Module 3: Sexual Health Flashcards

1
Q

define sexual health

A

a state of physical, emotional, mental, and social well-being related to sexuality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

list the perspectives on sexual health and sexuality

A
  • culture and religion
  • economic
  • legal
  • political
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe sexual health from a cultural and religious persepctive

A
  • marriage is universal theme in all cultures
  • sexual health and sexuality is defined by cultural values
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

list cultural values that define sexual health and sexuality

A
  • normative sex roles
  • acceptable types of sexual activity
  • sexual restraint for females
  • same-sex relationships
  • contraception decision making
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe sexual health from an economic perspective

A
  • value of bride = virginity
  • sexual aggression = power and economic dynamics
  • commercial sex industry/sex work
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe sexual health and sexuality from a legal perspective

A
  • laws prohibiting certain types of sexual behavior/intimacy (cohabitation, sodomy)
  • same-sex partners
  • marriage, annulment, separation, divorce, child custody, child support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

describe sexual health and sexuality from a political persepctive

A
  • sex education in schools
  • abstinence-only until marriage programs
  • comprehensive or abstinence-plus programs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

list the anatomical features of the breast

A
  • pectoralis muscle
  • stroma
  • lobes of mammary glands
  • lactiferous ducts
  • lactiferous sinuses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the purpose of the pectoralis muscle for the breast

A

where breast tissue anchors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

why is the pectoralis muscle in women less defined than in men

A

men have higher levels of testosterone which contributes to muscle development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the components of the stroma in the breast

A
  • suspensory ligaments
  • adipose tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what feature of the breast gives it the general shape and size

A

stroma (suspensory ligaments and adipose tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the function of suspensory ligaments in the breast

A
  • anchors the breast tissue to the pectoralis muscle
  • holds mammary tissue in place
  • helps to give shape to the breast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the function of the lobes of the mammary glands

A

produce milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the function of the lactiferous ducts

A

move milk from the lobes of the mammary glands to the lactiferous sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the function of the lactiferous sinuses

A

hold milk until it is ready to be expressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe why milk can come out around the areola

A
  • the lactiferous sinuses can get too full
  • milk leaks out in any way it can
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the 3 times that nipples will vasocongest in women

A
  • breastfeeding
  • cold
  • arousal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where are breast implants placed and why

A
  • under the pectoralis muscle
  • so the implant stays in place and doesn’t migrate around the chest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is removed during a breast reduction

A
  • adipose tissue
  • skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what happens to the nipple during a breast reduction

A

the surgeon will shift the nipple up to keep it in a normal place when breast tissue is removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the main hormone that triggers milk production in the breasts

A

oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

describe when and why a male could lactate

A
  • males have all of the breast structures, just underdeveloped
  • estrogen and progesterone contribute to breast development
  • a male with low testosterone levels would have a higher ratio of estrogen and progesterone which could develop breast tissue
  • a male could then produce oxytocin that could invoke lactation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

define gynecomastia

A

male breast tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the general cause of gynecomastia

A

low testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the two main causes of low testosterone (and therefore gynecomastia) in men

A
  • aging
  • anabolic steroids injections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

describe how anabolic steroid use can lead to gynecomastia

A
  • anabolic steroids have lots of testosterone
  • testes will stop producing testosterone
  • all testosterone from steroids will go to muscle growth
  • estrogen and progesterone can overtake remaining testosterone and cause male breast tissue growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the main purpose of bras

A

to distribute the weight of breasts across the shoulder and away from the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

describe why wearing a sports bra over long periods of time can be dangerous

A
  • sports bras are compression garments
  • they may compress the lymphatic system near the breast
  • the lymph will get backed up and a cyst may grow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are 3 ways to do a breast self exam

A
  • in the shower
  • in front of a mirror
  • lying down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

describe how to perform a breast self exam in the shower

A
  • check the entire breast and armpit areas
  • press down with light, medium, and firm pressure
  • use three fingers with overlapping pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

why is the shower a good place to do a breast self exam

A

the heat from the shower can help to relax breast tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe how to perform a breast self exam in front of a mirror

A
  • visually inspect the breasts with your arms at your sides
  • then inspect the breasts with the arms raised overhead
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

describe how to perform a breast self exam lying down

A
  • place a pillow under your shoulder and put your arm behind your head
  • move the pads of your fingers around your breast gently covering the entire breast and armpit area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what position are clinical breast exams performed in

A

lying down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

describe the area and direction you should be palpating on a breast self exam

A
  • armpit to nipple
  • nipple to armpit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the purpose of a breast self examination

A

check for your own normalcy to see if anything is changing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

should you diagnose yourself with a breast self exam

A

no, only a physician should diagnose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

should performing a breast self exam ever be painful

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

when should you perform a breast self exam

A

2 weeks after the start of your last period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

list the anatomical features of the vulva

A
  • mons veneris
  • labia majora
  • clitoral hood
  • clitoris
  • labia minora
  • urethral orifice
  • hymen
  • vaginal orifice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what aspect of all vulvas will be the same

A
  • all vulvas will look slightly different
  • the general placement/arrangement of structures will be similar in all vulvas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what area of the female body has the most sweat glands per in

A

vulva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does mons mean

A

mountain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what does veneris mean

A

venus/love

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what does pubis mean

A

to become covered with hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

describe the mons veneris

A
  • fat pad above the pelvic bone and above other vulvar structures
  • covered with the majority of pubic hair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

who is the term mons veneris and mons pubis used for

A
  • mons veneris: women
  • mons pubis: men and women
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the function of the mons veneris

A
  • protect the pubic bone
  • limit friction with pubic hair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

should you remove your pubic hair

A
  • removal of pubic hair is an entirely personal choice
  • is it not hygienic or unhygienic to remove or not remove pubic hair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what can happen if you remove your pubic hair by shaving

A
  • ingrown hairs
  • the pore grows over the blunt end of the hair, the hair begins to grow under the skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how can you prevent ingrown hairs from shaving

A
  • use a clean and sharp razor
  • exfoliate before shaving
  • use toner (witch hazel) after shaving
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what does labia mean

A

lips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what does majora mean

A

large/major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what does minora mean

A

small/minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

describe the labia majora

A
  • outermost lips of the vulva
  • encircle the sensitive structures of the vulva
  • is the first layer of protection for vulvar structures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

describe the clitoral hood

A
  • tissue covering the clitoris when unaroused
  • protects the clitoris
  • erectile tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what happens to the clitoral hood when aroused

A
  • vasocongests (fills with blood)
  • contracts to reveal the surface of the external clitoris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the most densely packed site of nerves in the female body

A

clitoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what percent of women need clitoral stimulation to orgasm

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

is the clitoris external or internal

A
  • both
  • small external surface
  • wishbone shaped under the skin, extends down the vaginal canal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is the function of the clitoris

A

pleasure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what type of tissue is the clitoris made of and what does this mean it can do

A
  • erectile tissue
  • vasocongests when aroused
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the size of the external clitoris when unaroused and aroused

A
  • unaroused: 1/2 inch
  • aroused: 1-2 inches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the analogous structure to the clitoris in men

A

head/glands of the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

describe the labia minora

A
  • smaller inner lips
  • provide extra protection for urethral and vaginal openings
  • may extend beyond the labia majora in some women
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

describe the urethral orifice

A
  • where urine exits the body
  • opens to the urethra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

describe why women are more likely to get UTIs than men

A

the urethral opening is in a moist, warm, and dark environment which is perfect for bacterial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

describe why women are more likely to get bladder infections than men

A
  • the female urethra is shorter than the male urethra
  • bacteria have a shorter distance to travel to the bladder in females
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the number one way to prevent UTIs

A

proper hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

list ways to prevent UTIs

A
  • change your underwear often
  • wear breathable underwear (cotton)
  • wash the vulva with mild soap and water
  • pee after sex, masturbation, or baths
  • drink 100% cranberry juice everyday (or take supplement)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

describe why peeing after sex or a bath can prevent UTIs

A

the acidic urine can flush out bacteria and kill bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

describe why taking cranberry supplements may not be a good way to prevent UTIs

A
  • you must take them everyday for it to be effective
  • supplements are not regulated by the FDA so it may not be good quality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

where is the hymen located

A
  • just inside the labia minora, around the vaginal opening
  • is considered external anatomy because it can be visualized without an internal exam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is the function of the hymen

A

it has no function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what are the 2 species that have hymens

A
  • humans
  • horses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

describe the vaginal orifice

A
  • opening to the vagina
  • where menstrual blood/tissue passes through and a penis may enter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is another name for the vagina

A

birth canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

how long is the vagina when unaroused and aroused

A
  • unaroused: 3-4 inches
  • aroused: 7-8 inches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

describe the anatomy of the vagina

A
  • muscular
  • hollow
  • elastic (able to stretch)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

describe how the vagina can double in length during arousal

A

suspensory ligaments attached to the top of the uterus can contract which elongates the vagina

82
Q

is the G spot real

A

yes

83
Q

where is the G spot located

A
  • 2 inches in from the vaginal opening
  • anterior surface of the vagina
84
Q

what is the official name of the G spot

A

grafenberg spot

85
Q

describe the structure of the G spot

A
  • densely packed nerves for sexual stimulation
  • has a different texture than the rest of the vagina (thicker and less flexible)
86
Q

are the perineum and anus part of the vulva

A
  • no
  • they are not reproductive anatomy
87
Q

describe the perineum

A
  • band of tissue that extends from the bottom of the vulva to the anus
  • 1-2 inches long
88
Q

what structure may tear during childbirth

A

perineum

89
Q

will the hymen regenerate after it is ruptured

A

no

90
Q

describe how the hymen can be ruptured

A
  • during first penetrative sex
  • any way that puts strain on the tissue
  • surgically
  • some women are born without a hymen
91
Q

list the 5 types of hymens

A
  • annular
  • cribriform
  • septate
  • imperforate
  • parous introitus
92
Q

describe the annular hymen

A
  • circle/ring of tissue surrounding the circumference of the vaginal opening
  • the size of the opening in the hymen varies between women
93
Q

can you still use a tampon with an annular hymen

A

possibly, depending on the size of the circular opening

94
Q

what is the most common type of hymen women are born with

A

annular

95
Q

describe the cribriform hymen

A
  • multiple small perforations in the surface of the hymen
  • still allows for the passage of period blood
96
Q

what does cribri mean

A

sieve

97
Q

can you still use a tampon with a cribriform hymen

A

depending on the size and number of holes, inserting a tampon may rupture the hymen

98
Q

describe the septate hymen

A
  • tissue dividing the vaginal opening
  • two holes with a band of hymen tissue between
  • not always even across the vaginal opening
99
Q

describe the imperforate hymen

A

hymen completely covers the vaginal opening

100
Q

which type of hymen is very rare, what percent of women have this type of hymen

A
  • imperforate
  • 1-2%
101
Q

describe why having an imperforate hymen is problomatic

A
  • nothing can exit the vagina (period blood)
  • dead tissue will back up in the vagina causing infection or septic shock
102
Q

what must happen if someone has an imperforate hymen

A

must be ruptured by a clinician so tissue can pass through the vaginal opening

103
Q

describe the symptoms of infection

A
  • rebore: redness
  • tumore: swelling
  • dulore: pain
  • calore: heat
104
Q

what does parous mean

A

to bring forth

105
Q

describe the parous introitous hymen

A
  • occurs after vaginal birth
  • vaginal opening is completely exposed
  • ruptures the entire hymen
106
Q

define female genital mutilation

A

the cultural practice of partially or totally removing external female genitalia

107
Q

describe the two forms of female genital mutilation

A
  • minor form: clitoris is removed
  • severe form: all external genitalia is removed, vaginal opening is stitched nearly closed
108
Q

define infibulation

A

stitching the vaginal opening nearly closed

109
Q

why is infibulation done

A

sexual pleasure of the male partner

110
Q

why is circumcision not considered male genital mutilation

A
  • circumcision has some clinical benefits of preventing infection
  • female genital mutilation has no benefit
111
Q

where is female genital mutilation often performed

A
  • central Africa
  • Middle East
112
Q

what country has the highest rate of female genital mutilation

A

somolia

113
Q

what perfect of girls in somolia have has some form of female genital mutilation

A

90%

114
Q

how young is female genital mutilation performed

A

as young as 4 years old

115
Q

do any religious texts mention female genital mutilation

A

no, some mention circumcision

116
Q

why is female genital mutilation done

A
  • superstitions
  • social, economic, and political reasons
  • some believe it will empower daughters, limit sexual activity, and stop sexual desire
117
Q

how many women worldwide in 2024 have some form of female genital mutilation

A

200 million women

118
Q

what are the gynecological and obstetric complications of female genital mutilation

A
  • infection: not done in hospitals or with sterile equipment, anesthesia, or stitching
  • stillbirth or maternal mortality: vaginal opening can’t stretch with an infibulation so the baby’s head may get stuck in the birth canal
  • fistula between vaginal canal and bladder or colon
119
Q

how big is an ovary

A

size of an almond

120
Q

what are the 2 major functions of ovaries

A
  • secrete estrogen and progesterone
  • ovulate: create, hold, and release ovum
121
Q

what do female sex hormones (estrogen and progesterone) do

A
  • development of secondary sex characteristic
  • regulate menstrual cycle and pregnancy
122
Q

do women continuously make eggs throughout their life

A
  • no
  • a women is born with all the eggs she will ever have
123
Q

how many eggs are women born with

A

millions

124
Q

how many eggs are start to develop per month/cycle

A

1000

125
Q

what happens to the eggs released that are not viable for fertilization

A
  • they do not leave the ovary
  • they are reabsorbed by the body
126
Q

how many fully formed and viable eggs are released each month/cycle

A
  • usually 1
  • sometimes multiple can be, potentially resulting in fraternal siblings
127
Q

describe how an egg matures and is released from an ovary

A
  • egg matures inside a fluid filled pouch called a cyst
  • the cyst ruptures and releases the egg into the pelvic region
128
Q

define follicular attrition

A

eggs that do not fully develop during the menstrual cycle are reabsorbed by the body

129
Q

are the ovaries and fallopian tubes connected

A

no

130
Q

describe fimbriae

A
  • fingerlike projections at the end of fallopian tubes
  • sweeps around the ovaries to capture any released eggs
131
Q

what is the site of fertilization

A

fallopian tubes

132
Q

what is the diameter of a fallopian tube

A

spaghetti noodle

133
Q

what is the purpose of cilia in the fallopian tubes

A

help move the egg towards the uterus

134
Q

what can block fallopian tubes

A
  • endometriosis
  • scar tissue
135
Q

what happens if fertilization occurs when a fallopian tube is blocked

A
  • the egg gets stuck in the fallopian tube but sperm can still get past and fertilize the egg
  • an ectopic pregnancy can occur in the fallopian tube
136
Q

what happens if an ectopic pregnancy implants in the fallopian tube

A
  • fallopian tube is not meant to expand so it may rupture
  • increased heart rate, low blood pressure
137
Q

describe the size and shape of the uterus

A
  • size of a loose fist
  • shape of an inverted pear
138
Q

describe the fundus of the uterus

A
  • top portion of uterus
  • widest portion of uterus
  • where fallopian tubes connect to uterus
139
Q

what are the 3 layers of the uterus

A
  • perimetrium
  • myometrium
  • endometrium
140
Q

describe the perimetrium

A
  • outermost surface
  • in contact with other structures in the pelvic cavity
141
Q

describe the myometrium

A
  • middle layer
  • long smooth muscle fibers
  • contracts during period or labor
142
Q

where do contractions in the uterus start during labor and why

A
  • start at the top of the uterus
  • contractions at the top of the uterus draw up the uterus and force the fetus down
143
Q

describe the endometrium

A
  • innermost layer
  • grown and shed during the menstrual cycle
  • where an embryo will implant
  • makes a portion of the placenta
144
Q

what makes the placenta

A
  • endometrium
  • embryo
145
Q

where is the cervix located

A

bottom of uterus

146
Q

define cervical os

A

opening to the cervix

147
Q

what is the general purpose of the cervix

A
  • stays tightly closed to prevent things from entering the uterus
  • dilates when necessary
148
Q

what are the 3 conditions where the cervix will dilate

A
  • period
  • labor
  • orgasm
149
Q

describe how male orgasm dilates the cervix

A

prostaglandins in semen stimulate the cervix to dilate

150
Q

what is the normal texture of the cervix

A

nose cartilage

151
Q

describe what it means if the cervix is unusually firm or unusually soft

A
  • firm: cervical cancer
  • soft: infection
152
Q

describe the vagina

A
  • hollow tube-shaped muscle
  • connects the uterus to the outside of the body
  • also called the birth canal
153
Q

how long is the vagina unaroused and aroused

A
  • unaroused: 3-4 inches
  • aroused: 7-8 inches
154
Q

describe how the vagina elongates during arousal

A

suspensory ligaments in the uterus contract to elevate the uterus which also elongates the vagina

155
Q

define menarche

A

first period

156
Q

what is the average age for onset of menarche

A

12 (can range from 8-16)

157
Q

does the onset of menarche happen right at the beginning of puberty

A

no, the onset of puberty usually happens first and then the onset of menarche follows later

158
Q

how long are eggs viable for once ovulated

A

24 hours

159
Q

describe the ovarian cycle of the menstrual cycle

A
  • follicular phase: low estrogen at the end of menses, hypothalamus secretes FSH, egg grows
  • ovulation: LH stimulates ovulation
  • luteal phase: estrogen drops, progesterone rises as the egg releases its own progesterone, if the egg is not fertilized it is reabsorbed
  • menses begins
160
Q

describe the uterine cycle of the menstrual cycle

A
  • proliferative phase: influenced by estrogen, thickness of endometrium rapidly increases
  • secretory phase: influenced by progesterone, lining becomes highly vascular and edematous
161
Q

list 4 common menstrual problems

A
  • dysmenorrhea
  • premenstrual syndrome
  • premenstrual dysphoric disorder
  • amenorrhea
162
Q

define dysmenorrhea

A

painful period

163
Q

what is the #1 reason middle school girls miss school

A

dysmennorhea

164
Q

what percent of women experience some premenstrual syndrome symptoms

A

80%

165
Q

when does premenstrual syndrome occur

A

before menstrual phase (period)

166
Q

why does premenstrual syndrome occur

A

estrogen and progesterone fall rapidly before period

167
Q

what is estrogen related to that makes it a contributor to premenstrual syndrome

A

emotions

168
Q

what are the 3 types of premenstrual syndrome

A
  • PMSA: emotional/anxiety
  • PMSB: bloating
  • PMSC: carbohydrate craving
169
Q

what are treatment options for the 3 types of premenstrual syndrome

A
  • PMSA: SSRIs
  • PMSB: drink more water, eat less salt
  • PMSC: treat your self
170
Q

what is a general treatment for premenstrual syndrome and why

A
  • birth control
  • supplements hormones so there is less of a rollercoaster of hormones throughout the cycle
171
Q

describe premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A
  • more intense PMS
  • clinical diagnosis
  • symptoms interfere with daily activities
172
Q

what percent of women have premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

8%

173
Q

what is the treatment for premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

birth control

174
Q

describe amenorrhea

A

having no period

175
Q

what are the causes of amenorrhea

A
  • birth control
  • pregnancy
  • low body fat percentage
  • stress
  • sudden weight loss/gain
176
Q

what are the 3 parts of a well woman exam

A
  1. visual exam
  2. clinical breast exam
  3. pap smear, bimanual exam
177
Q

why do they make you scoot to the end of the exam table during a pap smear

A
  • makes the pelvis tilt
  • gives a better angle for visualization of the cervix and insertion of pap smear equipment
178
Q

what are clinicians looking for during the visual exam portion of a well woman exam

A

external organ normalcy

179
Q

is a clinical breast exam during a well woman exam a screening or a diagnostic tool

A

screening

180
Q

what causes cervical cancer

A

HPV

181
Q

describe what happens during a pap smear

A
  • speculum is inserted into the vaginal canal, clicks into place to stay open
  • clinician visualizes the vaginal walls and the cervix
  • a brush is inserted to collect cervical cells (outside of cervix and cervical os)
  • the brush is then inserted into a saline solution and swirled around
  • the cells in the saline solution are examined for cervical dysplasia
182
Q

what may a woman who just had a pap smear experience

A

cramping

183
Q

when should you get your first pap smear

A
  • 21 if sexually active
  • 25 is not sexually active
184
Q

describe a bimanual exam

A
  • two fingers of one hand are inserted into the vagina, the other hand is placed over the pelvic bone externally
  • palpation based exam
  • checks for internal organ normalcy
  • ideally, you shouldn’t be able to feel much
185
Q

who created the sexual response cycle

A

masters and johnson

186
Q

describe what aspects of the sexual response cycle are always the same and which can differ

A
  • same: steps, order
  • differ: intensity, duration
187
Q

define refractory period

A

the time after orgasm for the body to remake the ejaculate (semen) in men

188
Q

describe why women do not have a refractory period after orgasm

A

no ejaculate needs to be remade

189
Q

describe why arousal takes longer for women than for men

A
  • 70% of women need clitoral stimulation (penetration stimulates males but not females)
  • many structures need time to vasocongest
190
Q

what happens to the time of resolution when there is no orgasm and why

A
  • resolution takes longer
  • no sudden release of hormones to dissipate arousal symptoms
191
Q

what are the steps of the sexual response cycle

A
  • excitement
  • plateau
  • orgasm
  • resolution
192
Q

what are the physical aspects of the excitement stage of the sexual response cycle

A
  • vaginal lubrication begins within 10-15 seconds of stimulation
  • labia majora and minora darken as they vasocongest
  • clitoris engorged with blood and increases in size and length
  • uterus and cervix pull away from the vagina via suspensory ligaments
  • breasts swell and nipples become erect
  • sex flush may occur
193
Q

where does sex flush start

A

chest

194
Q

what are the physical aspects of the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle

A
  • vagina continues to expand as suspensory ligaments elevate uterus unto the abdomen
  • secretions occur from the Bartholin’s glands
  • breasts continue to enlarge
  • sex flush may continue and spread
195
Q

describe Bartholin’s glands

A
  • located within the vagina
  • secrete a slippery, thin, and slightly opaque lubrication
196
Q

what are the physical aspects of the orgasm stage of the sexual response cycle

A
  • rhythmic uterine contractions of the uterine walls (3-15)
  • respiration and heart rate increase
  • blood pressure increases
  • involuntary muscle spasms in the back, hands, feet, etc.
  • vasocongestion an myotonia (muscle tension) release
  • phenylethylamine (PEA) and oxytocin are released
197
Q

which uterine contractions during orgasm are the most intense

A

the first 3-6

198
Q

what is the purpose of uterine contractions during orgasm

A

propel semen further into the uterus and fallopian tubes

199
Q

what do the chemicals released during orgasm do

A
  • phenylethylamine (PEA) and oxytocin
  • feel good chemicals
200
Q

what are the physical aspects of the resolution stage of the sexual response cycle

A
  • vasocongestion and myotonia dissipate rapidly
  • uterus returns to unaroused state as suspensory ligaments relax
  • labia majora and minora return to their normal size and shape
  • swelling of breasts disappears