*Module 5: 797 Flashcards

1
Q

How many designated people are required to oversee compounding activities?

A

At least 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The designated person(s) overseeing compounding activities must be designated in the ______

A

Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Does the person overseeing compounding activities have to be a pharmacist?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the responsibilities of designated individuals overseeing compounding activities?

A
  • selecting components
  • oversee training & ensure competency
  • ensure SOPs are fully implemented
  • monitor and observe compounding to immediately identify and correct errors
  • establish, monitor, and document procedures
  • recall method must be in place
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What details does the SOP include?

A
  • facility
  • equipment
  • personnel
  • storage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

(USP 797) What is the definition of Administration?

A

Direct application of a sterile product or preparation to a single patient by injecting, infusing, or otherwise providing a sterile product or preparation in its final form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

(USP 797) What is considered preparation per approved labeling?

A

Mixing per manufacturer’s labels for a single dose for an individual patient is NOT considered compounding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does Immediate-Use CSP entail?

A
  • administration begins within 4 hours following the start of preparation
  • preparation involved not more than 3 sterile products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anything injected into the blood must be free of?

A
  • bacteria, viruses, fungi
  • contaminants such as glass shards, precipitates, particles, etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What formulations must be compounded in a sterile environment?

A
  • IV, IM, subcutaneous injectables
  • Radiopharmaceuticals (nuclear medicine)
  • eye drops
  • irrigations (washes that go through a body cavity, excluding rectal and sinus cavity)
  • pulmonary inhalations (not nasal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Any particle that is _______ is included in the particle count.

A

0.5 microns or larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of air is not classified by ISO?

A

Room (ambient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ISO class _____ is required for critical areas that are closest to the sterile drugs and sterile containers.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ISO 5 requires no more than _____ particles per cubic meter.

A

3,520

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What must a sterile compounding area include?

A
  • anteroom
  • secondary engineering control (SEC)
  • primary engineering control (PEC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or false: each space has its own ISO requirement.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What can you have instead of an anteroom, SEC, and PEC?

A

Compounding aseptic isolator (CAI) in a segregated compounding area (SCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the device or room that provides the ISO 5 requirement?

A

Primary Engineering Control (PEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The most common way to achieve an ISO 5 is by using a __________.

A

sterile hood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Example of a sterile hood?

A

Laminar Airflow Workbench (LAFW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A _______ is another PEC. Often found in a SCA and commonly called a _________.

A
  • compounding aseptic isolator (CAI)
  • glovebox
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ISO ___ required for SEC.

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the room that contains the PEC(s)?

A

SEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SEC is commonly called a _______/________.

A

buffer area/buffer room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ISO class ______ required if anteroom opens to a positive pressure buffer area.

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ISO class ______ required if anteroom opens to a negative pressure buffer area.

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where does garbing and handwashing take place?

A

(This is the room that connects the buffer room to the rest of the pharmacy) anteroom

28
Q

What is not allowed in the clean room?

A
  • sinks
  • drains in floor
  • doors to outside
  • unsealed windows
29
Q

There are 3 CSP categories. Category 1 includes CSP assigned BUD of ___________ at room temp and __________ in the fridge.

A
  • 12 hours or less
  • 24 hours or less
30
Q

Categories 1, 2, and 3 compounded sterile products can be compounded by using?

A
  • all sterile ingredients from the start
  • all non-sterile ingredients from the start
  • or a combo
31
Q

If any ingredient is non-sterile, the whole compound must be made sterile via?

A

terminal sterilization

32
Q

The __ day the product is made is considered day 1.

33
Q

Unless directly administered by the person who prepared it or administration is witnessed by the preparer, the Immediate-Use CSP must be labeled with:

A
  • the names and amounts of all active ingredients
  • the name or initials of the person who prepared the preparation
  • the 4-hour time period within which administration must begin
34
Q

Frequency of cleaning and disinfecting: Direct Compounding Area (DCA)

A

• At the beginning of each shift
• Before batching
• Every 30 minutes it is being used 70% IPA is applied
• Any time it is visibly soiled

35
Q

Frequency of cleaning and disinfecting: counters, work surfaces

36
Q

Frequency of cleaning and disinfecting: floors

37
Q

Frequency of cleaning and disinfecting: walls

38
Q

Frequency of cleaning and disinfecting: ceilings

39
Q

Frequency of cleaning and disinfecting: storage shelving

40
Q

Supplies must be?

A

low lint, disposable

41
Q

Reusable cleaning tools must be?

A

dedicated to the space and not removed from the area

42
Q

Who must be trained?

A

Compounders, anyone with direct oversight of compounders, and personnel who do not compound but restock, clean/disinfect the SCA, etc.

43
Q

Staffing must demonstrate adequate _________, ____________, __________, & ________ prior to independently compounding a sterile product.

A

• Hand hygiene
• Garbing and gloving
• Cleaning and disinfecting sterile space/equipment
• Sterile drug preparation

44
Q

How do they demonstrate they have appropriate garbing competency?

A
  • visual observation
  • pass the “gloved fingertip and thumb sampling test” on both hands
  • the initial competency must be completed correctly at least 3 separate times in a row
45
Q

In Category 1 & 2 what is the only type of garb that can be reused if worn by same person?

46
Q

How often are Ongoing Garbing Competency Evaluations & Ongoing Aseptic Manipulation Competency Evaluations conducted?

A
  • Category 1 & 2: at least every 6 months, Category 3: at least every 3 months
  • at least every 12 months
47
Q

Initial Aseptic Manipulation Competency evaluation includes:

A
  • visual observation
  • media fill testing with post-GFT
  • surface sampling
48
Q

Compounders and those with direct oversight must complete ______ successful aseptic manipulation.

49
Q

TSA from GFT test is incubated at __________ for ___________ AND then at __________ for no less than _____ additional days.

A
  • 30-35C
  • no less than 48 h
  • 20-25C
  • 5
50
Q

Media-fill tests are used to:

A

determine if good aseptic technique was used

51
Q

What indicated contamination in the media-fill test?

A

turbidity (cloudiness)

52
Q

Media-fill test is incubated for _________.

53
Q

Temperature and humidity in the SEC must be monitored and documented how often?

A

once daily minimum

54
Q

In the SEC, maintain temperature equal to or less than?

55
Q

In the SEC, maintain humidity at equal to or less than _____%.

56
Q

Temperature monitoring devices must be calibrated every ________ months.

57
Q

In the storage area, the temperature must be monitored and documented how often?

A

once daily minimum

58
Q

Fridge must be ___ to ____ C.

59
Q

Freezer must be ___ to ____ C.

A

-25 to -10

60
Q

Airborne particle sampling is done how often?

A

every 6 months

61
Q

Air pressure is checked at least ___________ or________ using a continuous monitoring device.

A
  • once daily
  • with every work shift
62
Q

Microbial air and Surface Monitoring provides us with information on:

A

the quality of the compounding environment

63
Q

Surface sampling (before cleaning and disinfecting) is done when?

A

• Every 30 days for all classified areas and pass-through spaces
• End of each shift for the dirtiest areas (which are the ones touched most frequently—door handles, inside PEC, etc.)

64
Q

What happens when contamination criteria are exceeded?

A

A root cause investigation must be launched

65
Q

Visible air sampling is done how often?

A
  • Category 1 & 2: every 6 months
  • Category 3: monthly
66
Q

Surface sampling is done how often?

A
  • Category 1 & 2: monthly
  • Category 3: weekly