the best course of action for the medical assistant to take when responding to a call from a patient who had an intramuscular injection earlier in the day and who now reports weakness in that arm?

A. Obtain as much information as possible, explaining to the patient that the doctor will be advised and the call returned.
This situation requires medical decision-making and should be handled by the physician.

B. Make an appointment for the patient and inform the physician of the problem.
The first course of action is for the physician to give the patient advice.

C. Explain to the patient that this is a normal reaction and if the weakness does not improve in a few days, call back.
This decision-making is outside the scope of the medical assistant. The physician should handle this patient complaint.

D. Tell the patient to keep a heating pad on the arm and take two aspirin.
This is providing independent medical advice and is outside the scope of the medical assistant. The physician must be notified and give any orders.

E. Refer the patient to a neurologist for evaluation.
The medical assistant should not make referrals. The physician must be notified.

A

A. Obtain as much information as possible, explaining to the patient that the doctor will be advised and the call returned.
This situation requires medical decision-making and should be handled by the physician.

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4
Q

Which of the following is most appropriate to protect the privacy of the patient when sending a fax that includes personal information about a patient?

A. Omit the subject on the cover page.
The subject should be on the cover page.

B. Use a unique number to identify the patient.
This would not be routinely used for faxes.

C. Send the patient’s information between two blank pages.
This would have no bearing on protecting privacy.

D. Include a cover page with a confidentiality statement.
This is required to help protect privacy.

E. Shred the transmission report.
A copy of the transmission report should be maintained.

A

D. Include a cover page with a confidentiality statement.

This is required to help protect privacy.

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5
Q

The medical assistant obtains vitals for the 48- year-old male patient she has just roomed. His vitals are: Blood Pressure 114/72, Pulse: 90, Temperature 97.2 F (36.2 C), Respirations 14 and a Pulse Oximetry of 89 %.The medical assistant recognizes that this patient is demonstrating signs of which of the following?

A. Hypoxemia
Pulse oximetry between 95% - 100% is considered optimal. Below 90% is deficient in oxygen.

B. Hypertension
This patient has normal blood pressure. Stage one hypertension begins at 130/80.

C. Febrile illness
This patient demonstrates a body temperature within the normal range of 97 F (36.1 C) to 99 F (37.2 C).

D. Tachypnea
This is the term for rapid breathing. The respiration rate is within normal limits for an adult which is generally accepted to be 12 – 18 breaths per minute.

E. Bradycardia
Bradycardia is recognized as a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute.

A

A. Hypoxemia

Pulse oximetry between 95% - 100% is considered optimal. Below 90% is deficient in oxygen.

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6
Q

Which of the following is a suffix that denotes destruction?

A. –orrhaphy
This refers to suturing in place.

B. –pexy
This refers to surgical fixation.

C. –lysis
This refers to loosening/cutting/destruction.

D. –ectomy
This means to remove.

E. –plasty
This refers to surgical repair.

A

C. –lysis

This refers to loosening/cutting/destruction.

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7
Q

The process of listening to the sounds produced within the body is known as which of the following?

A. Auscultation
The physician listens to body sounds with a stethoscope.

B. Inspection
Inspection is observing to detect objective data.

C. Mensuration
Mensuration is measuring.

D. Palpation
Palpation is touching.

E. Percussion
Percussion is tapping of the fingers on the body or using a small hammer to test reflexes.

A

A. Auscultation

The physician listens to body sounds with a stethoscope.

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8
Q

Which of the following characteristics would enable a medical assistant to effectively communicate with patients?

A. Stereotyping
Grouping patients based on characteristics interferes with communication.

B. Impartiality
Treating patients equally based on their needs enhances communication.

C. Biases
Prejudice prevents effective communication.

D. Judgmental
Personal values of the medical assistant may differ from the patient’s and a judgmental attitude will decrease patient communication.

E. Discrimination
Actions against certain groups of individuals would prevent effective communication.

A

B. Impartiality

Treating patients equally based on their needs enhances communication.

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9
Q

An operation to correct pyloric stenosis would be performed on which of the following systems?

A. Digestive
The pyloric sphincter is located between the stomach and the duodenum.

B. Reproductive
This system does not have a pyloric sphincter.

C. Cardiovascular
This system does not have a pyloric sphincter.

D. Musculoskeletal
This system does not have a pyloric sphincter.

E. Urinary
This system does not have a pyloric sphincter.

A

A. Digestive

The pyloric sphincter is located between the stomach and the duodenum.

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10
Q

Which of the following is a suture material that is absorbable?

A. Silk
This is a non-absorbable suture material and is not affected by tissue enzymes.

B. Nylon
This is a non-absorbable suture material and is not affected by tissue enzymes.

C. Dacron
This is a non-absorbable suture material and is not affected by tissue enzymes.

D. Catgut
This is an absorbable suture material and is gradually broken down by tissue enzymes and absorbed by body tissue.

A

D. Catgut

This is an absorbable suture material and is gradually broken down by tissue enzymes and absorbed by body tissue.

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11
Q

Which of the following medical documents will the health care provider use to record the care plan of the patient?

A. Discharge Summary
This is a summary of the events of a patient’s hospitalization.

B. Consultation
This is a narrative report of a clinical opinion about a patient’s condition by a practitioner other that the primary physician.

C. Progress Note
Updates the medical record with new information and records the plan of care for the patient.

D. Operative Report
This is a report that documents the surgical procedure that the patient underwent.

E. Health History
This is a collection of subjective health data obtained by interviewing the patient.

A

C. Progress Note

Updates the medical record with new information and records the plan of care for the patient.

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12
Q

Which of the following terms describes an abnormal lateral curvature of a patient’s spine?

A. Kyphosis
This term describes abnormal posterior curvature of the spine.

B. Scoliosis
This is a lateral curvature of the spine of more than 10 degrees to the right or left as the examiner faces the patient.

C. Spondylosis
This term is used to describe degenerative osteoarthritis of the joints between the center of the spinal vertebrae and/or neural foramina.

D. Lordosis
This is an abnormal anterior convexity of the lumbar spine, not posterior.

E. Ankylosis
This term refers to immobility or stiffness of a joint due to disease, injury, or a surgical procedure.

A

B. Scoliosis
This is a lateral curvature of the spine of more than 10 degrees to the right or left as the examiner faces the patient. Upon accepting a patient for treatment, the physician has a duty to do which of the following?

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13
Q

Upon accepting a patient for treatment, the physician has a duty to do which of the following?

A. Provide services similar to that of other physicians with the same level of training who provide the same service.
The physician has a duty to use reasonable skill that would be consistent with treatment of reputable practitioners in the same field.

B. Possess the highest degree of skill possible.
The physician’s duty to the patient does not require the care to be the same as the most skilled physicians within that field.

C. Be free from errors in judgment.
Physicians should secure all necessary data on which to base a sound judgment. Medicine is an inexact science, and absence of errors cannot be guaranteed.

D. Guarantee a successful result if an operation is performed.
If a professional does exactly what any other reputable professional would have done and the patient has a poor outcome, the physician is not necessarily negligent.

E. Restore the patient to the same condition as before treatment began.
Some medical conditions cannot be restored and may be ongoing or progressive.

A

A. Provide services similar to that of other physicians with the same level of training who provide the same service.
The physician has a duty to use reasonable skill that would be consistent with treatment of reputable practitioners in the same field.

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14
Q

Which of the following is another term for “adipose”?

A. Fat
The term “adipose” means “fat”.

B. Tendon
This is fibrous connective tissue that connects muscle to bone or cartilage.

C. Muscle
This is tissue which contracts causing movement.

D. Lymph
This is fluid found in lymphatic vessels.

E. Skin
This is the outer protective covering of the body.

A

A. Fat

The term “adipose” means “fat”.

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15
Q

For an examination and inspection of the spine, which of the following positions best describes how the medical assistant will place the patient on the examination table?

A. Prone
The patient would be face down, flat for spine exam.

B. Trendelenburg
The body is laid flat on the back (supine position) with the feet higher than the head by 15-30 degrees.

C. Dorsal recumbent
The patient would be flat on the back. This position is for examination of abdomen and general exam.

D. Lithotomy
This position is used for pelvic exams with legs in stirrups.

E. Knee-chest
This position can be used for anal/rectal exam or treatment.

A

A. Prone

The patient would be face down, flat for spine exam.

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16
Q

Which of the following foods should be eliminated from the diet of a patient on a sodium restricted diet?

A. Baked fish products
Fish is low in sodium, unless the sodium is added during food preparation.

B. Fried chicken
Chicken is low sodium unless added by preparer.

C. Fresh fruits
Fruits are naturally low in sodium.

D. Pasteurized, processed cheese
Processed cheese is high in sodium content.

E. Green leafy vegetables
These are low sodium unless added by preparer.

A

D. Pasteurized, processed cheese

Processed cheese is high in sodium content.

17
Q
  1. Which of the following is the first information the medical assistant should request to help determine the urgency of scheduling a patient who telephones requesting a same-day appointment?

A. Name, address, telephone number and age
This is important information to obtain, but would not help to determine the urgency of a problem.

B. Whether anything makes the problem better or worse
This is helpful information, but more in-depth than is necessary to determine the urgency of the problem.

C. The appointment time that is most convenient for the patient
While it would be nice to always offer a patient the most convenient time, the patient may not know how serious the problem is, or the office may not be able to work the patient in that day if the schedule is full.
D. Nature, onset, duration, and intensity of the problem
This information will help to determine the urgency of the problem.

E. Date of last visit and previous history of the stated problem
This information may be helpful, but would not determine urgency of a problem.

A

D. Nature, onset, duration, and intensity of the problem

This information will help to determine the urgency of the problem.

18
Q

Which of the following conditions would most likely result in unequal pupils?

A. Diabetic coma
This condition is caused by extremely high blood sugar and does not cause unequal pupil size.

B. Drug overdose
This can cause changes in pupil size, but does not cause them to be unequal in size.

C. Cerebrovascular accident
Unequal pupils are a sign of neurological damage, which occurs most often in a stroke (CVA).

D. Cardiac arrest
When the heart stops beating, eventually pupils become dilated and fixed, but not unequal.

E. Tonic-clonic seizure
While epilepsy is a neurological disorder, it does not cause pupils to be unequal in size.

A

C. Cerebrovascular accident

Unequal pupils are a sign of neurological damage, which occurs most often in a stroke (CVA).

19
Q

Morphine and Demerol are classified in which of the following categories of drugs?

A. Anticholinergics
Anticholinergics are substances that block the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the central and peripheral nervous system.

B. Antihistamines
Antihistamines block the action of histamine and are used to treat allergic symptoms.

C. Emetics
Emetics induce vomiting and may be used to treat certain types of poisoning.

D. Analgesics
Analgesics lessen pain. Opioid analgesics include morphine and Demerol.

E. Anticonvulsants
Anticonvulsants prevent or reduce the severity and frequency of seizures in various types of epilepsy.

A

D. Analgesics

Analgesics lessen pain. Opioid analgesics include morphine and Demerol.

20
Q

Which of the following suffixes refers to eating?

A. –phonia
This suffix refers to voice/sound.

B. –algia
This suffix refers to pain.

C. –phagia
This suffix refers to eating or swallowing.

D. –phasia
This suffix refers to speech.

E. –ptosis
This suffix refers to the downward displacement of position.

A

C. –phagia

This suffix refers to eating or swallowing.