*Module 4: Laws Flashcards

1
Q

What authority do Federal and State Administrative agencies have?

A

They are given authority to create rules & regulations.

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2
Q

What is the role of the court?

A

To apply applicable law.

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3
Q

What are the roles of the President?

A

Executive Orders and vetoes.

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4
Q

What is the U.S. Congress made up of?

A

House of Representatives and Senate.

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5
Q

Who must sponsor a bill?

A

A member of Congress.

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6
Q

What does U.S. Congress do?

A

Makes federal laws.

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7
Q

What is the state legislature made up of?

A

WV House of Delegates and Senate.

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8
Q

Who makes state laws?

A

State legislatures.

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9
Q

What are political subdivisions?

A

Cities and counties, ordinances.

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10
Q

Who has the authority to create regulations/rules regarding pharmacy in WV?

A

WVBOP.

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11
Q

What are the objectives of criminal handlings?

A

Deter, punish, rehabilitate.

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12
Q

What is the objective of civil handlings?

A

Compensation to injured party.

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13
Q

What do Administrative Actions include?

A

Disciplinary determination which may include warning, fines, licensure revocation, or suspension.

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14
Q

What is a summons?

A

Issued by court notifying defendant of suit and commanding defendant to file an answer.

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15
Q

What is a complaint?

A

Contains material facts of case, allegations against defendant.

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16
Q

What is an answer?

A

Admitting to or denying allegations.

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17
Q

What is discovery?

A

Pretrial process in which each side must give the other all facts, evidence, and names of witnesses upon which it will rely.

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18
Q

What is a deposition?

A

Out-of-court testimony by a party or witness under oath.

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19
Q

How is negligence generally defined?

A

As a failure to act as a reasonable prudent person under the same or similar circumstances.

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20
Q

What are the 4 elements of negligence?

A

Duty, breach of duty, damages, causation.

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21
Q

What must be proven regarding duty in negligence?

A

It must be proven that the pharmacist had a duty to provide the service/action.

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22
Q

What constitutes a breach of duty?

A

The pharmacist did not do the service or action appropriately or act as a reasonably prudent pharmacist under the same or similar circumstance.

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23
Q

What is considered damage in negligence?

A

The person was harmed.

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24
Q

What is causation in negligence?

A

The damage was caused by a breach of duty.

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25
Q

Who has a dual role of gatekeeper and enforcer regarding regulating pharmacy?

A

FDA.

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26
Q

What is the Joint Commission?

A

An independent regulatory body that focuses on patient care and safety and accredits/certifies health care organizations.

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27
Q

What is the goal of the National Association of the Boards of Pharmacy?

A

To ensure consistent standards among the state boards.

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28
Q

How do state medical boards regulate pharmacy?

A

Regulate scopes of practice, place prescribing limitations on some mid-level practitioners, and Pharmacist Collaborative Practice Agreements.

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29
Q

What department is OSHA part of?

A

Department of Labor.

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30
Q

Who enforces HIPAA?

A

Office of Civil Rights (OCR).

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31
Q

Why was the 1848 Drug Importation Act enacted?

A

Because products were coming into ports (primarily in New York) that were adulterated.

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32
Q

What did the 1848 Drug Importation Act do?

A

Mandated inspection of drugs prior to entry into the US.

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33
Q

What did the United States Pharmacopoeia (USP) focus on?

A

Drugs that were of first choice therapeutically.

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34
Q

What did the National Formulary include?

A

Drugs whose extent of use justified development of a monograph.

35
Q

What is the official compendium for drug standards in the US?

36
Q

How does the FDA define a drug?

A

As a substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease, or a substance (other than food) intended to affect the structure or function of the body.

37
Q

What is a drug product?

A

The finished dosage form that contains a drug substance, generally in association with other active or inactive ingredients.

38
Q

What did the Pure Food and Drug Act do?

A

Prohibited foods and drugs that were misbranded (mislabeled) and/or adulterated (tainted/not pure/not the correct strength) and defined drugs as all medicines and preparations recognized in the USP or NF.

39
Q

What brought about the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act?

A

The sulfanilamide elixir tragedy.

40
Q

What did the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act require?

A

Drugs must show safety before being sold.

41
Q

What established criteria for distinguishing prescription drugs from OTC drugs?

A

Durham-Humphrey Amendment.

42
Q

What legally established oral prescriptions and refills?

A

Durham-Humphrey Amendment.

43
Q

What specified the minimum info that a dispensed Rx label must contain?

A

Durham-Humphrey Amendment.

44
Q

What did the Food Additives Amendment do?

A

Prohibited food additives that might cause cancer.

45
Q

What did the Color Additive Amendments do?

A

Prohibited additives that might cause cancer just like the Food Additives Amendment.

46
Q

What was the catalyst of the Kefauver-Harris Amendment?

A

Thalidomide teratogenic effects causing phocomelia in thousands of infants in Europe.

47
Q

What did the Kefauver-Harris Amendment do?

A

Required manufacturers to prove efficacy before the FDA will approve them for sale.

48
Q

What is the Kefauver-Harris Amendment also called?

A

Drug Efficacy Amendment.

49
Q

What established good manufacturing practices?

A

Kefauver-Harris Amendment.

50
Q

What did the Medical Device Amendments do?

A

Allowed FDA to review medical devices for safety and efficacy and classify devices according to function.

51
Q

What was the catalyst of the Federal Anti-Tampering Act?

A

Cyanide placed into Tylenol capsules.

52
Q

What did the Federal Anti-Tampering Act do?

A

Made it a crime to tamper with packaged consumer products.

53
Q

What did the Orphan Drug Act do?

A

Provided incentives for manufacturers to develop and market drugs or biologics for the treatment of ‘rare diseases or conditions.’

54
Q

What is a device?

A

Instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, implant intended to cure, mitigate, treat or prevent disease in man or animal.

55
Q

How do devices differ from drugs?

A

Unlike drugs, devices do not accomplish their purpose through chemical action and they do not hinge on being metabolized.

56
Q

What class of devices are not intended to support or sustain life?

57
Q

What class of devices are most devices with increased risk?

58
Q

What class of devices are complex, high-tech instruments?

59
Q

Give examples of Class 1 devices.

A

Dental floss, orthodontic bands, tongue depressor, scissors, examination gloves, toothbrushes, ear irrigation kits, non-electric wheelchair.

60
Q

Give examples of Class 2 devices.

A

Powered wheelchairs, some pregnancy kits, syringes, insulin pump, surgical sutures, BP cuffs, intravascular catheters.

61
Q

Give examples of Class 3 devices.

A

Breast implants, pacemakers, defibrillators, stents, cochlear implants, high-frequency ventilators, extended wear soft contact lenses.

62
Q

What did the Drug Price Competition Act do?

A

Increased the availability of less costly generic drugs by allowing FDA to approve applications for generic versions of brand-name drugs without repeating the research.

63
Q

What did the Prescription Drug Marketing Act do?

A

Established sales restrictions and record keeping requirements for drug samples and prohibited hospitals from reselling their pharmaceutical purchases.

64
Q

What did the Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA 90) recognize?

A

The expectation that pharmacists don’t just deal with drug distribution, but also are fundamental in detection and resolution of drug therapy problems.

65
Q

What was the aim of OBRA 90?

A

To decrease Medicaid expenditures by improving outcomes.

66
Q

What established a requirement for drug utilization reviews?

67
Q

What did OBRA 90 rebates require?

A

Manufacturers to provide drugs to Medicaid at their ‘best price.’

68
Q

What did OBRA 90 use demonstration projects for?

A

To determine whether outcomes improve, and costs decrease when pharmacists are paid to provide DUR services.

69
Q

What does Drug Use Review (DUR) include?

A

Retrospective review, educational programs, prospective review.

70
Q

What does OBRA 90 Prospective review include?

A

Therapeutic duplication, drug-disease contraindications, drug-drug interactions, incorrect drug dosage, incorrect duration of treatment, drug-allergy interactions, clinical abuse/misuse of medications.

71
Q

What is the function of the prospective review?

A

To detect ‘potential’ problems.

72
Q

What was the catalyst of the Generic Drug Enforcement Act?

A

FDA staff accepting bribes to facilitate faster approval of drug products.

73
Q

What does the Generic Drug Enforcement Act ban?

A

Individuals or firms from participating in the drug approval process if convicted of related felonies.

74
Q

What did the Prescription Drug User Fee Act require?

A

Manufacturers seeking NDAs to pay fees for applications and supplements when the FDA must review the studies.

75
Q

What does the MedWatch system do?

A

Collects reports from HCP and patients on problems with drugs and other medical products.

76
Q

What does the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act do?

A

Defines what a dietary supplement is and allows manufacturers to make certain claims that would have been illegal previously.

77
Q

What did the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act do?

A

Streamlined regulatory procedures to expedite drug/device availability and created a fast-track approval process for drugs intended for serious or life-threatening conditions.

78
Q

What did the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act do?

A

Extensively expanded health care law.

79
Q

What is the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act also known as?

A

ACA; Affordable Care Act; commonly called ‘ObamaCare’ by patients.

80
Q

What is the Drug Quality and Security Act also known as?

A

‘Compounding Quality Act.’

81
Q

What impact does the Drug Quality and Security Act have?

A

Clarifies and strengthens FDA oversight of pharmacies engaged in large-scale compounding/shipping of sterile products.

82
Q

What was the catalyst of the Drug Quality and Security Act?

A

Meningitis outbreak caused by contaminated drugs manufactured at a New England pharmacy.

83
Q

What did Part 2 of the Drug Quality and Security Act focus on?

A

Drug Supply Chain Security, including track and trace requirements.

84
Q

What did the 21st Century Cures Act do?

A

Created new clinical trial design options and accelerated paths to market for drugs intended to treat certain serious or life-threatening diseases.