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EMT 1 > Module 1 - Introduction > Flashcards

Module 1 - Introduction Flashcards

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1
Q

what is NHTSA and what does it do?

A

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration

  • provides a set of standards to evaluate effectiveness of states EMS system
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2
Q

What is the TAP?

A

Technical Assistance Program guidelines given by the government (NHTSA) for all states to follow

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3
Q

what are the recommended standards under TAP?

A

Evaluation

Trauma Systems

Medical Direction

Communication and Public Information

Transportation and Facilities

Resources, HR, and Training

Regulation and Policy

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4
Q

Evaluation (TAP)

A

Each state must QIS for Evaluation and and upgrades to system

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5
Q

Trauma Systems (TAP)

A

Each state must develop a system of specialized care for trauma patients, including one or more trauma centers, and rehab programs

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6
Q

Medical direction (TAP)

A

Each EMS sys. must have a physician as a medical director for oversight

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7
Q

Communication and public information (TAP)

A

Communication:

System of comms must be in place to provide public access to system and communications for dispatcher, ems and hospital personnel

Public information:

system should educate public about aspects of EMS

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8
Q

Transportation and Facilities (TAP)

A

Transportation:

Patients must be provided safe, reliable transportation by ground/air

Facilities:

Each seriously ill injured patient must be delivered to appropriate medical facilities

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9
Q

Resources, HR, and Training (TAP)

A
  • Each state must have control of resources
  • all ambulance staff must be training at least EMT level
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10
Q

Regulation and Policy (TAP)

A

Each state must have laws, regulations, and policies that govern EMS

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11
Q

What are the four level of training?

A

EMR, EMT, AEMT, paramedic

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12
Q

What is an EMR (emergency medical responder) Do ?

A

CPR

AED utilization

Basic bleeding control

basic airway

ventilation

O2 therapy

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13
Q

What is the EMT (Emergency Medical Technician) do?

A
  • All skills allowed by EMR and:
  • Limited medication administration
  • Advanced O2 therapy (Supraglottic airways)
  • Monitoring blood glucose levels
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14
Q

What is An AEMT (Advanced emergency medical technician) do?

A
  • EMR, EMT skills and:
  • administer a select number of medications
  • Initiate IV and/or intraosseous infusions
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15
Q

What does a paramedic do ?

A
  • All EMR, EMT, AEMT skills and
  • Adv. patient assessment and management
  • 12 lead interpretation
  • Drug therapy
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16
Q

what is the 5 centers you can transport patients to?

A
  • Psychiatric center
  • Burn Center
  • Obstetrics/ pediatric centers
  • trauma center
  • Cardiac center/PCI (Percutaneous Coronary Intervention Center)
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17
Q

What was the “white paper” in 1966 and what did it do for EMS care?

A

it was the paper published by National Academy of Sciences National Research Research council titled “Accidental death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society”

  • detailed the # of deaths and injuries related to MVA
  • identified severe decencies in the delivery of pre-hospital care in US
  • Recommended changes to ambulance systems, training req., and preparation of prehospital care
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18
Q

how is the states role and national role defined?

A
  • Each state has control of its EMS system
  • NHTSA (National Highway Traffic Safety Administration) provides a set of recommended standards called TAP (Technical Assistance Program)
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19
Q

what is the medical director responsible for?

A
  • Providing Medical oversight For EMS system

clinical and patient care aspects of EMS system

involved in EMS training and education

  • Must be Licensed medical physican
  • provides guides and protocols

-off-line and on-line medical direction for EMT

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20
Q

What is off-line medical direction ?

A

standing orders that allow EMT’s to use own judgement within predetermined guidelines WITHOUT having to contact a physician

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21
Q

What is EMT role in QIC?

A
  • Documenting carefully
  • volunteering on a committee or critiquing other EMTS on scene
  • obtaining feedback
  • maintaing equipment (preventative maintenance checks)
  • Doing CE courses
  • Maintaining skills
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21
Q

What is on-line medical direction?

A

Requires EMT to require permission from a physician via cell phone or radio prior to administering specific emergency care

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22
Q

What does a QIC (Quality improvement committee) do?

A

Identify those aspects of the system that can be improved and implement plans and programs that will remedy shortcomings

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23
Q

What is evidence based medicine do?

A

Uses research to provide clear evidence that certain procedures, medications, and equipment are beneficial to patient outcomes

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23
Q

HIV/AIDS transmission mode and Incubation period?

A
  • Blood, semen, vaginal fluid, blood transfusion, needlestick, transplacental, breast feeding
  • Months
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24
Q

PPE needed for HIV/AIDS?

A

Gloves, eyewear, hand washing

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25
Q

HEP B/C transmission mode and Incubation period?

A
  • Blood, semen, vaginal fluid, needlestick, transplacental, human bite, sexual contact
  • Weeks or months
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26
Q

PPE needed for HEP B/C?

A

Gloves, eyewear, hand washing

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27
Q

Tuberculosis transmission mode and Incubation period?

A
  • Respiratory secretions, airborne or direct contact
  • 2-6 weeks
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28
Q

PPE needed for Tuberculosis?

A

Gloves, eyewear, HEPA or N-95 respirator, hand washing

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29
Q

Influenza transmission mode and Incubation period?

A

Airborne Droplets, Direct Contact with body fluids

1-3 days

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30
Q

PPE needed for Influenza?

A

Gloves, surgical mask, hand washing

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31
Q

Chicken Pox (varicella) transmission mode and Incubation period?

A

Airborne droplets, direct contact with open sores

11-21 days

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32
Q

PPE needed for Chicken pox/Varicella?

A

Gloves, surgical mask, hand washing

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33
Q

Bacterial Meningitis transmission mode and Incubation period?

A

oral and nasal secretions

2-10 days

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34
Q

PPE needed for Bacterial Meningitis?

A

Gloves, surgical mask, and hand washing

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35
Q

Pneumonia transmission mode and Incubation period?

A

Respiratory secretions and droplets

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36
Q

PPE needed for Pneumonia?

A

Gloves, surgical mask, and hand washing

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37
Q

German Measles (Rubella) transmission mode and Incubation period?

A

Airborne droplets, Transplacental

10-12 days

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38
Q

PPE needed for German Measles (Rubella)?

A

Gloves, surgical mask, and hand washing

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39
Q

Whooping cough (Pertussis) transmission mode and Incubation period?

A

Respiratory secretions and airborne droplets

6-20 days

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40
Q

PPE needed for Whooping cough (Pertussis) ?

A

Gloves, surgical mask, and hand washing

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41
Q

Staphylococcal Skin Infection (STAPH) transmission mode and incubation period?

A

Direct contact with open lesion or contaminated object

1-3 days

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42
Q

PPE needed for STAPH?

A

Gloves, hand washing

43
Q

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) and Corona Virus (COVID 19) transmission mode and incubation period ?

A

Respiratory airborne, direct contact

SARS : 10 days
COVID 19: 3-7 days

44
Q

PPE for SARS/COVID 19?

A

Gloves, N-95 Respirator or N100 respirator, hand washing, eye protection

45
Q

Ebola Virus disease (EVD) transmission mode and incubation period?

A

Direct contact with blood or contact with body fluids

2-21 days

46
Q

PPE for Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) ?

A

Gloves, Hand washing, N-95 respirator, Surgical/Isolation gown, boot covers, Specialized training in Donning/Doffing PPE

47
Q

Zika Virus Disease (ZVD) transmission mode and incubation period?

A

Bite from infected Aedes mosquito, from pregnant woman to fetus, sexual contact with an infected person

3-12 days

48
Q

PPE for Zika Virus Disease (ZVD)?

A

Avoiding mosquito bites, Abstaining from sex with potentially infected person or using condoms, preventing pregnancies, avoiding mosquito exposure in areas where ZVD is known for?

48
Q

define communicable disease

A

Disease that spreads from one person to another

49
Q

What are the the 5emotional stages?

A

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance

50
Q

What are some techniques to manage stress

A

Eat Healthy

Exercise more often

Relax

Avoid self-medication

Schedule time for yourself and famiuly away from EMS

51
Q

What is CISM (Critical Incident stress management)?

A

Is a process to deal with stress encountered by EMT

52
Q

What are the 2 types of CISM?

A

CISD (critical Incident stress debriefing) and Critical Incident debriefing

53
Q

What is Diffusing?

A

Version of CISD held within 1-4 hours post incident.

54
Q

What is Debriefing?

A

Version of CISD held within 24-72 hours of incident

55
Q

Good protection saying to go by?

A

“If its brown, red, yellow, green or sticky and its not yours.. dont touch it”

56
Q

What are the 5 different pathogens you will encounter?

A

bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, Helminths

57
Q

What are possible signs of advanced HIV infection?

A
  • rapid weight loss
  • Dry cough
  • Recurring fever or night sweats
  • profound/unexplained fatigue
  • swollen lymph nodes in the neck, armpits or groin
  • diarrhea that last more then week
  • white spots on tongue, mouth or throat
  • Pneumonia
  • Red, brown, pink, or purplish blotches under the skin or inside the mouth, nose, or eyelids
  • Memory loss, depression or other neurological disorders
58
Q

What are signs of acute menigitis?

A
  • Fever
  • Stiff neck
  • photophobia (Light sensitivity)
  • Onset in hours to few days
  • Altered mental status and seizures
59
Q

what are the signs of TB infection?

A

Latent:

  • no signs
  • not contagious

Active:

  • Very infectious
  • Weakness
  • Weight loss
  • Fever
  • No appetite
  • Chills
  • Sweating at night
60
Q

What are the 3 types of flu and which 2 does the CDC focus on?

A

Type A, B, C

only A & B cause the most issues

61
Q

What are the characteristics of the flu?

A

Type A:

  • Flu epidemics
  • Most serious outbreaks
  • animals and humans
  • Most serious symptoms
  • Spreads quickly

Type B:

  • Flu epidemics
  • only human

Type C:

  • Very limited and causes minor symptoms
62
Q

What are the 3 types of stress reactions?

A

What are the 3 types of stress reactions?

63
Q

what is cumulative stress and what are the warning signs?

A
  • constant exposure to stressful situations that builds overtime
  • initial signs can be anxiety and irritability
  • anxiety, irritability with coworkers family and friends, inability to concentrate, difficulty sleeping and nightmares, anxiety, indecisiveness, guilt, loss of appetite, loss of sexual desire or interest, isolation, loss of interest at work
63
Q

What is acute stress and what are the warning signs?

A

-Usually happens during or immediately after event.

-can results in cognitive, behavioral, physical or psychological changes

  • nausea, tremors, trouble concentrating, and sleep issues
64
Q

what is delayed stress and what are the warning signs?

A

stress reaction that results from a exposure but doesn’t show up to days, months, or even years after event

-example: PTSD

-signs: nightmares, irritability, insomnia, inability to concentrate, flashbacks, increased inner personal conflicts, withdrawal from others or inability to relate to others

65
Q

How long should you wash your hands for?

A

10 to 15 seconds vigorously with soap

66
Q

What is involuntary consent?

A

Involuntary consent is used for mentally incompetent adults or those in custody of law enforcement.

Consent must be obtained from the entity with the appropriate legal authority.

67
Q

What is contributory negligence?

A

When the patient through his own negligence has caused or contributed to the damage that was done to him

68
Q

What are the 5 types of consent?

A

Express consent, consent for minors, implied consent, informed consent, involuntary

69
Q

What is OPIM

A

Other potentially infectious material

70
Q

What is consent to treat minors?

A

Miners under the age of 18 cannot refuse medical treatment on their own

Must be done by parent or responsible adult

71
Q

What is implied consent?

A

A.k.a. “emergency doctrine” occurs when the patient is unresponsive, competent, or unable to make rational decision

72
Q

What is informed consent?

A

Inform the patient of the possible risk and outcome of a procedure

73
Q

What is negligence

A

Any wrongful act, injury, or damage, and where there is no intent to do any harm to the patient

74
Q

What are the four elements involved in negligence that must be present for negligence to occur?

A
  1. Duty to act : obligation of Emt to respond to scene and provide care
  2. Breach of duty to act: occurs with Emt deviates from standard of care
  3. Damages: damages that are real and demonstrable and recognizable by law.
  4. Proximate cause: injuries suffered by patient as a direct result of EMT’s negligence
75
Q

What are some special reporting situations?

A
  • donor and organ harvesting
  • baby safe haven laws
  • medical identification insignias
76
Q

What is the scope of practice?

A

The duties or services that a EMT is authorized to perform in their state

77
Q

What is the standard of care?

A

defined as the practices, treatment, and actions an EMT working in the same situation would consider to be reasonable and prudent.

78
Q

What is off-line medical direction?

A

Standing orders issued by the Medical Director that allow EMTs to give certain medications or perform certain procedures without speaking to the Medical Director or another physician.

79
Q

What is online direction?

A

orders directly given by the medical director by radio or phone

80
Q

When can a person refuse care?

A
  • If a person is oriented to “Person, Place, or time” they can refuse care/transport
  • Patient cannot have altered mental status, be under the influence of drugs/alcohol, or mentally ill
81
Q

What are the ways to handle a crime scence?

A
  • Take one way in and out
  • Touch and move only what you need to
  • Always wear gloves
  • Do not cut through gunshot holes or stab wounds
  • If rape, patient should not shower, wash, use bathroom, eat or drink anything until they get to the hospital
82
Q

What is the standard information collected on all PCR’s called?

A

Minimum Data set

83
Q

What is the minimum data set that should be on a pcr?

A
  • patient information
  • administrative information
  • viral signs
  • patient narrative
  • treatment
84
Q

What’s the abbreviation for a non-rebreather mask?

A

NRM and NRB

85
Q

What is the abbreviation for vital signs?

A

V/S

86
Q

What is the abbreviation for shortness of breath?

A

SOB

87
Q

What is the abbreviation for signs and symptoms?

A

S/S

88
Q

What is the abbreviation for bag valve mask?

A

BVM

89
Q

What is the pneumonic “chart” stand for for alternative documentation methods?

A

C- chief complaint
H- history
A- assessment
R- RX
T- transport

90
Q

What does pneumonic “soap” stand for in alternative documentation?

A

S- subjective
O- objective
A- assessment
P- plan

91
Q

What is the difference between objective and subjective findings on a call?

A

Subjective - information Based on individuals, perceptions or interpretations.

Objective - information that is measurable or verifiable in someway

92
Q

SAMPLE (History):

A

Symptoms
Allergies
Medications
Past history
Last oral intake
Events preceding

93
Q

SAMPLE (history) is ?

A

acronym for remembering what questions are important to ask during your assessment of a patient

94
Q

OPQRST is ?

A

acronym is often used in conjunction with SAMPLE as a guide for asking questions regarding a patient’s symptoms, specifically pain, during acute illness

95
Q

OPQRST stands for :

A

Onset - Gradually or start suddenly

Provocation- Anything make it better or worse?

Quality- Describe pain

Radiate- pain stay local or travel

Severity- Rate pain 1-10

Time - How long?

96
Q

AVPU is for ?

A

Determining patients level of responsiveness and consciousness

97
Q

AVPU:

A

Alert
Verbal
Pain
Unresponsive

98
Q

What are some special situations that requires special documentation?

A
  • exposure to infectious
  • child or elderly abuse
  • On the job injuries
99
Q

What information is included in the administrative information of a PCR?

A

EMS number, names of crewmembers and certification level, address, time incident reported, time arrived to seen and left scene, time of transfer to care

100
Q

What information is included in patient information for PCR

A

Chief complaint, level, responsiveness, vital signs, skin, color, temperature, and condition, patient demographics

101
Q

How do you fix a mistake on a PCR?

A
  • Draw a single horizontal line through the error
  • Initial and date by the mistake
102
Q

Why take two sets of vitals?

A
  1. it allows for comparison. One set doesnt really tell much
  2. It allows for a history of vitals for all those involved in care
103
Q

Why should you not falsify information on a PCR?

A
  • Can lead to Suspension or revocation of license
  • can lead to criminal charges
104
Q
A

EMT 1 (13 decks)

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