Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMT 1 > Module 6- Medical Emergencies 1 > Flashcards

Module 6- Medical Emergencies 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q
  1. There are three etiologies of shock. Explain how each of them causes the patient to fall into hypoperfusion
    a. Inadequate volume
    b. Inadequate pump function
    c. Inadequate vessel tone.
A

A. Inadequate volume:
Adequate volume is needed be able to Sys. Pressure & circulate O2 to blood tissues. “Tubing” not being full enough, does not allow for blood to perfuse through adequately & reach the tissues.
(Loss of Fluid)

B. Inadequate pump function:
Heart acts as the “pump” to create enough force to pump the liquid. “Pump” failing creates shock state. (no Fluid loss just broken pump)

C. Inadequate vessel tone:
“Tone” refers to size of vessel. The to must be adequate for proper pressure to be maintained. (loss of tone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain the difference between hypovolemic shock and distributive shock.

A

Hypovolemic shock is where there is a significant loss of blood (more then 1/5)

where is distributive shock is due to excessive vasodilation or vessel permeability to occur which causes loss in vascular tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens to the pt in anaphylaxis?
a. What can we do to combat this?

A
  • In anaphylaxis, chemical mediators that are released in a reaction cause massive and systemic vasodilation.
  • chemical mediators also cause capillaries to become permeable and leak

Treatment:

administering Epinephrine: which is alpha properties that cause vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What can we do to combat hemorrhagic shock?

A
  1. Stop the bleeding
  2. Immediate transport
  3. Give Blood to PT to replace loss of fluid
  4. surgical intervention may be needed to stop the bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the difference between compensated shock and decompensated shock?

A

Compensated shock is where the body is actively trying to fight against the shock and maintain BP by releasing hormones

decompensated shock is where the body is no longer able to fight against the shock and hypoperfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens to the pt as they move from decompensated shock to irreversible shock?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the signs of shock in adult patients?
a. Early signs?
b. Late signs?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the signs of shock in pediatric patients?
a. Early signs?
b. Late signs?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

With shock management, how do you secure and maintain a patients airway?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For shock management, what tools can be used to establish and maintain adequate ventilation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For shock management, What are your options here to increase the pt’s oxygen?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why is hyperventilation in shock pt’s a bad idea?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Shock Management: why should we be aggressive with bleeding control?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Shock management, Do you splint fractures in the primary assessment or the secondary?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why do you NOT remove impaled objects?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When would you remove an impaled object?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does hypothermia impact your pt in shock?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

During shock management we keep the patient in a supine position
Why supine?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During shock management, Why don’t we use the invert the pt anymore?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

At what point in the assessment would you like to call for ALS back up?

A

In scene size up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you decide whether to wait on the scene for ALS back up or to transport and intercept with them?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Your pt has no pulse and the AED advises a shock, what rhythm are they probably in?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some reasons/situations that using the AED is contraindicated?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do we separate the upper and lower airway?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Explain the difference between:
a. Respiratory Distress
b. Respiratory Failure
c. Respiratory Arrest

A

A. Respiratory distress:
is the first stage of respiratory issue and the characterized by bodys struggle to maintain adequate gas exchange. Body is still fighting to maintain adequate gas exchange

b. Respiratory Failure:

second stage where the bodys

C. Respiratory Distress:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

For albuterol know the following:

a. Route
b. Dose
c. Indications
d. Contraindications
e. Intended action
f. Side effects

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

For Narcan know the following:

a. Route
b. Dose
c. Indications
d. Contraindications
e. Intended action
f. Side effects

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

For Epinephrine know the following:

a. Route
b. Dose
c. Indications
d. Contraindications
e. Intended action
f. Side effects

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the difference between Arteriosclerosis and Atherosclerosis?

A

Arteriosclerosis is a disease that cause the arteries walls to thicken.

where atherosclerosis is a type of arteriosclerosis that is due to plaque build up in the arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the job of the Coronary arteries?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What happens when blood flow to the heart is restricted?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What happens when the heart is starved for oxygen?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What two treatments do we have for myocardial infarction?
a. What does each do?

A
  1. Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI):

is a general term describing procedures used to open an obstructed artery w/o invasive surgery

  1. Fibrinolytic therapy:

Medications used to dissolve clots in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Explain the difference between an aortic aneurysm and aortic dissection.

A

An aortic aneurysm is a bulge in the aorta’s wall, while an aortic dissection is a tear in the inner lining of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What would you expect to find during your assessment that would lead you to believe your pt is having a AAA?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What can you do as an EMT for a AAA

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe what is happening to your pt’s heart when they tell you they have heart failure.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe what is happening to your pt’s heart when they tell you they have heart failure.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What might you expect to find during your assessment in a pt that has heart failure?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

know the following for Nitro:

a. Route
b. Dose
c. Indications
d. Contraindications
e. Intended action
f. Side effects

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

know the following for Aspirin:

a. Route
b. Dose
c. Indications
d. Contraindications
e. Intended action
f. Side effects

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

AMS / ALOC

What is the one thing you should check on all patients that are altered?
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

There are two types of Strokes ischemic and hemorrhagic. Explain the difference between the two:

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Explain the difference between a stroke and a TIA.

A

In a TIA , unlike a stroke, the blockage is brief and there is no permanent damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Your patient has experienced a TIA but their symptoms have resolved why should you discourage them from refusing care.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the components of a pre-hospital stroke scale?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Should you give aspirin for a suspected stroke?

A
48
Q

What are fibrinolytics?

A

a class of drugs that dissolve blood clots

49
Q

Why should you be concerned if someone tells you they are having “the worst headache of their life?”

A
50
Q

Does every seizure result in convulsions?

A
51
Q

is a seizure a Cause or a symptom of something else?

A
52
Q

explain the difference between a generalized seizure and a partial seizure.

A

A generalized seizure affects both sides of the brain simultaneously, causing widespread symptoms like loss of consciousness and muscle jerking

while a partial seizure (focal seizure) only affects one specific area of the brain, potentially leading to localized symptoms like unusual sensations or muscle twitching in a single body part, with varying levels of awareness depending on the affected brain region

53
Q

Why should you be concerned about a patient suffering from status epilepticus?

A
54
Q

is it physically possible for your patient to swallow their tongue?

A

No

55
Q

what age group is particularly at risk from febrile seizures?

A
56
Q

when is it appropriate to physically restrain a seizure patient?

A
57
Q

Does the disease diabetes have to do with blood sugar levels that are too high for blood sugar levels that are too low?

A
58
Q

Are diabetic patients the only population that is susceptible to low blood sugar?

A
59
Q

How would a diabetic patient become hyperglycemic?

A
60
Q

How would a diabetic patient become hypoglycemic?

A
61
Q

Why do we check blood sugar on every patient that is in any way not at their neurologic Baseline?

A
62
Q

What does it mean to be a type 1 diabetic?

A
63
Q

what age group are you typically diagnosed as a type 1 diabetic?

A
64
Q

what does it mean to be a type 2 diabetic?

A
65
Q

What age group gets diagnosed with type 2?

A
66
Q

What age group gets diagnosed with type 2?

A
67
Q

What can you do as an EMT to treat a patient with hyperglycemia?

A
68
Q

For oral glucose know the following:

a. Route
b. Dose
c. Indications
d. Contraindications
e. Intended action
f. Side effects

A
69
Q

For Intranasal glucagon know the following:

a. Route
b. Dose
c. Indications
d. Contraindications
e. Intended action
f. Side effects

A
70
Q

The tricuspid valve prevents blood​ from:

A

Flowing from the right ventricle into the right atrium

71
Q

acute coronary syndrome

A
72
Q

The assessment mnemonic developed to help the public and EMS recognize a stroke, aligning with the AHA’s Stroke Chain of Survival?

A

“FAST”

Face
Arm
Speech
Time

73
Q

When assessing a patient with a suspected​ stroke, the order of the exam would​ be:

A

Secondary​ assessment, primary​ assessment, stroke​ exam, and then SAMPLE history

74
Q

What is Aphasia?

A

is a language disorder caused by damage to parts of the brain that control speech and understanding of language

75
Q

What are the 5 categories of shock?

A
  • Obstructive
  • Distributive
  • Cardiogenic
  • Hypovolemic
  • Metabolic/Respiratory
76
Q

Explain cardiogenic shock:

A

Shock that is caused by a cardiac problem.

“pump” is broken

77
Q

Explain Distributive shock:

A

shock that is caused by excessive vasodilation or excessive permeability

78
Q

What are 3 examples of distributive shock and what are they ?

A
  • Septic shock:
    Excessive vasodilation caused by body’s aggressive response to disease or pathogen itself.
  • Anaphylactic shock:
    Vasodilation and increased vessel permeability due to exaggerated body response due to allergen
  • Neurogenic shock:
    vasodilation due to impaired sympathetic nervous system function such as spinal cord injury.
79
Q

Explain obstructive shock:

A

shock that occurs when blood is physically blocked from flowing to vital parts of the body.

80
Q

What are some examples of obstructive shock?

A
  • Tension pneumothorax
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Paracardial tamponade
81
Q

Explain metabolic/Respiratory shock:

A

shock that is hypoperfusion caused by inability for oxygen to reach the cells and be used for normal metabolism.

Something other then oxygen is attaching to hemoglobin (carbon monoxide, cyanide)

82
Q

What are some examples of metabolic/respiratory shock:

A

Cyanide and carbon monoxide poisoning

83
Q

Explain Hypovolemic shock:

A

Shock that is caused when there is a massive decrease in intravascular volume (1/5 or more)

84
Q

Identify and explain the two types of hypovolemic shock:

A
  • hemorrhage:
    Shock due to loss of whole blood b/c of something bleeding (traumatic injury and internal bleeding)
  • non-Hemorrhage:
    shock due to loss of body fluid, not whole blood
85
Q

what are some examples of cardiogenic shock?

A
  • Myocardial infarction (Heart attack)
  • Congestive heart failure
86
Q

Shock is classified into what two stages ?

A

Compensated and decompensated

86
Q

What is compensated shoch and its S/S?

A

Compensated shock is where for a short time the body tries to compensate and maintain body’s BP

S/S:

  • Anxiety
  • Normal BP
  • Mild tachycardia
  • Thready pulse
  • Slight to moderate Tachypnea
  • Pale, cool, moist skin
87
Q

What is decompensated shock and its S/S?

A

Full on shock, where the body can no longer compensate for the hypoperfusion

S/S:

  • Altered mental status
  • Hypotension
  • Marked tachycardia (>120 HR) that may progress to Bradycardia
  • Pulse is weak, becoming absent
  • Tachypnea progressing to respiratory failure
88
Q

For shock management what S/S show show and dont shock for elderly patients?

A

S/S for shock:
- MOI/NOI
- Vital sign trends
- Altered mental status
- Tachypnea

S/S not shown:
- Tachycardia
- Diaphoresis
- Low BP

89
Q

What is the objective of treatment for shock?

A

to improve oxygenation of the blood and delivery of oxygen and glucose to the cell

90
Q

What are the treatment goals in shock?

A
  1. to identify PT state and type of shock
  2. to identify the underlying cause of shock
  3. to treat the shock
91
Q

What are the 3 major pulmonary diseases?

A
  • Asthma
  • Emphysema
  • Bronchitis
92
Q

Name of condition: Chronic Bronchitis

b. Cause of condition
c. Common findings
d. Treatments

A

b. Cause of condition:

c. Common findings:

  • Chronic Cyanosis
  • Increased mucus production
  • Plugs alveoli and prevents ventilation
  • Fluid retention

d. Treatments

93
Q

Name of condition: Emphysema

b. Cause of condition
c. Common findings
d. Treatments

A

b. Cause of condition:

Emphysema damages the alveoli and capillary beds.

c. Common findings:

  • older patients
  • Primarily smokers
  • Destroy alveoli and pulmonary capillaries
  • Flushed and diaphoretic

d. Treatments

94
Q

What is Dyspnea? Hypoxia?

A

Dyspnea: Shortness of breath
Hypoxia: condition that occurs when the body’s tissues don’t have enough oxygen

95
Q

What is the primary treatment for all respiratory diseases?

A
  • Oxygen therapy
  • PPV
  • Assisting with bronchodilator meds
  • High priority transport
96
Q

List all the key findings with the following:

A
97
Q

Name of condition: Asthma

b. Cause of condition
c. Common findings
d. Treatments

A

b. Cause of condition

c. Common findings:

  • Younger Patients
  • Rapid onset
  • Acute narrowing of bronchi causes obstruction
  • normal between exacerbations

d. Treatments

98
Q

Name of condition: Pneumonia

b. Cause of condition
c. Common findings
d. Treatments

A

b. Cause of condition
c. Common findings:

  • Fever and chills
  • Blood tinged sputum
  • Occlusion of alveoli with fluid or pus
  • Sharp pain or cough

d. Treatments

99
Q

Name of condition: Pulmonary embolism (PE’s)

b. Cause of condition
c. Common findings
d. Treatments

A

b. Cause of condition
c. Common findings:

  • Sudden onset dyspnea
  • SpO2 does not improve with high flow oxygen
  • Recent history of trauma or surgery
  • No blood flow to pulmonary capillaries

d. Treatments

100
Q

What are the 5 major structures of the heart and what do they do?

A
  1. Sinoatrial node (SA Node): Stimulates atrial contraction
  2. Atrioventricular node (AV Node): Delays impulse
  3. Bundle of His : segment arising from the AV node
  4. Right/Left Bundle branches: Branch to the right and left ventricles
  5. Purkinje fibers: stimulates the ventricles
101
Q

What is Arteriosclerosis?

A

Disease of the arteries resulting in thickening of vessel walls

102
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A

A type of arteriosclerosis due to plaque formation in large and medium muscular arteries

103
Q

what is the path of blood through the heart?

A

RA, Tricuspid, RV, Pulmonic valve, Pulmonary artery, Lungs, Pulmonary veins, LA, Bicuspid (Mitral) Valve, LV, Aortic valve, Aorta

104
Q

Left heart failure causes ____________ edema.
Right heart failure causes ____________ edema.

A

Left heart = pulmonary edema
Right heart = systemic edema

105
Q

Define ventilation, respiration, and perfusion.

A

Ventilation:
The movement of air into the lungs

Respiration:
The movement of gases from one area of the body into the other

Perfusion:
The movement of blood through tissues

106
Q

What is the treatment of Stable angina?

A
  • Assure adequate ABC’s
  • If possible remove stressor
  • Administer oxygen if indicated by pulse ox
  • IF protocols permit administer NTG and aspirin
107
Q

What is the treatment Myocardial infarction?

A
108
Q

What are the typical and atypical sign and symptoms of MI (Heart attack) ?

A

Typical presentation (PT’s under 70)

  • Anginal chest discomfort radiating to arm, jaw or neck
  • Dull crushing anginal chest pain
  • pale, cool, clammy, diaphoretic
  • Dyspnea without exertion
  • Most commonly seen in males over 45
  • about 50% of MI have typical presentation

Atypical (PT’s over 70, females, and diabetics)

  • Pain is not anginal in nature
  • Pain may be sharp and not dull
  • may be described as abdominal pain, back pain, GI upset, etc
109
Q

What is a aneurysm?

A

An Abnormal dilation of any blood vessel walls or heart chamber

110
Q

Name what would be assess for end organ function?

A
  • Chest pain: may indicate MI
  • Back pain: aortic dissention
  • dyspnea: Congestive heart failure
  • Neurological function: stroke , seizure or hypertensive encephalopathy
  • Visual field: may indicate retinopathy or stroke
  • epistaxis (nosebleed): Patients with non-traumatic epistaxis have a higher incidence of hypertension
  • Jugular vain dissention: To identify possible congestive heart failure
  • Bilateral breath sounds: To identify pulmonary edema
  • abdomen: palpate for pulsatile masses indicative of aortic aneurysm
  • Vital signs: check BP in both arms
111
Q

what are the S/S of Left heart failure (Pulmonary side) ?

A
  • shortness of breath
  • upright posture
  • cyanosis
  • pulmonary edema (crackles on auscultation of the lungs)
  • Wheezing
  • Altered level of consciousness
  • Elevated BP
112
Q

what are the S/S of Right heart failure ?

A
  • Lower extremity edema
  • Pitting edema
  • Ascites: accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity
  • Jugular vain dissention
  • combination of both sides of heart failure will show both sides of symptoms
113
Q

What is the Treatment of Myocardial infarction (MI)?

A
  • Assure adequate ABC’s
  • Assure adequate ventilation : PPV may be helpful
  • administer oxygen if needed
  • Nitroglycerin may be used
114
Q

What are the current recommendations for oxygen therapy?

A
  • give only to hypoxic patients
  • Give only the necessary amount to correct hypoxia
  • O2 is administered to Medical PT’s less than 94
    % or 95% for trauma
  • Device and liter flow are selected based on getting stats above 94%

EMT 1 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions