Module 45 Exam

Question 1

All of the following are examples of standard patient transfer equipment, EXCEPT:

Answer 1

stokes baskets

Question 2

The primary purpose of a “jump kit” is to:

Answer 2

have available all of the equipment that will be used in the forst 5 minutes

Question 3

You have been dispatched to a call for an unresponsive patient. What is the MOST important information that you should obtain from the dispatcher initially?

Answer 3

the exact physical location of the patient

Question 4

While en route to a call for a major motor vehicle collision, the MOST important safety precaution(s) that you and your partner can take is/are:

Answer 4

wearing seat belts and shoulder harnesses at all times

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a guideline for safe ambulance driving?

Answer 5

use one-way streets whenever possible

Question 6

At what speed will the ambulance begin to hydroplane when there is water present on the roadway?

Answer 6

30mph

Question 7

The most common and often most serious ambulance crashes occur at/on:

Answer 7

intersections

Question 8

The recommended dimensions for a helicopter landing zone are:

Answer 8

100 x 100 feet

Question 9

Which of the following statements about helicopters is true?

Answer 9

It is possible that the main rotor blade will drip to within 4 feet of the ground

Question 10

Upon arrival at a scene where hazardous materials are involved, you should park the ambulance:

Answer 10

upwind from the scene

Question 11

Which agency’s specifications are states most likely to use when establishing standards for licensing or certifying ambulance operators?

Answer 11

National Fire Protection Association

Question 12

If you are on an emergency call with your warning lights and siren turned on, you may be allowed to do which of the following?

Answer 12

Drive faster than the posted speed limit

Question 13

Keeping a safe distance between your vehicle and the one in front of you, checking for tailgaters behind your ambulance, and being aware of objects in your mirror’s blind spots are considered maintaining a(n):

Answer 13

cushion of safety

Question 14

If your ambulance is the first vehicle to arrive on a motor vehicle accident scene, what should you do?

Answer 14

Park the ambulance in the fend-off position with the front wheels turned away from the scene

Question 15

To ensure you have enough reaction time to avoid hitting a motorist who does not move over, you should drive, at minimum, how many seconds behind vehicles traveling at an average speed?

Answer 15

4

Question 16

When responding to a scene where smoke or possible hazardous materials are present, how should you park?

Answer 16

uphill and upwind

Question 17

If you are signaled by the medevac crew to approach a medevac helicopter that has landed on uneven ground, from which direction should you approach the aircraft?

Answer 17

From the downhill side of the aircraft

Question 18

What is the safest path when cornering?

Answer 18

enter high, exit low

Question 19

A jump kit contains everything you might need in the first 5 minutes with a patient with one exception. What is that one thing?

Answer 19

an AED

Question 20

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should:

Answer 20

never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.

Question 21

General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, except:

Answer 21

regularly using the siren as much as possible.

Question 22

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then:

Answer 22

observe the scene for safety hazards.

Question 23

Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should:

Answer 23

turn your headlights off

Question 24

Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped.

Answer 24

300

Question 25

A medical transport helicopter is incoming, and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should:

Answer 25

use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ.

Question 26

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means:

Answer 26

keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors’ blind spots

Question 27

If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed:

Answer 27

will decrease the driver’s reaction time.

Question 28

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called:

Answer 28

cleaning

Question 29

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should:

Answer 29

position the ambulance upwind

Question 30

Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the most readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance?

Answer 30

bleeding control supplies

Question 31

When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should:

Answer 31

slow down and allow the driver to pass

Question 32

Aggressive ambulance driving might have a negative effect on other motorists because:

Answer 32

it might not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.

Question 33

You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should:

Answer 33

remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass

Question 34

When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should:

Answer 34

be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time

Question 35

Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes:

Answer 35

at least one EMT

Question 36

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should:

Answer 36

stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

Question 37

When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should:

Answer 37

remain in the extreme left hand lane

Question 38

While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to:

Answer 38

carefully exceed posted speed limit

Question 39

You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should:

Answer 39

advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit

Question 40

Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is most accurately defined as:

Answer 40

destroying pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose.

Question 41

When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance:

Answer 41

100′ past the scene on the same side of the road

Question 42

The use of lights and siren on an ambulance:

Answer 42

signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.

Question 43

Proper protective equipment will vary depending on the hazards encountered. Which piece of equipment should be utilized during all patient contacts?

Answer 43

Blood- and fluid-impermeable gloves

Question 44

What is the first phase of extrication?

Answer 44

preperation

Question 45

As you approach an unconscious patient who is still in her wrecked vehicle, you note that there is a power line entangled in the wreckage of the vehicle. You should:

Answer 45

retreat until the power line has been removed or the power is shut off.

Question 46

A two-door passenger car struck a tree while driving approximately 50 mph. The doors are badly damaged and jammed, and the driver appears to be unconscious inside the vehicle. Entering the vehicle by breaking the back window is an example of:

Answer 46

complex access

Question 47

A 30-year-old semiconscious man is pinned by the steering wheel of his badly wrecked vehicle. Once access has been gained to the patient, the EMT should:

Answer 47

perform a primary assessment and provide any needed emergency care prior to extrication.

Question 48

While the EMT is in a vehicle assessing the patient, the rescue team should be:

Answer 48

assessing exactly how the patient is trapped and determining the safest way to extricate.

Question 49

Proper removal of a critically injured patient from an automobile involves:

Answer 49

moving the patient in smooth, slow, controlled steps.

Question 50

A man has been sucked inside the bin of a grain silo and is trapped. Which of the following rescue teams is the MOST appropriate to request?

Answer 50

Confined space rescue

Question 51

You respond to a wooded area to help search for a child who has been missing for approximately 24 hours. Which of the following equipment should you leave in the ambulance?

Answer 51

backboard

Question 52

You are dispatched to the scene of a trench collapse. Upon arriving at the scene, your ambulance should be parked at least _____ feet from the incident.

Answer 52

500

Question 53

As an EMT, what is your main role at the scene of an accident involving extrication of a patient?

Answer 53

To assess the patient and provide immediate medical care

Question 54

Which of the following is an example of simple access?

Answer 54

opening a rear door

Question 55

In an incident involving multiple casualties, how should patient care be initiated?

Answer 55

Only after all patients have been triaged

Question 56

During which phase of extrication should you don PPE?

Answer 56

upon arrival

Question 57

You are assessing a female patient as the extrication team gets ready to roll up the dashboard to remove her. The patient has multiple fractures in her left arm. What should you do?

Answer 57

Secure the injured arm against her body.

Question 58

You have tried to gain simple access to a crashed vehicle but the doors are all jammed. What is your next step?

Answer 58

Break the window farthest away from the patient.

Question 59

At what point should you begin your primary assessment of a patient who has been entrapped?

Answer 59

Before extrication begins

Question 60

What should you do if you find an entrapped patient who is in need of CPR?

Answer 60

Perform rapid extrication techniques.

Question 61

How far away should you park your ambulance from the site of an accident?

Answer 61

500

Question 62

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately ____ per cubic foot.

Answer 62

100 lbs

Question 63

A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable, and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should:

Answer 63

immobilize him with a vest-style device.

Question 64

You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear the incident commander state, “We have located a victim” over the radio. You should:

Answer 64

remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you.

Question 65

Extrication is defined as:

Answer 65

removal from a dangerous situation or position.

Question 66

The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient’s wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should:

Answer 66

ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene

Question 67

You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should:

Answer 67

grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.

Question 68

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should:

Answer 68

immediately request additional resources.

Question 69

Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team?

Answer 69

Providing safe entry and access to patients.

Question 70

Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene, you should:

Answer 70

ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.

Question 71

As you and your team are removing an unresponsive patient from her wrecked car, you note that she has deformities to both of her legs and a deformity to her left humerus. You should:

Answer 71

support the injured extremities and continue removal.

Question 72

Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct?

Answer 72

Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.

Question 73

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should:

Answer 73

perform a primary assessment.

Question 74

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene but is not present when you arrive, you should:

Answer 74

check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.

Question 75

Disentanglement involves:

Answer 75

removing a patient from a dangerous position.

Question 76

The EMT’s role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to:

Answer 76

stand by at the command post until the person is located.

Question 77

The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident:

Answer 77

is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.

Question 78

Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is:

Answer 78

surveying the area for hazards.

Question 79

To evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should:

Answer 79

perform a 360° walkaround of the scene.

Question 80

Situational awareness is most accurately defined as:

Answer 80

the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.

Question 81

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should:

Answer 81

ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

Question 82

When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should:

Answer 82

protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

Question 83

A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly assess her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and her radial pulse is absent. You should:

Answer 83

maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated.

Question 84

A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilateral closed femur deformities. You should:

Answer 84

direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.

Question 85

What is the purpose of the incident command system (ICS)?
A. Ensuring responder and public safety
B. Achieving incident management goals
C. Ensuring the efficient use of resources
D. All of the above

Answer 85

All of the above

Question 86

Upon arriving at a scene in which the incident command system has been activated, you should expect to:

Answer 86

be passed from sector to sector, as needed, in between assignments.

Question 87

When EMS responds to a disaster, as part of their response within the ICS, EMS would start with a scene size-up. What is the next step for the first- responding units?

Answer 87

Establishing command

Question 88

Which of the following statements BEST describes a mass-casualty incident?

Answer 88

The patient count exhausts your resources.

Question 89

Which of the following patients would have the HIGHEST treatment priority at the scene of a mass-casualty incident?

Answer 89

24-year-old man who is unconscious, has snoring respirations, and severe burns

Question 90

How does a disaster differ from a mass-casualty incident?

A. Disasters may not involve personal injuries.
B. In a disaster, EMS may be on the scene for days or weeks.
C. Only an elected official can declare a disaster.
D. All of the above

Answer 90

All of the above

Question 91

A large tanker truck has overturned on a highway. When you arrive, you see a clear liquid leaking from the rear of the tanker. The driver, who appears to be unconscious, is still in the vehicle and is bleeding heavily from the face. You should:

Answer 91

fully assess the situation and request the appropriate assistance.

Question 92

Which of the following situations MOST likely involves a hazardous material?

Answer 92

Tractor trailer rig that is emitting a visible cloud

Question 93

When dealing with a hazardous materials incident, where should you set up your decontamination area?

Answer 93

Between the hazard zone and treatment area

Question 94

Which toxicity level would you assign a hazardous material spill that could cause a person temporary damage or residual injury unless prompt medical treatment is given?

Answer 94

Level 2

Question 95

Which type of drum is used for the storage of corrosives such as acids, bases, or oxidizers?

Answer 95

Polyethylene

Question 96

Which of the following is a requirement when labeling pesticide bags?

Answer 96

the EPA establishment number

Question 97

In which control zone would you find the decontamination area?

Answer 97

warm zone

Question 98

Which toxicity level includes materials that are extremely hazardous to health and could cause death with minimal contact?

Answer 98

level 4

Question 99

The two important underlying principles of the NIMS are standardization and:

Answer 99

Flexibility

Question 100

Which of the following is a member of the command staff?

Answer 100

Public information officer

Question 101

You are triaging victims of a train derailment. Patient A has significant bleeding from an abdominal injury. Patient B has several simple fractures of the femur and ulna. Patient C is conscious and complains of head and neck pain. Patient D is in cardiac arrest. How would you prioritize these patients?

Answer 101

A-red; B-green; C-yellow; D-black

Question 102

Which level of PPE do you need to wear when dealing with a level 1 or 2 toxicity level?

Answer 102

C

Question 103

What is the primary difference between a disaster and an MCI?

Answer 103

MCIs are usually short term and disasters are long term.

Question 104

During triage, how should you tag a child who is breathing fewer than 15 breaths/min?

Answer 104

red

Question 105

According to the START triage system, which of the following patients should be triaged as an immediate priority (red tag)?

Answer 105

unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min

Question 106

Which of the following statements regarding transport of patients from a multiple-casualty incident or disaster site is correct?

Answer 106

Immediate-priority patients should be transported two at a time.

Question 107

You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unresponsive. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do?

Answer 107

Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering.

Question 108

You are triaging patients at the scene of a multiple-vehicle crash when you encounter a young male who is unresponsive and is not breathing. After you open his airway, he begins to breathe at a rapid rate. According to the START triage system, you should:

Answer 108

tag him as immediate (red), place him in the recovery position, and move to the next patient.

Question 109

The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to:

Answer 109

prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.

Question 110

Which of the following statements regarding communications at a disaster or multiple-casualty incident is correct?

Answer 110

Each command group should utilize a separate radio frequency.

Question 111

You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be transported. There are other injured patients at the scene, and it will be approximately 10 minutes before other ambulances will arrive. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. You should:

Answer 111

remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives.

Question 112

When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area:

Answer 112

secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered

Question 113

According to the START triage system, what should you do if you encounter an unresponsive patient who is not breathing?

Answer 113

Open the airway and reassess breathing status.

Question 114

You and your partner are the first to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle accident. As you approach the scene, you can see multiple patients, some walking and others who are still in their vehicles. You should:

Answer 114

declare a multiple-casualty incident and request additional resources.

Question 115

When a rehabilitation area is established at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, it should:

Answer 115

be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself.

Question 116

Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct?

Answer 116

Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.

Question 117

A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag; expectant) patient, unless:

Answer 117

there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.

Question 118

The ____ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities.

Answer 118

transportation

Question 119

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct?

Answer 119

Some substances are not hazardous by themselves but become toxic when mixed with another chemical.

Question 120

After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, except:

Answer 120

the recommended transport destination for each patient.

Question 121

A Level 4 hazardous material:

Answer 121

requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard

Question 122

The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazardous material is called:

Answer 122

decontamination

Question 123

Burn patients without airway compromise and patients with multiple bone or joint injuries should be marked with a ____ triage tag at a mass-casualty incident.

Answer 123

yellow

Question 124

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should:

Answer 124

immediately check for a pulse.

Question 125

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should:

Answer 125

assess for a distal pulse.

Question 126

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the treatment supervisor?

Answer 126

Primary assessment

Question 127

A 49-year-old man has been removed from his overturned tanker, which was carrying a hazardous material. The tank ruptured, and he was exposed to the material. When rescue personnel bring him to the decontamination area, they note that he is unconscious and has slow, shallow breathing. They should:

Answer 127

cut away all of the patient’s clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter as they can.

Question 128

Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs?

Answer 128

Water-reactive solids

Question 129

The first step in the START triage system is to:

Answer 129

move all walking patients to a designated area.

Question 130

The reference used as a base for your initial actions at a HazMat incident is/are:

Answer 130

the Emergency Response Guidebook.

Question 131

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does not fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system?

Answer 131

Extrication

Question 132

The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions regarding an incident is called:

Answer 132

freelancing.

Question 133

Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster:

Answer 133

often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

Question 134

You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category?

Answer 134

A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing

Question 135

General principles for approaching a potential HazMat incident include:

Answer 135

asking for wind direction from dispatch and entering downwind.

Question 136

Which of the following most accurately describes a multiple-casualty incident?

Answer 136

An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system’s available resources

Question 137

Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should:

Answer 137

begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation.

Question 138

To accomplish the goal of primary triage, it is important to:

Answer 138

keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic.

Question 139

Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident?

Answer 139

Sight and sound

Question 140

Which of the following is not a common role of the EMT at the scene of a HazMat incident?

Answer 140

decontamination

Question 141

The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to:

Answer 141

ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.

Question 142

Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category?

Answer 142

22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis

Question 143

While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should:

Answer 143

assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients.

Question 144

You and your partner arrive at the scene where a truck has crashed into a small building, injuring eight people. You immediately request additional ambulances and begin the triage process. The first patient that you triage is a young female who is unconscious and apneic. She has an open head injury, and her pulse is weak and thready. You should:

Answer 144

assign her as a black tag/low priority and continue triaging.

Question 145

What type of terrorist group would MOST likely bomb an abortion clinic?

Answer 145

Single-issue group

Question 146

The term 􏰀weaponization􏰁 is defined as:

Answer 146

the cultivation, synthetization, and/or mutation of an agent in order to maximize the target population􏰂s exposure.

Question 147

The Department of Homeland Security posts a daily advisory system to keep the public aware of the current terrorist threat level. What does an orange level indicate?

Answer 147

High: High risk of terrorist attacks

Question 148

You are dispatched to a bombing along with 15 other ambulances. Upon arriving at the scene, you should stage your ambulance:

Answer 148

upwind and uphill from the bombing site.

Question 149

A terrorist would MOST likely use a secondary explosive device:

Answer 149

to injure rescuers and gain maximum public attention.

Question 150

When assessing a patient who was exposed to a vesicant agent, you should expect to encounter:

Answer 150

skin blistering

Question 151

What does sulfur mustard do to the cells within the body?

Answer 151

It makes the cells mutate, which damages and changes the cells and causes cellular death.

Question 152

Pinpoint pupils, vomiting, bradycardia, and excessive salivation are signs of exposure to:

Answer 152

soman

Question 153

You respond to a plastic factory, where numerous people present with shortness of breath, flushed skin, and altered mental status. One of the patients tells you he smelled almonds before he started feeling sick. These people were MOST likely exposed to:

Answer 153

cyanide

Question 154

Factors that have the GREATEST impact on the severity of radiation exposure include:

Answer 154

time, distance, and shielding

Question 155

Mustard gas is considered to be a:

Answer 155

mutagen

Question 156

For which group of agents is miosis a sign of exposure?

Answer 156

nerve agent

Question 157

Which of the following requires a host to survive?

Answer 157

smallpox

Question 158

Which is the most deadly route of entry for anthrax?

Answer 158

Inhalation

Question 159

Which of the following is the means by which an agent is spread?

Answer 159

Dissemination

Question 160

Which of the following statements is true regarding a dirty bomb?

Answer 160

The destructive capability is limited to the explosives that are attached to it.

Question 161

Which type of blast injury is most likely to produce penetrating trauma?

Answer 161

Secondary

Question 162

What does the Hartford Consensus highlight in its THREAT acronym?

Answer 162

Hemorrhage control

Question 163

You are on scene at a suspected terror attack in which a RDD has detonated. A 67-year-old patient reports tightness in his chest. The patient is coughing up blood and is in respiratory distress. During the physical assessment, you notice subcutaneous emphysema. Which condition does the patient most likely have?

Answer 163

pulmonary blast injury

Question 164

Petechiae are the result of:

Answer 164

hollow organ injury

Question 165

You are assessing a 30-year-old female who presents with respiratory distress and tachycardia after she opened a package that was delivered to her home. The patient tells you that there was a fine white powder on the package, but she did not think it was important. This patient has most likely been exposed to:

Answer 165

anthrax.

Question 166

Which of the following statements regarding a “dirty bomb” is correct?

Answer 166

Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.

Question 167

After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should:

Answer 167

assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen.

Question 168

Which of the following terrorist groups poses the least threat to a person’s physical safety?

Answer 168

Cyber terrorists

Question 169

Which of the following agents blocks the body’s ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds?

Answer 169

hydrogen cyanide

Question 170

The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called

Answer 170

dissemination

Question 171

Botulinum is:

Answer 171

a potent bacterial neurotoxin

Question 172

A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as:

Answer 172

any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage.

Question 173

Exposure to ____ would MOST likely result in immediate respiratory distress?

Answer 173

chlorine

Question 174

Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior:

Answer 174

pesticide

Question 175

The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 qnd 1995 were carried out by a:

Answer 175

A violent religious group

Question 176

You are dispatched to the scene of a building explosion. Upon your arrival, you see people frantically fleeing the building, screaming, “Everyone is passing out!” You should:

Answer 176

carefully assess the situation and ensure your own safety

Question 177

Phosgene (CG) has an odor that resembles:

Answer 177

cut grass

Question 178

If the incident command system (ICS) is already established at the scene of a WMD or terrorist attack, the EMT should:

Answer 178

locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.

Question 179

Signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent include:

Answer 179

salivation, pinpoint pupils, and diarrhea.

Question 180

Which of the following statements regarding the persistency and volatility of a chemical agent is correct?

Answer 180

VX, a highly persistent nerve agent, can remain in the environment for weeks to months.

Question 181

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should

Answer 181

ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building

Question 182

Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or WMD incident is MOST important because

Answer 182

a secondary explosive device may detonate.

Question 183

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to

Answer 183

seep out of the blood vessels and tissues.

Question 184

As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. the MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to:

Answer 184

know the current threat level issues by the Department of Homeland Security

Question 185

When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be MOST suspicious of exposure to

Answer 185

phosgene or chlorine

Question 186

symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include

Answer 186

fever and headache

Question 187

A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient’s clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:

Answer 187

smallpox

Question 188

The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of:

Answer 188

domestic terrorism

Question 189

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the:

Answer 189

patient’s distance from the epicenter of the explosion.