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EMT 1 > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the EMT (Emergency Medical Technician) do?

A

CPR
AED utilization
Basic bleeding control
basic airway
ventilation
O2 therapy
Limited medication administration
Advanced O2 therapy (Supraglottic airways)
Monitoring blood glucose levels

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2
Q

What does a EMT, AEMT, and Paramedic do?

A

EMT: Provide basic care and transportation from critical emergent response

AEMT: Provides basic and limited ALS skills

Paramedic: Focuses on advanced life saving techniques

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3
Q

What was the “white paper” in 1966 and what did it do for EMS care?

A

it was the paper published by National Academy of Sciences National Research Research council titled “Accidental death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society”

  • detailed the # of deaths and injuries related to MVA
  • identified severe decencies in the delivery of pre-hospital care in US
  • Recommended changes to ambulance systems, training req., and preparation of prehospital care
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4
Q

What is important to remember about scene safety ?

A

Scene safety is not set

Scene can always become unsafe

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5
Q

What the basic level of certification needed for a ambulance to be classified?

A

EMT

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6
Q

When is necessary to restrain a patient?

A

Whenever they pose potential harm to the EMT’s or PD

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7
Q

What level of disinfectant kills TB:

A

Medium level disinfectant

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8
Q

Define Sterilization:

A

A process, such as the use of heat, that removes microbial contamination

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9
Q

List and define the 3 levels of consent:

A
  • Expressed Consent: Verbalization of consent
  • Informed consent: Consent given by a patient through body language like raising their hand or shaking their head.
  • Implied Consent: Consent given by an unconscious person and the EMT assumes that consent would be given if the patient was conscious.
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10
Q

What is needed for a “Refusal of Care?”

A

Implied consent must be gained and the risks and benefits must be told to the patient before a refusal of care form is written:

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11
Q

What is negligence?

A

Any wrongful act, injury, or damage, and where there is no intent to do any harm to the patient

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12
Q

Define HIPPA:

A

Health insurance portability and accountability act

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13
Q

Define PHI:

A

Protected health information covered by HIPAA mandates

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14
Q

List the 7 C’s:

A

Clear
Concise
Concrete
Correct
Coherent
Complete
Courteous

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15
Q

What are the 4 types of Communication:

A
  • Verbal
  • Nonverbal
  • Visual
  • Written
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16
Q

Which agency regulates all radio operations in the US?

A

FCC (Federal Communications Commissions )

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17
Q

Define Body mechanics:

A

The proper use of your body

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18
Q

When can a Emergent move be done?

A
  • When there is a Clear hazard or life threat to PT
  • C spine can be forgotten
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19
Q

What should a “Urgent Move” be done?

A
  • When factors cause PT to decline
  • C Spine precautions should be used
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20
Q

Define nonurgent move:

A

patient can be taken care of in the place they were found

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21
Q

What is “IC” and when can it be transferred?

A
  • Incident command
  • if transferred over must be face to face
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22
Q

What is First step for a MCI?

A
  • Establish IC and Scene size up

(Find out how many patients there are and needed resources)

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23
Q

When is Air medical necessary?

A

When your transfer time exceeds 30 minutes or an hour

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24
Q

What is NIMS (National incident management system)

A

A department of homeland security system designed to enable federal state and local governments and private sector and nongovernmental organizations to effectively and efficiently prepare for, prevent, respond to and recover from domestic incidents regardless of cause size or complexity.

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25
Q

What are the 3 planes of the body?

A
  • Coronal (Frontal): Separates the front and back of the body
  • Sagittal (Longitudinal)l: Separates the left and right sides of the body
  • Transverse (Axial): Separates the upper and lower halves of the body
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26
Q

What do the following directional anatomical terms mean?

Superior (cranial)-
Inferior (caudal) -
Anterior (ventral) -
Posterior (dorsal) -
Medial -
Lateral-
Proximal -
Distal -

A

Anterior (ventral) - front

Posterior (dorsal) - back

Medial - toward the midline of body

Lateral - away from midline

Proximal - toward trunk or point of origin

Distal - away from trunk or point of origin

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27
Q

Define Abduction, adduction, flexion and extension:

A

Abduction:
This is a movement of a body part away from the midline of the body

Adduction:
This is a movement of a body part toward the midline of the body

Flexion:
This bending motion moves the extremity toward the body

Extension:
This bending motion moves the extremity away from the body

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28
Q

What organs are in the RUQ (Right upper Quadrant)?

A

gallbladder, the right lobe of the liver, and parts of the small and large intestines

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29
Q

What organs are in the LUQ (Left upper Quadrant)?

A

stomach, pancreas, spleen, left lobe of the liver, and parts of the small and large

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30
Q

What organs are in the LLQ (Left Lower Quadrant)?

A

left ureter, left ovary and Fallopian tube, and parts of the small and large intestines

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31
Q

What organs are in the RLQ (Right Lower Quadrant)?

A

appendix, right ureter, right ovary and Fallopian tube, and parts of the small and large intestines

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32
Q

What are the 4 quadrants?

A

Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)
Right Lower Quadrant (RUQ)
Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)
Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)

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33
Q

When does Right sided heart failure typically happen?

A

Generally comes after left sided failure as a result of advanced left side heart failure

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34
Q

What causes Right sided heart failure and what are the S/S?

A
  • volume and pressure overload
  • Clinically, the patient will present with signs and symptoms of chest discomfort, breathlessness, palpitations and body swelling peripheral edema.
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35
Q

Left sided heart failure typically is caused by?

A

by coronary artery disease (CAD)

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36
Q

What causes Left sided heart failure and what are the S/S?

A
  • The heart no longer pumping enough blood around the body.
    As a result blood builds up in the pulmonary veins
  • clinically patient will present with signs & symptoms of shortness of breath, trouble breathing or coughing exacerbated with physical activity
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37
Q

JVD (Jugular Vein Distension) is a typically a late sign of ?

A

Right sided heart failure

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38
Q

What is pneumonia and what is the S/S?

A
  • Infection in lobe or both lungs
  • It causes the air sac alveoli of the lungs to fill up with fluid
  • Pneumonia can be life threatening to anyone, but especially infants, children, people over 65, and PT with Airway disease (COPD, Asthma).
  • Signs and symptoms cyanosis finger and lips.
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39
Q

What are the 4 lung sounds and where are they located?

A
  • Crackles:
    Peripheral lungs
  • Wheezing:
    Lower airway (bronchi)
  • Stridor:
    Larynx and trachea upper airway
  • Rhonchus:
    Bronchi

***Stridor is the only upper airway sound

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40
Q

What does the The pulse oximeter or pulse ox measure?

A

Measuring the percentage of saturated hemoglobin

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41
Q

What are the Risk factors for pulmonary embolism?

A
  • recent surgery, DVT, pregnancy
  • Patients whose legs are immobilized following a fracture or recent surgery are at risk for pulmonary embolism for days or weeks after the incident.
  • rarely do pulmonary embolism occur in active healthy individuals.
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42
Q

What is Pulmonary Embolism?

A

A blood clot formed in the vein, (usually in legs or pelvis) that breaks of into the circulates through the venous system that makes it to the lungs

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43
Q

What may cause Pulmonary Embolism?

A
  • may occur as a result of damage to the lining of vessels
  • usually caused by long term bed rest, which can lead to collapse of veins.
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44
Q

Signs and symptoms for PE (Pulmonary Embolism)?

A
  • dyspnea
  • acute chest pain
  • hemoptysis ( coughing up blood)
  • cyanosis
  • tachypnea in varying degrees
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45
Q

Define Oxygenation:

A

the process of delivering oxygen to the blood by diffusion from the alveoli following inhalation into the lungs.

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46
Q

Oxygenation is the process of ______________.

A

loading oxygen molecules onto hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream

Adequate oxygenation is required for proper internal respiration

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47
Q

The upper airway consists of all anatomic airway structures above the level

A

Of the vocal cords including the nose mouth jaw oral cavity pharynx and larynx.

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48
Q

The upper airway ends at the _________.

A

the larynx where it is protected by the epiglottis

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49
Q

What is the Epiglottis and what does it do?

A

leaf shaped valve diverts Food and fluid into the esophagus and air into the trachea

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50
Q

What should be done for
Mild airway obstruction patients ?

A
  • patients should be left alone, they should be encouraged to cough.
  • Do not give them abdominal thrust
51
Q

For choking what is done for PT under 1 YO and over 1 YO old?

A
  • Under 1 YO: back blows and chest compressions
  • Over 1 YO: Heimlich maneuver
52
Q

Explain the gas exchange that happens in the lungs:

A
  • In the areola, there is a capillary that wraps around it.
  • The blood entering the areola is low in O2 and High in CO2

(low O2 because it has entered the cells, high in CO2 because cells have created it making energy and released it into the blood)

  • Air entering the lungs is High in O2 and low in CO2
  • Through a process of diffusion, the O2 moves from the lungs into the blood and the CO2 leaves the blood and enters the lungs to be expelled (capillary and alveoli walls are thin)
53
Q

Patient becomes unresponsive during choking you should initiate :

A

CPR

54
Q

Define Inspiration/Inhalation :

A
  • The active phase of ventilation, Breathing in air.
  • The diaphragm contracts and the thoracic cavity increases in volume
55
Q

Define Expiration/Exhalation

A

Air leaving the lungs, the passive phase, the diaphragm and thoracic cavity relaxes.

56
Q

Normal pulse ranges (Infants, Preschool, adults):

A
  • Adults: 60-100
  • Preschool: 80-120
  • Infants: 100-180
57
Q

Normal Blood pressure ranges (Infants, preschool, adults) :

A
  • Adults: 120/80
  • Preschool: 89/46 - 112/72
  • Infants: 72/37 - 104/56
58
Q

Normal Respiration ranges (Infants, preschool, adults) :

A
  • Adults : 12-20
  • Preschool (3-5 years) : 20-28
  • Infants: 30-53
59
Q

Define Aura:

A
  • sensation prior to a seizure
60
Q

Signs and symptoms for hypoglycemia:

A
  • Fast heart rate
  • irritability
  • hunger
  • anxiousness
  • shaking sweating nervousness
  • dizziness
61
Q

Signs and symptoms for hyperglycemia

A
  • Dry mouth
  • needing to pee (Nocteria)
  • tiredness
  • blurred vision
  • unintentional weight loss
  • bladder infection
  • skin infections
  • sweet smelling breath
62
Q

Aortic aneurysm:

A

a bulge in the aorta or peripheral artery

63
Q

Aorta dissection:

A

Tear of the aorta or its branches occurs when the inner lining of the arteries begins to separate from the rest of the arterial wall

64
Q

Define Anaphylaxis

A

life threatening systemic allergic reaction may include shock and respiratory failure

65
Q

Allergic reaction

A

Bodies exaggerated immune response to an internal or surface agents.

66
Q

What is the most common sign of anaphylaxis ?

A

Wheezing

67
Q

Kehrs sign:

A

Referred pain to the left shoulder due to a ruptured spleen injury

68
Q

List the 9 examples of hollow organs?

A

appendix
bladder
common bile duct
fallopian tubes
gallbladder
intestines
stomach
uterus
ureters

69
Q

What are 5 examples of solid organs?

A

kidneys
liver
ovaries
pancreas
spleen

70
Q

What are the 4 main functions of the skin?

A
  • quick protective barrier against mechanical thermal and physical injury and hazardous substances
  • prevents lost of moisture
  • acts as a sensory organ
  • reduces harmful effect of UV radiation
71
Q

How do you care for a amputated body part?

A

Place body part in the bag and keep it cool

72
Q

When is the only time you remove an impaled object?

A

When it affects the Airway or CPR

73
Q

How do you treat eye injuries?

A
  • cover injured eye with protective object
  • other eye with dressing
74
Q

What kind of MVC yields the greatest index pf suspicion for injury or death?

A

Rollover

75
Q

What counts as a soft tissue injury?

A
  • avulsion
  • abrasion
  • hematoma
76
Q

Define Avulsion:

A
  • A forcible tearing off of skin or another part of the body such as an ear or a finger
  • Layers of skin have been torn off to expose muscles tendons and tissues
  • An amputation such as getting a limb caught in a piece of heavy machinery is also called an avulsion.
77
Q

Define Abrasion:

A
  • A superficial rub or wearing off of skin, usually caused by a scrape or a brush burn
  • Abrasions are usually minor injuries that can be treated at home
  • Skin may bleed or drain small amounts at the time of the injury or at times over the next few days if rubbed or scratched
78
Q

Define Hematoma:

A
  • A bad bruise
  • it happens when an injury causes blood to collect and pool under the skin the pooling blood gives the skin a spongy rubbery lumpy feel
  • A hematoma usually is not cause for concerts
79
Q

What are the 3 basic categories of “SMART” ?

A

RPM

R- Respiratory status
P - Perfusion status
M - Mental status

80
Q

What are the 4 different Tags in “START” triage and what qualifies for each?

A

Black

Red

Yellow

Green

81
Q

What is the treatment for burns?

A
  • Dry sterile dressings
  • treat for shock
  • Remove any restrictive items, clothing or jewelry
82
Q

When a patient dives in the water always begin _____________.

A

c-spine precautions

83
Q

Define compensated shock :

A

the early stages of shock while the body can still comp for blood loss

***all vital signs are elevated

84
Q

Define Decompensated shock:

A

Decomp the late stage blood pressure is falling

**all vital signs are extremely low

85
Q

Define Irreversible shock:

A

The last stage, when shock has progressed to a terminal stage

86
Q

If there injury open to the airway sign and what is the treatment

A
  • Bubbling or sucking sound will occur
  • Place an occlusive dressing taped on three sides.
    PPV with open airway wounds
  • Pediatric
    Managing airway pad behind the shoulders in sniffing position
87
Q

What should be done for pediatrics to help open the airway?

A

you should pad the shoulders for their airway

88
Q

Signs and symptoms of compensated shock

A
  • Agitation
  • anxiety
  • restlessness
  • feeling of impending doom
  • altered mental status
  • weak rapid or absent pulse
  • clammy skin
  • Pallor skin
  • shallow rapid breathing air
  • hunger
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • capillary refill
89
Q

Pediatric patients requiring non rebreather and cant hold tolerate the mask what can be done?

A

blow by oxygen by parent

90
Q

Define Braxton hicks and Signs of it

A

False contractions

  • contractions are inconsistent
  • contractions that cause mild similar to menstrual cramps
  • Contractions that come and go and don’t get stronger over time
  • Contractions that subside with a change of position, movement, rest or a glass of water
91
Q

Preeclampsia:

A

Form of hypotension in pregnancy

92
Q

Eclampsia :

A

more severe form of preeclampsia that comes with seizures

93
Q

what are the 5 main antepartum emergencies?

A
  • Spontaneous Abortion
  • Ectopic Pregnancy
  • Placenta previa
  • Abruptio Placentae (placental abruption)
  • Supine Hypotensive Syndrome
94
Q

what is Ectopic pregnancy?

A
  • the egg is implanted outside the uterus in one of the following locations:
  • in a fallopian tube, on the abdominal peritoneal covering, on the outside wall of the uterus, on an ovary, or on the cervix

*** everywhere except the uterus

95
Q

What is Spontaneous abortion “Miscarriage”

A

unexpected termination of the pregnancy before 20 weeks by the body

96
Q

What is Placenta previa?

A

abnormal implantation of the placenta over or near the opening of the cervix

97
Q

what is Abruptio Placentae (placental abruption) ?

A

the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall

98
Q

what is the pathophysiology and treatment of Supine hypotensive syndrome?

A
  • inadequate return of blood to heart, reduced cardiac output, and lower BP resulting from pressure on the inferior vena cava

Treatment:

  • lay the PT on the left lateral recumbent position (left side)
  • on back, elevate right hip 15 degrees
  • manual displacement of the fetus to the right
99
Q

What is Post partum hemorrhaging?

A

Bleeding that goes past 6 weeks post delivery

100
Q

Why a patient should be placed on the left side:

A

Decreased pressure to the vena cava

101
Q

what is APGAR stand for?

A

A - Appearance
P - Pulse
G - Grimace
A - Activity
R - Respiration

102
Q

How do you get an APGAR score, whats the highest score and lowest score?

A

see chart

  • 0 is lowest
  • 10 is the highest
103
Q

In regards to a newborn patient after delivery, at what point do you start CPR

A

When there PT (newborn) is below 60

104
Q

What should you do for the PT before extrication?

A

Cover PT with blanket to protect them from glass and other debris

105
Q

Which phase of breathing requires ATP and is active?

A

Inhalation

106
Q

What are the 3 types of heat related injuries?

A
  • Heat cramps
  • Heat exhaustion
  • Heat Stroke
107
Q

What is the difference between TIA and stroke?

A

TIA resolve. Stroke stays. Same symptoms

108
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of TIA and stroke?

A
  • Decreased consciousness
  • Facial drooping
  • Low blood sugar (hypoglycemic)
  • Arm drift
  • Inability to speak
  • Pupils unequal in size
  • Sudden weakness in face, arm, legs
  • Nausea or vomiting
  • Loss of bowel or bladder control
  • Paralysis or weakness on one or both sides of body
  • Severe headache
109
Q

What happens with heat stroke that becomes dangerous?

A

The body stops sweating

110
Q

At what vertebrae will your PT no longer be able to breath

A

C5 and above

*** anything below C5 ( C6, C7, etc) they will be able to breath

“C5 stay alive”

111
Q

What are the 2 types of Pneumonia and what are the S/S?

A
  • Bacterial
  • Viral
112
Q

What are the S/S and treatment for both types of pneumonia?

A

S/S:

  • coughing
  • phlegm
  • crackles
  • difficulty breathing

Treatment:

  • CPAP
  • O2
113
Q

What is Pink frothy sputum and what causes it?

A
  • Bleeding in the alveoli
  • Can be caused by Pneumonia , CHF (Congestive heart failure), Pulmonary edema, etc.
114
Q

Which poison smells like cut grass and which smells like almonds

A
  • Cyanide (Almonds)
  • Phosgene (Fresh cut grass)
115
Q

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

Indications
Contraindications
Adult dose/Ped dose
Side effects
Mechanism of action

A
  • Indications:

Mild to moderate pain, fever reducer (no anti-inflammatory effects)

  • Contraindications:

Hypersensitivity to acetaminophen, sever hepatic impairment, severe active hepatic disease

  • Adult dose/Ped dose:

Adult: 1000 mg PO every 4-6 hours (dont exceed 4g in 24 hours)

Ped: 10-15 mg/kg every 4-6 hours (dont exceed 5 doses /24 hours)

  • Side effects:

rash, hives, angioedema

  • Mechanism:

unknown

116
Q

Albuterol

Indications
Contraindications
Adult dose/Ped dose
Side effects
Mechanism of action:

A
  • Indications:

Treatment of bronchospasm in PT with reversible obstructive airway disease (COPD, asthma)

Prevention of exercise-induced bronchospasm

  • Contraindications:

Known prior hypersensitivity to albuterol. Tachycardia, dysrhythmias (especially from digitalis) synergistic with other sympathomimetics

  • Adult dose/Ped dose:

Adult dose: 2.5 mg dilute with 0.5 mL normal saline in nebulizer and administer over 10-15 minutes.

MDI: 1-2 inhalations (90-180mcg)

Ped dose:
<20 kg: 1.25 mg/dose via handheld nebulizer
>20 kg: 2.5 mg/dose via nebulizer over 20 minutes. Repeat every 20 minutes

Side effects:

(often dose related) headache, fatigue, light-headedness, irritability, restlessness, aggressive behavior, pulmonary edema, hoarseness, nasal congestion, increased sputum, hypertension, tachycardia, dysrhythmias, chest pain, palpitations, nausea/vomiting, dry mouth, epigastric pain, and tremors

mechanism of action:

Selective beta-2 agonist that stimulates adrenergic receptors of the sympathomimetic nervous system. Results in smooth-muscle relaxation in the bronchial tree & peripheral vasculature

117
Q

Aspirin

Indications
Contraindications
Adult dose/Ped dose
Side effects
Mechanism of action:

A
  • Indications

New onset chest discomfort suggestive of ACS

  • Contraindications

Hypersensitivity. Relatively contraindicated in PT with active ulcer disease or asthma

  • Adult dose/Ped dose

Adult dose: 160 mg to 325 mg PO. Chewing is preferred

Ped dose: Not recommended

  • Side effects

Bronchospasm, anaphylaxis, wheezing in allergic PT’s, prolonged bleeding, GI bleeding, epigastric distress, nausea, vomiting, heartburn, Reye syndrome

  • Mechanism of action:

Prevents formation of thromboxane A2, which causes platelets to clump together (aggregate) and form plugs that cause obstruction or constriction, has antipyretic and analgesic properties

118
Q

Atropine Sulfate

Indications
Contraindications
Adult dose/Ped dose
Side effects
Mechanism of action:

A
  • Indications:

Hemodynamically unstable bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, nerve agent exposure, RSI in pediatrics, beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker overdose

  • Contraindications:

Tachycardia, hypersensitivity, unstable cardiovascular status in acute hemorrhage w/ myocardial ischemia, narrow-angel glaucoma, hypothermic bradycardia

  • Adult dose/Ped dose

Adult dose:
Unstable bradycardia: 0.5 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes as needed.

Organophosphate poisoning: 2-4 mg or higher

Ped dose:
Unstable bradycardia: 0.02 mg IV/IO (minimum dose- 0.1 mg)
may repeat once
Max dose: child 0.5 mg, adolescent 1 mg

  • Side effects:

Drowsiness, confusion, headache, tachycardia, palpitations, dysrhythmias, nausea/vomiting, pupil dilation, dry mouth/nose/skin, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, flushed, hot, dry skin, paradoxical bradycardia when pushed too slowly or given at low doses

  • Mechanism of action:

Inhibits the action of aCH at postganglionic parasympathetic neuroeffector sites. Increases heart rate in symptomatic bradydysrhythmias

119
Q

Epinephrine

Indications
Contraindications
Adult dose/Ped dose
Side effects
Mechanism of action:

A
  • Indications

Cardiac arrest (asystole, PEA, VF, and pulseless VT), Symptomatic bradycardia as ALT. infusion to Dopamine, hypotension from shock other then hypovolemia, allergic reaction, anaphylaxis , asthma

  • Contraindications

none in emergency setting

  • Adult dose/Ped dose

Adult dose:

Allergic reaction/Asthma: 0.3-0.5 mg IM (0.3-0.5 mL of 1 mg)

Ped Dose:
Anaphylaxis: 0.1 mg (0.1 mL of 1mg) IM

  • Side effects:

Nervousness, restlessness, headache, tremor, pulmonary edema, myocardia ischemia, hypovolemic shock

  • Mechanism of action:

Direct-acting alpha and beta agonist
Alpha: vasoconstriction
Beta 1: positive inotropic, chronotropic, and dromotropic effects
Beta 2: bronchia smooth muscle relation and dilation of skeletal vasculature, Blocks histamine receptors

120
Q

Ipratropium

Indications
Contraindications
Adult dose/Ped dose
Side effects
Mechanism of action:

A
  • Indications

Persistent bronchospasm, COPD exacerbation

  • Contraindications

Hypersensitivity to Ipratropium, atropine, alkaloids, peanuts

  • Adult dose/Ped dose

Adult dose:
250-500 mcg via inhalation w/ nebulizer every 20 minutes up to 3x

Ped dose:
same

  • Side effects

Headache, dizziness, nervousness, fatigue, tremor, blurred vision, cough, dyspnea, worsening COPD, symptoms, tachycardia, palpitations, flushing, MI, dry mouth, nausea/vomiting, GI distress

  • Mechanism of action:

Inhibits interaction of aCH at receptor sites of bronchial smooth muscle, resulting in decreased cyclic guanosine monophosphate and bronchodilation

121
Q

Naloxone

Indications
Contraindications
Adult dose/Ped dose
Side effects
Mechanism of action:

A
  • Indications

Opiate overdose, complete or partial reversal of CNS & respiratory depression induced by opioids

Narcotic agonist for the following:

Morphine, heroin, Hydromorphone (Dilaudid), methadone, meperidine (demerol), paregoric, Fentanyl (sublimaze), oxycodone, codeine, propoxyphene

  • Contraindications

Use with caution in narcotic-dependent PT’s. use with caution in neonates of narcotic-addicted mothers

  • Adult dose/Ped dose

Adult dose:

0.4-2 mg IM/IV/IO
(2 mg recommended)
repeat every 5 minutes to max dose of 10 mg

Nasal : 1 spray (1 ml) in each nostril to = 2 mg

Ped dose:

0.1 mg dose IVIO/IM/ET every 2 minutes as needed
(2 mg recommended single dose)

If not response in 10 minutes, administer additional 0.1 mg per dose

  • Side effects

Restlessness, seizures, dyspnea, pulmonary edema, tachycardia, hypertension dysthymias, cardiac arrest, nausea/vomiting, withdrawal symptoms in opioid-addicted PT’s, diaphoresis

  • Mechanism of action:

Competitive inhibition at narcotic receptor sites. Reverses respiratory depression secondary to opiate drugs. Completely inhibit the effect of morphine

122
Q

Nitroglycerin

Indications
Contraindications
Adult dose/Ped dose
Side effects
Mechanism of action:

A
  • Indications

Acute angina pectoris, ischemic chest pain, hypertension, heart failure, pulmonary edema

  • Contraindications

Hypotension, hypovolemia, intracranial bleeding or head injury, pericardial tamponade, severe bradycardia or tachycardia, RV infarction, previous administration in last 24 hours

Sildenafil (Viagra) in the last 24 hours

Vardenafil (Levitra) or tadalafil (Cialis) in last 48 hours

  • Adult dose/Ped dose

Adult dose: 0.4 mg SL; may repeat in 3-5 minutes of max 3 doses

Ped Dose: Not recommended
- Side effects

  • Mechanism of action:

smooth muscle relaxant acting on vasculature, bronchial, uterine, intestinal smooth muscle. Dilation of arterioles and veins in the periphery. Reduced preload/afterload, decreasing workload of the heart

123
Q

Oral glucose

Indications
Contraindications
Adult dose/Ped dose
Side effects
Mechanism of action:

A
  • Indications

conscious PT’s with suspected hypoglycemia

  • Contraindications

Decreased level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting, inability to swallow

  • Adult dose/Ped dose

Adult dose:

25 g PO in PT with intact gag reflex and ability to manage own secretions

Ped dose:

0.5 -1 g PO with intact gag reflex and ability to manage own secretions

  • Side effects:

nausea, vomiting

  • Mechanism of action:

After absorption in GI tract, glucose is distributed to tissues providing an increase in circulating blood glucose levels

124
Q

Oxygen

Indications
Contraindications
Adult dose/Ped dose
Side effects
Mechanism of action:

A
  • Indications:

Confirmed or expected hypoxemia, ischemic chest pain, respiratory insufficiency, prophylactically during air transport, confirmed or suspected carbon monoxide poisoning, all other causes of decreased tissue oxygenation, decreased level of consciousness

  • Contraindications:

Certain PT with COPD, decreased respiratory drive in COPD PT’s, dry mucous membranes

  • Adult dose/Ped dose

Adult dose:
10-15 Lpm via NRM

Ped dose:

same

  • Side effects

Decreased level of consciousness (COPD PT’s)

  • Mechanism of action:

Reverse hypoxemia

EMT 1 (14 decks)

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