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HLTH 334 > Module 5: Pregnancy and Childbirth > Flashcards

Module 5: Pregnancy and Childbirth Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most dangerous thing a woman can go through in their lifetime

A

childbirth

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2
Q

list races by maternal mortality from highest to lowest

A
  • black
  • native american and alaska native
  • white
  • asian and pacific islander
  • hispanic
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3
Q

what cells are needed for fertilization

A
  • egg cell
  • sperm cell
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4
Q

define zygote

A
  • fertilized egg cell
  • sperm + egg
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5
Q

how many sperm cells are deposited per ejaculation

A

300-500 million

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6
Q

how many egg cells are released per month

A

1 (on average, can be more)

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7
Q

how does being pregnant with twins change your risk status

A

twin pregnancies and births are considered high risk

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8
Q

define dizygotic twins

A
  • 2 eggs and 2 sperm cells create 2 zygotes
  • have different genetic material
  • as genetically related as any other siblings
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9
Q

define monozygotic twins

A
  • 1 egg and 1 sperm cell create 1 zygote that will split into two embryos
  • have identical genetic information
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10
Q

what is considered full term for twins

A

36 weeks

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11
Q

what is the only difference in the appearance of monozygotic twins and why

A
  • fingerprints and footprints
  • created by the way the baby grows in the uterus
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12
Q

which type of twin is considered safer and why

A
  • dizygotic twins
  • each baby has its own placenta and amniotic sac
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13
Q

which type of twin is considered more high risk and why

A
  • monozygotic twins
  • both babies share 1 placenta and amniotic sac
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14
Q

which cell is larger: egg or sperm

A

egg

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15
Q

why is it good to confirm a pregnancy early

A
  • leads to earlier decision making
  • allows mother to change behaviors to keep baby healthy
  • more options for termination earlier on in the pregnancy
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16
Q

define teratogen

A
  • anything that causes a birth defect
  • smoking, alcohol, etc.
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17
Q

when do early signs of pregnancy typically occur

A

within the first 6 weeks

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18
Q

list early signs of pregnancy

A
  • missed periods
  • breast swelling/tenderness
  • fatigue
  • nausea/vomiting
  • elevated body temperature
  • mood swings
  • frequent urination
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19
Q

should you be bleeding when you are pregnant

A
  • should not have bleeding similar to a period
  • may experience breakthrough bleeding or spotting while pregnant
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20
Q

how much can breasts grow during pregnancy

A

can increase 1-3 cup sizes

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21
Q

what happens to your blood volume when you’re pregnant

A

blood volume increases

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22
Q

why do pregnant women experience nausea/vomiting

A

hormones

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23
Q

how much does body temperature increase during pregnany

A

1-2 degrees

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24
Q

why is body temperature higher during pregnancy

A

blood volume increases

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25
Q

why do pregnant women experience mood swings

A

hormones

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26
Q

why do pregnant women experience frequent urination

A
  • the growing baby in the uterus pushes on the bladder
  • lower bladder volume
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27
Q

define amnion

A
  • fetal sac that envelops the embryo
  • flexible membrane
  • contains pregnancy contents
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28
Q

define amniotic fluid

A
  • provides protection and constant environment for floating embryo
  • necessary for growth and development of the fetus
  • keeps a constant temperature
  • protects against excess movement
  • clear/yellowish color
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29
Q

define placenta

A
  • supplies fetus with oxygen and nutrients from the maternal bloodstream
  • filters waste back to the mother for disposal
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30
Q

define umbilical cord

A
  • connects the developing fetus to the placenta
  • contains two arteries and one vein
  • connected at the belly button of the fetus
  • about 1 foot in length
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31
Q

when is the first trimester

A

1-12 weeks

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32
Q

when do most women find out they are pregnant

A

around 6 weeks

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33
Q

when does pregnancy officially begin

A

when the embryo implants into the uterine wall

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34
Q

what is considered full term for an average pregnancy

A

36-40 weeks

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35
Q

list symptoms that occur during the first trimester

A
  • enlarged and tender breasts
  • morning sickness (nausea and/or vomiting)
  • extreme fatigue
  • decreased interest in sex
  • moodiness and irritability
  • darkening of nipple and areola
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36
Q

does morning sickness only occur in the morning

A

no, but it may be more significant in the morning

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37
Q

what should you do to help morning sickness

A

eat small snacks like crackers, bananas, or toast

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38
Q

why might a pregnant woman have a decreased interest in sex

A
  • hormones
  • feeling sore, nauseous, or uncomfortable (physically or emotionally)
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39
Q

what causes a darkening of the nipple and areola during preganny

A

increased estrogen

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40
Q

when is the second trimester

A

13-27 weeks

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41
Q

list symptoms that occur during the second trimester

A
  • morning sickness subsides
  • gastrointestinal problems (heartburn, gas, constipation)
  • breathing problems
  • backache
  • leg cramps and numbness/tingling of hands
  • swelling of feet, hands, and ankles
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42
Q

when does an embryo become a fetus

A

after 8 weeks

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43
Q

why does morning sickness typically subside during the second trimester

A

hormones begin to balance out

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44
Q

define hyperemesis gravis

A
  • extreme vomiting during pregnancy
  • causes dehydration and malnutrition
  • may need to be hospitalized
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45
Q

why might a pregnant woman experience gastrointestinal problems (heartburn, gas, constipation)

A

compression of internal organs (stomach, intestines)

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46
Q

why might a pregnant woman experience breathing problems

A
  • compression of lungs
  • lung volume decreases
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47
Q

why might a pregnant woman experience backache

A

the change in the center of gravity with more weight anterior causes a pregnant woman to lean backwards to maintain balance

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48
Q

why might a pregnant woman experience leg cramps and numbness/tinging of hands

A

compressive pressure on abdominal aorta that supplies blood to these areas

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49
Q

where do pregnant woman typically get leg cramps

A

calves

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50
Q

when is the third trimester

A

28-40 weeks

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51
Q

list symptoms that occur during the third trimester

A
  • leg cramps continue and worsen
  • backache continues and worsens
  • breathlessness continues and worsens
  • braxton-hicks contractions
  • production of colostrum
  • pelvic and buttock discomfort
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52
Q

describe braxton-hicks contractions

A
  • false labor
  • body getting ready for actual labor
  • cramps all over body
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53
Q

what is the main difference between braxton-hicks contractions and real labor contractions

A
  • braxton-hicks contractions happen in multiple areas
  • real labor contractions start in the fundus of the uterus
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54
Q

what are colloquial names for colostrum

A
  • pre-milk
  • liquid gold
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55
Q

describe colostrum

A
  • first milk produced
  • couple of tablespoons in volume
  • thicker than regular breastmilk
  • full of antibodies
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56
Q

what immune system is a baby born with

A

no immune system

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57
Q

where do babies get antibodies after they are born

A

breastmilk (colostrum)

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58
Q

why might a pregnant woman experience pelvic/buttock discomfort

A
  • hips are widening
  • separation of pubic symphasis
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59
Q

how much weight do women gain on average during pregnancy

A

25-30 pounds

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60
Q

define preconcpetion care

A

the steps a woman can take before she decides to become pregnant to ensure that she is in good health when conception occurs

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61
Q

when is it recommended to start taking prenatal vitamins

A

3 months before conception

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62
Q

list aspects of preconception care

A
  • prenatal vitamins (folic acid)
  • proper immunizations
  • healthy behaviors
  • nutrition
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63
Q

what does folic acid prevent

A

neural tube defects (spina bifida, anencephaly, microcephaly)

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64
Q

define spina bifida

A
  • neural tube defect
  • spinal column doesn’t close completely so the spinal cord is exposed
  • needs surgery
  • may cause loss of function in all or part of body
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65
Q

define anencephaly

A
  • neural tube defect
  • absent portions of the brain
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66
Q

define microcephaly

A
  • neural tube defect
  • small/undeveloped brain
  • associated with intellectual and developmental disabilities (IDDs)
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67
Q

how much folic acid should a woman planning on conceiving consume per day

A

400 micrograms

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68
Q

what foods contain folic acid

A
  • beans
  • legumes
  • dark leafy greens
  • nuts
  • seeds
  • some citrus fruits
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69
Q

why should you get all proper immunizations as a part of preconception care

A

to form antibodies that you can transfer to you baby through breastmilk

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70
Q

how many extra calories does a pregnant woman in the third trimester need per day

A

200-300 calories extra per day

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71
Q

what are the benefits of exercising during pregnany

A
  • feeling better throughout pregnancy
  • shorter labor
  • quicker recovery from birth
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72
Q

how long is the typical first labor

A

16-24 hours

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73
Q

what forms of exercise should pregnant women engage in

A
  • activities they have done pre-pregnancy with some modifications (running, weights)
  • swimming
  • walking
  • low impact aerobics (yoga)
  • kegel exercises
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74
Q

describe kegel exercises

A
  • strengthen pelvic floor muscles for labor and post-labor
  • can prevent incontinence following labor
  • can practice by stopping peeing midstream
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75
Q

what forms of exercise should pregnant women NOT engage in and why

A
  • horseback riding: puts pressure on cervix, falling danger
  • skiing/snowboarding: falling danger, likely to fall on stomach
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76
Q

list effects of smoking during pregnancy

A
  • reduction of fetal blood flow
  • ability of fetus to metabolize vitamins is reduced
  • premature labor and low birth weight
  • increased chance of hemorrhaging and stillbirth during delivery
  • hospital stays are longer
  • mother heals slower
  • increases likelihood of SIDS
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77
Q

why does smoking cause a reduction in fetal blood flow

A

nicotine is a vasoconstrictor

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78
Q

what is defined as low birth weight

A

under 5.5 pounds

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79
Q

why does smoking cause low birth weight

A
  • nicotine causes decreased blood flow (vasoconstriction)
  • reduced blood flow can decrease nutrition to the fetus
  • decreased nutrition can cause lower birth weight
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80
Q

define SIDS

A
  • sudden infant death syndrome
  • infant death (under 1 year) from no known cause
  • association with smoking
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81
Q

what is the leading cause of preventable birth defects

A

drinking alcohol while pregnant

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82
Q

how does drinking alcohol while pregnant affect the fetus

A
  • alcohol passes through the placenta
  • decreases glucose and oxygen to the fetal brain
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83
Q

what conditions does drinking while pregnant cause

A
  • fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
  • alcohol-related birth defects (ARBD)
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84
Q

describe fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

A
  • spectrum disorder (different severities)
  • distinct physical features
  • intellectual and developmental disabilities (IDDs)
  • less impulse/emotional control
  • shorter attention span
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85
Q

what are the distinct physical features caused by fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

A
  • small head
  • low nasal bridge (flat nose)
  • epicanthal folds (webbing at the corner of the eye)
  • small eye openings
  • flat midface (less pronounced cheekbones)
  • shorter nose
  • smooth philtrum (above lips)
  • thin upper lip
  • underdeveloped/small jaw
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86
Q

describe alcohol related birth defects (ARBD)

A
  • creates problems with internal organs
  • kidney problems, hearing loss, heart problems, issues with bone growth/development
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87
Q

when during pregnant is drinking alcohol most dangerous

A

during the 1st trimester

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88
Q

describe the difference between screenings and diagnostic testing

A
  • screenings are done to assess risk and determine is further diagnostic testing is needed
  • diagnostic testing is used to get answers/diagnoses
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89
Q

what screenings are done during the first trimester

A
  • ultrasound tests
  • maternal blood tests
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90
Q

describe the ultrasound screenings done during the first trimester

A
  • vaginal ultrasounds are performed early in pregnant; abdominal ultrasounds are performed later
  • done to confirm pregnancy and check fetal position and growth
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91
Q

what conditions does maternal blood tests done in the first trimester screen for

A
  • down syndrome (trisomy 21)
  • trisomy 18
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92
Q

what does trisomy 21 and trisomy 18 mean

A
  • trisomy 21 (down syndrome) means there is a third copy of the chromosome 21
  • trisomy 18 means there is a third copy of the chromosome 18
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93
Q

how do maternal blood tests screen for fetal genetic abnormalities

A

some of the fetal DNA is in maternal blood as it is passed through the placenta

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94
Q

what increases the risk of a baby having down syndrome

A

increased maternal/paternal age

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95
Q

what are the effects of trisomy 18 on a baby

A
  • born low birth weight (under 5.5 pounds)
  • heart defects
  • small head
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96
Q

what percent of babies with trisomy 18 live past their first year

A

5-10%

97
Q

what screenings are done during the second trimester

A
  • multiple marker screening
  • detailed ultrasound exams
98
Q

describe multiple marker screenings performed during the second trimester

A
  • taking a sample of maternal blood
  • can detect abnormalities in the health of the baby’s internal organs (liver, kidneys, heart)
99
Q

describe the detailed ultrasound exams performed during the second trimester

A
  • can take over 1 hour
  • performed by a sonographer
  • take the measurements of the baby
100
Q

what diagnostic tests can be performed during pregnancy

A
  • chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
  • amniocentesis
  • cordocentesis
101
Q

what do diagnostic tests during pregnancy test for

A

genetic testing on the fetus

102
Q

when is chorionic villus sampling (CVS) done

A

10-12 weeks

103
Q

what tissue is taken during chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

A

placenta

104
Q

what is the width of the placenta

A

width of two hands

105
Q

describe how chorionic villus sampling is performed

A
  • an ultrasound is used to guide a catheter through the cervix and into the uterus
  • a sample of the placenta is taken
  • there is no interference with the amniotic sac
106
Q

when in an amniocentesis done

A

15-20 weeks

107
Q

what tissue is taken during an amniocentesis

A

amniotic fluid

108
Q

describe how an amniocentesis is performed

A
  • an ultrasound guides a needle through the abdomen and into the amniotic sac
  • a sample of amniotic fluid is collected
  • the amniotic sac will heal on its own
109
Q

describe the risk for miscarriage if you have an amniocentesis

A
  • 0.06% risk for miscarriage
  • the same as the average risk for miscarriage at this time in the pregnancy; amniocentesis does not increase the risk for miscarriage
110
Q

when is a cordocentesis done

A

18+ weeks

111
Q

what tissue is taken during a cordocentesis

A

blood from the umbilical cord

112
Q

what type of diagnostic test during pregnancy is the highest risk and why

A
  • cordocentesis
  • damaging the cord can terminate the pregnancy
113
Q

why is cordocentesis only done after 18 weeks

A

the umbilical cord needs to be large enough the get a sample of blood from it without damaging it too badly

114
Q

describe the diameter of the umbilical cord

A

quarter-sized diamter

115
Q

describe how a cordocentesis is performed

A
  • ultrasound guides a needle through the abdomen
  • a sample of venous blood from the umbilical cord is taken
116
Q

what is the risk of miscarriage with a cordocentesis

A

1-2% risk of miscarriage

117
Q

define ectopic pregnancy

A

fertilized egg grows outside the uterine cavity

118
Q

how many pregnancies are ectopic

A
  • 20 in 1000
  • 2%
119
Q

describe the relationship between IUDs and ectopic pregnancies

A

IUDs do not cause ectopic pregnancies but if you become pregnant with an IUD, there is a good change that it will be ectopic (usually in the fallopian tube)

120
Q

what are risk factors for ectopic pregnancy

A
  • fallopian tube problems (scar tissue, endometriosis)
  • pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
121
Q

what causes pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

A

bacterial STIs (chlamydia and gonorrhea)

122
Q

how long does it take pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) to form after infection from chlamydia or gonorrhea

A

years

123
Q

what does pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) cause the formation of

A

scar tissue in the pelvic cavity

124
Q

list symptoms of ectopic pregnancy

A
  • abdominal pain
  • spotting
  • ruptured fallopian tube
125
Q

what is the leading cause of pregnancy death in the first trimester

A

ectopic pregnancy

126
Q

what percent of women with ruptured ectopic pregnancies die

A

10%

127
Q

why can ectopic pregnancies be life-threatening

A

ruptured ectopic pregnancy can cause hemorrhaging (extreme bleeding)

128
Q

are ectopic pregnancies viable

A

no, they must be surgically terminated

129
Q

define gestational diabetes

A
  • diabetes that develops during pregnancy
  • similar to type 2 diabetes
130
Q

what are the two things that can cause gestational diabetes

A
  • insufficient insulin production
  • insulin resistance
131
Q

how many pregnant women have gestational diabetes

A
  • 8 in 100
  • 8%
132
Q

when does gestational diabetes typically occur

A

in the second half of gestation

133
Q

what are symptoms of gestational diabetes

A
  • may or may not have symptoms
  • symptoms: thirsty, increased urination, fatigue
134
Q

how is gestational diabetes diagnosed

A

glucose test: drinking a sweet drink and getting blood tested

135
Q

what are the two versions of the gestational diabetes glucose test

A
  • short version: 1 hour
  • long version: 24 hours
136
Q

how is gestational diabetes managed during pregnancy

A
  • diet/exercise
  • insulin
137
Q

does gestational diabetes resolve after pregnancy

A
  • may resolve after birth
  • may persist as type 2 diabetes in the mother
138
Q

what are risks associated with the fetus of a mother with gestational diabetes

A
  • “fat” baby
  • premature labor/delivery
  • underdeveloped organs at preterm birth (specifically the lungs)
139
Q

define preterm delivery

A

labor before week 37

140
Q

how many pregnancies result in preterm delivery

A
  • 12 in 100
  • 12%
141
Q

describe the trend in the rate of preterm deliveries in the US

A
  • increase rate of preterm delivery
  • increased 3% in the last 20 years
142
Q

list risk factors for preterm deivery

A
  • previous preterm birth
  • multiples
  • maternal abnormalities or medical conditions
  • late or no prenatal care
  • mothers who smoke, drink, or use drugs
143
Q

how long is full gestation for twins

A

36 weeks

144
Q

how long is full gestation for triplets

A

34 weeks

145
Q

define incompetent cervix

A
  • condition where the cervix dilates too early
  • causes preterm delivery
146
Q

define preeclampsia

A

high blood pressure after 20 weeks gestation

147
Q

define eclampsia

A
  • high blood pressure after 20 weeks
  • occurs after preeclampsia
  • organs begin to shut down
  • fatal conditions
148
Q

how many pregnant women have preeclampsia

A
  • 5-10 in 100
  • 5-10%
149
Q

how can preeclampsia be controlled

A

magnesium based drugs

150
Q

which pregnancy complication has different rates of incidence for different races/ethnicities

A

preeclampsia

151
Q

list symptoms of preeclampsia

A
  • protein in urine
  • face and hands swelling (pitting edema)
  • sudden weight gain (1-2 pounds per day)
  • blurred vision
  • severe headaches
  • dizziness
  • stomach pain
152
Q

what is the cure for preeclampsia

A

delivery of the baby

153
Q

how many weeks of gestation is the earliest viable delivery

A

26-28 weeks

154
Q

define miscarriage

A

pregnancy that ends before the 20th week

155
Q

what percent of clinically diagnosed pregnancies end in miscarraige

A

10-15%

156
Q

what factors are associated with miscarriage

A
  • advanced maternal age (over 35)
  • genetic/chromosomal anomalies
  • smoking or drug use
  • uterine abnormalities (placenta attachment, thin endometrium, heart-shaped uterus)
157
Q

what are symptoms of miscarriage

A
  • bleeding
  • cramping
158
Q

define stillbirth

A

intrauterine death of fetus after the 20th week

159
Q

how many pregnancies end in stillbirth

A

1 in 160

160
Q

what are the causes of stillbirth

A
  • same as miscarriage (maternal age over 35, genetic anomalies, smoking/drug use, uterine abnormalities)
  • umbilical cord issues (cord compression, cord wrapped around the fetus’ neck)
161
Q

what are symptoms of stillbirth

A
  • bleeding
  • cramping
  • lack of fetal movement
162
Q

how long can the baby stay in the uterus after the amniotic sac breaks

A

24 hours

163
Q

why do we want to baby out of the uterus within 24 hours of the amniotic sac breaking

A

risk of infection and stillbirth

164
Q

what are the 3 common signs that labor has begun

A
  • uterine contractions every 5 minutes or less
  • rupture of the amniotic sac membrane causing a leak of fluids
  • bloody show: passage of the mucus plug when the cervix dilates
165
Q

what happens to uterine contractions as labor continues

A
  • time between contractions decreases
  • intensity of contractions increases
166
Q

describe how the amniotic sac breaking (water breaking) usually looks

A
  • usually a gradual and slow leak of fluids
  • can be a sudden gush but not usually
167
Q

what are other signs that labor has begun

A
  • diarrhea
  • backache
  • increased braxton-hicks contractions
168
Q

why is diarrhea a sign of labor

A

hormones that cause uterine contractions (prostaglandins) can affect the large intestine

169
Q

why is backache a sign of labor

A

hormones that cause uterine contractions (prostaglandins) can affect muscles in the back

170
Q

what is the only way that labor is confirmed

A

pelvic exam

171
Q

how many stages of labor are there

A

3

172
Q

describe the first stage of labor

A
  • laboring process
  • the head of the baby engages with the cervix
  • cervix dilates to 10 cm
  • effacement of the cervix
173
Q

which stage of labor takes the longest

A

stage 1

174
Q

define vertex/cephalic delivery

A

head first

175
Q

define breech delivery

A

anything but head first

176
Q

what are the 2 phases of stage 1 of labor

A
  • early
  • active
177
Q

what happens during the early phase of stage 1 of labor

A

cervical dilation from 0-3 cm

178
Q

what happens during the active phase of stage 1 of labor

A

cervical dilation from 4-7 cm

179
Q

define effacement

A
  • thinning and softening of the cervix
  • cervix becomes the thickness of the uterine walls
180
Q

define the transition stage of labor

A
  • between stages 1 and 2
  • cervical dilation from 7-10 cm
  • when the baby moves to face downward
181
Q

why do we want a baby to be born head first

A
  • easier to push
  • less risk of stillbirth: baby can breathe on its own with its head out and won’t aspirate in utero
  • shoulders won’t get stuck
182
Q

why do we want a baby to be born facing downward

A
  • the baby will flex its neck up which is easier when facing downward
  • faster delivery
183
Q

describe the second stage of labor

A
  • pushing and delivery of the fetus
  • takes 2-3 hours on average for the first pregnancy
184
Q

describe the third stage of labor

A
  • delivery of the placenta (afterbirth)
  • can happen immediately after delivery of the baby or up to 30 minutes later
185
Q

what happens to the placenta after the baby is delivered

A

it detaches from the uterine wall and will be expelled during the third stage of labor

186
Q

what can be done to remove portions of the placenta that may still be in the uterus

A
  • give medications to increase uterine contractions
  • manual extraction of pieces of the placenta
187
Q

what risk is associated with manual extraction of the placenta

A

infection

188
Q

what types of pain relief are given during childbirth

A
  • tranquilizers
  • analgesics
  • anesthetics
189
Q

what do tranquilizers do

A
  • take the edge off
  • make you less nervous
190
Q

what tranquilizers are given during childrbith

A
  • valium
  • xanax
191
Q

how are tranquilizers administered during childbirth

A

IV

192
Q

what do analgesics do

A

pain relief

193
Q

what analgesic is commonly given during childbirth

A

demoral

194
Q

how are analgesics administered during childbirth

A

IV

195
Q

what is a common side effect of demoral

A

nausea

196
Q

what do anesthetics do

A

block pain completely

197
Q

what are the types of anesthetics that can be given during childbirth

A
  • epidural
  • spinal
  • pudendal
198
Q

define epidural

A
  • anesthetic given during childbirth
  • local anesthetic delivered through a catheter beside the spinal cord (in the epidural space)
  • continuous (catheter stays inside)
  • numbs from the waist down
199
Q

define spinal

A
  • anesthetic given during childbirth
  • single anesthetic shot injected directly into the spinal fluid surrounding the spinal column
  • less common than epidural
  • lasts up to 6 hours
200
Q

describe how an epidural or a spinal would be given

A
  • patient sit on exam table
  • patient hugs a pillow
  • patient leans forward
201
Q

define pudendal

A
  • anesthetic given during childbirth
  • injected into the area around the vagina and perineum
  • given to lessen the pain of the “ring of fire” or before an episiotomy
202
Q

describe the “ring of fire”

A
  • area around the vaginal opening
  • burning sensation felt as the baby is delivered and immense pressure is put on nerves
203
Q

where is most likely to tear during childbirth

A

perineum

204
Q

define episiotomy

A
  • cutting of the vaginal opening/perineum to lessen the risk of tearing
  • easier to suture back than if the perineum was torn on its own
205
Q

define cesarean delivery

A
  • surgical incision made in the wall of the mother’s abdomen and the uterus to deliver a child
  • also known as c section
206
Q

what is happening to the rates of c sections in the US

A

increasing

207
Q

what percent of births are c sections

A

33%

208
Q

how many births annually are c sections in the US

A

1.2 million

209
Q

why do we now do horizontal incisions rather than vertical incisions

A

horizontal incisions leave a less visible scar

210
Q

how wide is a c section incision

A

6 inches wide

211
Q

list the layers of the body that are cut during a c section

A
  • skin
  • fat
  • fascia
  • abdominal muscles
  • peritoneum
  • uterus
212
Q

describe how getting deep to the abdominal muscles is different than other layers during a c section

A
  • all other layers are cut horizontally
  • the abdominal muscles are separated vertically (no cutting)
213
Q

how long does the average non-emergent c section take

A

15 minutes

214
Q

how long does the average emergent c section take

A

3 minutes

215
Q

list reasons for getting a c section

A
  • cephalopelvic disproportion
  • multiple births
  • placenta previa
  • fetal distress
  • failure to progress
216
Q

describe this reason for getting a c section: cephalopelvic disproportion

A

the baby’s head is too large to fit through the mother’s pelvis

217
Q

describe this reason for getting a c section: multiple births

A
  • we want to deliver multiples earlier than labor would usually start (full term = 36 weeks)
  • reduces risk of stillbirth
  • less distress on the fetus
218
Q

describe this reason for getting a c section: placenta previa

A
  • placenta attaches on or near to cervix
  • placenta can tear and bleed if the cervix dilates for vaginal delivery
219
Q

describe this reason for getting a c section: fetal distress

A
  • placenta prematurely detaching limiting oxygen to the fetus
  • baby has low heart rate or blood pressure
  • baby defecates in utero; they can aspirate and get bacterial infections
220
Q

define muconium

A

fetal defecation in utero

221
Q

describe this reason for getting a c section: failure to progress

A
  • cervix stops dilating even after medications
  • can result in stillbirth or fetal distress
222
Q

what percent of infertility in couples is due to female isues

A

25-35%

223
Q

what percent of infertility in couples is due to male issues

A

25-35%

224
Q

what percent of infertility in couples is due to both female and male issues

A

30-50%

225
Q

what is often the cause of female infertility

A

ovulation disorders: not producing a viable egg

226
Q

what is often the cause of male infertility

A
  • azoospermia: no sperm in semen
  • oligospermia: low sperm count
227
Q

what is classified as oligospermia (low sperm count)

A
  • under 10 million per ejaculation
  • less than 5% of the average (300 million)
228
Q

how can infertility be diagnosed among men and women

A
  • ovulation test
  • cervical mucus test
  • postcoital test
  • blood test for hormone levels
  • hysterosalpingogram
  • laparoscopic surgery
  • semen analysis
229
Q

define postcoital test

A
  • testing how semen reacts to being inside the female body
  • testing internal environment of uterus 6 hours after sex
230
Q

define hysterosalpingogram

A

uterine x-ray used to identify blockages or scarring in the uterus or fallopian tubes

231
Q

define laparoscopic surgery

A
  • small incisions in the abdomen: 1 for camera, 2 for instruments
  • checking for internal abnormalities
232
Q

define semen analysis

A

taking a sample of semen to diagnose low sperm count

233
Q

what are treatment options for infertility for women and men

A
  • improve the quality of cervical mucus with estrogen and prednisone
  • stimulate ovulation with medications
  • surgery to open blocked sperm ducts or fallopian tubes
  • artificial insemination
  • in vitro fertilization
234
Q

what medications can stimulate ovulation

A
  • oral clomid
  • gonadotropin releasing hormone
235
Q

how does clomid stimulate ovulation

A

produces more follicles

236
Q

what can commonly happen if you conceive while taking oral clomid

A

more likely to have multiples

237
Q

how does gonadotropin releasing hormone stimulate ovulation

A

helps the egg develop and become viable

238
Q

define artificial insemination

A

physician deposits sperm into the fundus of the uterus

239
Q

define in vitro vertilization

A
  • eggs and sperm are collected
  • zygote is created outside of the body
  • zygote is planted inside the uterus

HLTH 334 (6 decks)

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