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EMSP 1501 > Module 29 Exam > Flashcards

Module 29 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by:

A

chronic stretching of the alveolar walls.

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2
Q

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:

A

abnormal breath sounds.

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3
Q

While auscultating an elderly woman’s breath sounds, you hear low-pitched “rattling” sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?

A

Aspiration pneumonia

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4
Q

A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and with an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should:

A

apply a CPAP device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.

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5
Q

A 60-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and dry skin, and has respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following treatments is MOST appropriate for this patient?

A

Oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and a focused secondary assessment

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6
Q

A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing supplemental oxygen, you should:

A

determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.

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7
Q

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient’s condition?

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax

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8
Q

Asthma is caused by a response of the:

A

immune system

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9
Q

You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. You should suspect:

A

acute pulmonary embolism

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10
Q

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient exhales, and before inhaling, the patient should put his or her lips around the inhaler, take a deep breath, and depress the inhale. You should:

A

instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

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11
Q

You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should:

A

assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device

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12
Q

When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should:

A

start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.

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13
Q

You are assessing a patient with respiratory distress and are unsure if the cause is congestive heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following clinical signs would be the MOST helpful in determining whether the patient has chronic heart failure or COPD?

A

Jugular vein distention

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14
Q

Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of:

A

stridor

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15
Q

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:

A

epinephrine

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16
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is correct?

A

The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.

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17
Q

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:

A

blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing

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18
Q

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?

A

24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

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19
Q

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:

A

oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane

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20
Q

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

A

Alveoli

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21
Q

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations?

A

Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

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22
Q

Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct?

A

Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood

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23
Q

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct?

A

Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension.

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24
Q

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by:

A

ventricular fibrillation

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25
Q

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should:

A

remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest

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26
Q

You and your partner have achieved return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in a patient who was in cardiac arrest. An ALS unit will arrive in less than 2 minutes. The patient remains unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. Further treatment for this patient should include:

A

bag-mask ventilation at 10 breaths/min and assessment of oxygen saturation

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27
Q

Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient’s cardiac output?

A

Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse

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28
Q

The AED has delivered a shock to an elderly male in cardiac arrest. Following 2 minutes of CPR, you re-analyze the patient’s cardiac rhythm and receive a “no shock advised” message. After further resuscitation, you restore a palpable carotid pulse. Your next action should be to:

A

reassess airway and breathing and treat accordingly

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29
Q

Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger?

A

Aspirin

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30
Q

Defibrillator pads are placed on the patient’s chest:

A

with one pad to the right of the upper sternum and the other pad to the left lower chest below the armpit

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31
Q

When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that:

A

blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles

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32
Q

The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated:

A

behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle

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33
Q

A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by:

A

dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon

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34
Q

You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two off-duty EMTs performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to:

A

feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing

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35
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Constriction of blood vessels in the muscles

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36
Q

Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A

hypoglycemia

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37
Q

Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary veins

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38
Q

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients:

A

who have experienced a head injury

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39
Q

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours’ duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:

A

administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

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40
Q

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe:

A

a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia

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41
Q

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. You expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should:

A

remove the nitroglycerin patch, administer oxygen, and place him in a supine position.

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42
Q

When documenting a patient’s description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should:

A

use the patients own words

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43
Q

You and your EMT partner are the first to arrive at the scene of an unresponsive 70-year-old man. Your assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. A paramedic unit is en route to the scene and will arrive in approximately 5 minutes. You should:

A

begin CPR, apply the AED, and deliver a shock if it is indicated

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44
Q

A 66-year-old woman presents with a stabbing pain in the middle of her chest that radiates to her back. She tells you that the pain suddenly began about 30 minutes ago and has been severe since the onset. She has a history of hypertension, but admits to being noncompliant with her antihypertensive medications. When you assess her, you find that her blood pressure is significantly higher in her left arm than it is in her right arm. What do these signs and symptoms MOST likely indicate?

A

Dissecting aortic aneurysm

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45
Q

A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has been prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes:

A

placing her in an upright position

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46
Q

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient’s wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should:

A

begin ventilatory assistance

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47
Q

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should:

A

immediately resume CPR

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48
Q

The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the:

A

brain

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49
Q

Which of the following is a major difference between angina pectoris and AMI?

A

Anginal pain typically subsides with rest

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50
Q

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should:

A

begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible

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51
Q

Which of the following findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a patient who complains of a headache?

A

Neck stiffness or pain

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52
Q

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:

A

hypertension

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53
Q

Febrile seizures:

A

are usually benign but should be evaluated

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54
Q

When you are obtaining medical history from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine:

A

when the patient last appeared normal

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55
Q

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:

A

a seizure

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56
Q

The principal clinical difference between a stroke and hypoglycemia is that patients with hypoglycemia:

A

usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness

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57
Q

The frontal lobe of the brain controls:

A

emotion

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58
Q

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should:

A

monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level

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59
Q

You arrive at a grocery store shortly after a 35-year-old male stopped seizing. Your assessment reveals that he is confused and incontinent of urine. The patient’s girlfriend tells you that he has a history of seizures and takes topiramate (Topamax). When obtaining further medical history from the girlfriend, it is MOST important to:

A

obtain a description of how the seizure developed

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60
Q

A generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure is characterized by:

A

10

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61
Q

When transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place the patient in a:

A

recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.

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62
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a focal-onset aware seizure?

A

normal level of consciousness

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63
Q

During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should:

A

ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed

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64
Q

You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should:

A

suction her oropharynx and transport immediately

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65
Q

Which of the following patients would MOST likely demonstrate typical signs of infection, such as a fever?

A

17y/o male with anxiety

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66
Q

Which of the following symptoms would lead the EMT to believe that a patient’s headache is caused by sinus congestion?

A

The pain is worse when bending ove

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67
Q

You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should:

A

repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient’s arms into position yourself

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68
Q

The three major parts of the brain are the:

A

cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

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69
Q

A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing:

A

dysarthia

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70
Q

A 58-year-old male presents with confusion, right-sided weakness, and slurred speech. His airway is patent, and his breathing is adequate. His wife is present and is very upset. Which of the following has the MOST immediately priority?

A

asking his wife when she noticed the symptoms

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71
Q

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:

A

hypertension

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72
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a focal-onset aware seizure?

A

a seizure that begins in one extremity

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73
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure?

A

confusion and fatigue

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74
Q

Status epilepticus is characterized by:

A

prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness

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75
Q

Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure?

A

poisoning

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76
Q

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:

A

cerebellum

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77
Q

Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm?

A

sudden, severe headache

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78
Q

You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should:

A

initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible

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79
Q

An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called:

A

aneurysm

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80
Q

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:

A

unable to produce or understand speech

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81
Q

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when:

A

a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms

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82
Q

A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport?

A

he is currently prescriped any medications

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83
Q

Which of the following medications would indicate that a patient has a history of seizures?

A

Levetiracetam (Keppra)

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84
Q

You arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should:

A

maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen.

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85
Q

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should:

A

ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.

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86
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke?

A

blockage of a cerebral artery

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87
Q

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced:

A

a ruptured cerebral artery

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88
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT a common cause of seizures?

A

hypotension

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89
Q

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke?

A

hypovolemia

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90
Q

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men?

A

Cystitis

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91
Q

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:

A

removing sodium and water from the body.

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92
Q

Chronic renal failure is a condition that:

A

is often caused by hypertension or diabetes

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93
Q

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who:

A

consume a lot of alcohol

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94
Q

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

A

lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen

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95
Q

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is:

A

transporting the patient without delay

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96
Q

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is:

A

peritonitis

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97
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

A

Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating

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98
Q

In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum:

A

is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation

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99
Q

Pain that is localized to the lower back and/or lower abdominal quadrants is MOST suggestive of:

A

an aortic aneurysm.

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100
Q

Peritonitis may result in shock because:

A

fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.

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101
Q

A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain?

A

kidney

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102
Q

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:

A

aortic aneurysm

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103
Q

A 35-year-old obese woman is complaining of localized pain in the right upper quadrant with referred pain to the right shoulder. The MOST likely cause of her pain is:

A

acute cholecystitis.

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104
Q

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured?

A

Liver

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105
Q

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?

A

Spleen

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106
Q

You respond to the residence of a 70-year-old male who complains of weakness and severe shortness of breath. His wife tells you that he is a dialysis patient, but has missed his last two treatments. After applying oxygen, you auscultate his lungs and hear diffuse rhonchi. The patient is conscious, but appears confused. His blood pressure is 98/54 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and irregular, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. You should:

A

leave him in a sitting position, keep him warm, and prepare for immediate transport

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107
Q

Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct?

A

Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself

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108
Q

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and lack of appetite are MOST indicative of:

A

appendicitis

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109
Q

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours’ duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to:

A

be alert for signs and symptoms of shock

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110
Q

You are transporting a 49-year-old male with “tearing” abdominal pain. You are approximately 30 miles away from the closest hospital. During your reassessment, you determine that the patient’s condition has deteriorated significantly. You should:

A

consider requesting a rendezvous with an ALS unit

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111
Q

A 59-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should:

A

administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport

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112
Q

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct?

A

Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness

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113
Q

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:

A

referred pain

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114
Q

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should:

A

palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful.

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115
Q

You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a young male with abdominal pain. Your priority upon arriving at the scene should be to:

A

assess the scene for potential hazards

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116
Q

You are treating a patient who is exhibiting slurred speech, facial droop, and an inability to move his left arm. Which neurologic examination tool emphasizes these possible stroke signs?

A

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

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117
Q

What happens when blood flow to a particular part of the brain is cut off by a blockage, resulting in tissue damage?

A

Ischemic stroke

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118
Q

What is the name of the condition in which the patient forgets about the injured side after a stroke?

A

Neglect

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119
Q

Which criterion must be met for a patient to be considered as having status epilepticus?

A

a seizure lasting more than 30 minutes

or that recur every few minutes

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120
Q

Which of the following is a metabolic cause for a seizure?

A

Hypoglycemia

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121
Q

Which of the following mimics a stroke and also causes seizure?

A

hypoglycemia

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122
Q

What is the difference between a stroke and a transient ischemic attack?

A

TIA resolves completely within 24 hours of onset

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123
Q

You are dispatched to a home where you find a 70-year-old man. He is exhibiting facial drooping and, when you ask him to tell you what day it is, he says, “January.” Which part of the brain is most likely to have been affected?

A

left hemisphere

Aphasia is the inability to produce or understand speech.

This occurs when the left hemisphere of the cerebrum is impacted by a stroke.

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124
Q

You are examining a patient whose signs include lip smacking, jerking of the left arm, and agitation. Based on these signs, which type of seizure is this patient experiencing?

A

complex partial

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125
Q

You are performing a Glasgow Coma Scale on a patient who opens her eyes in response to pain, is confused in her responses to questions, and has abnormal flexion. What is this patient’s GCS score and corresponding state of dysfunction?

A

9: moderate dysfunction

response to pain = 2; confused conversation = 4; abnormal flexion = 3.

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126
Q

You are assessing a patient who reports pain in the lower left quadrant of his abdomen. Rearrange the quadrants into the correct sequence in which they should be palpated.

A

Lower right
Upper right
Upper left
Lower left

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127
Q

In cholecystitis, where is the patient likely to feel referred pain?

A

right shoulder

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128
Q

You are assessing a patient who reports severe pain in his upper left and right abdominal quadrants radiating to the back. The patient says that the pain got worse right after he ate lunch an hour ago. He also has nausea and vomiting, abdominal distention, and tenderness. Based on these signs and symptoms, which of the following conditions do you suspect?

A

pancreatitis

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129
Q

Rebound tenderness is a result of:

A

peritoneal irritation

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130
Q

Which of the following statements is true about acute renal failure?

A

can be reversed with prompt diagnosis and treatment

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131
Q

What is the medical term for blood in the vomit?

A

hematemesis

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132
Q

What is it called when a patient tenses his abdominal muscles during your assessment?

A

guarding

involuntary muscle contractions (spasm) of the abdominal wall

represent an effort to protect the inflamed abdomen

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133
Q

Which of the following does NOT produce upper intestinal bleeding?

A

Ulcerative colitis

inflammatory bowel disease that causes

inflammation and ulcers in the colon.

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134
Q

You are assessing a 76-year-old man who reports severe tearing pain radiating into his lower back. He is hypotensive and tachycardic. Which of the following should you suspect?

A

AAA

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135
Q

When assessing a patient’s abdomen, what is the best position to place the patient in?

A

Supine

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136
Q

Which of the following is a sign of peptic ulcer disease?

A

Melena

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137
Q

Diabetes is a metabolic disorder in which the body’s ability to metabolize _____ is impaired.

A

Diabetes is a metabolic disorder in which the body’s ability to metabolize glucose is impaired.

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138
Q

What is the function of insulin in the body?

A

Insulin enables glucose in the blood to enter cells

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139
Q

Which substance is released when the concentration of glucose drops in the blood?

A

Glucagon stimulates liver and skeletal muscles to release glycogen, and it converts glycogen back to glucose for use as cellular fuel.

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140
Q

Which of the following is the most common metabolic disease of childhood?

A

Type 1 diabetes is the most common metabolic disease of childhood.

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141
Q

Which of the following organs can rapidly sustain permanent damage when the body’s glucose level is too low?

A

Untreated hypoglycemia (low glucose) can result in loss of consciousness and quickly cause significant brain damage or death.

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142
Q

What is a normal glucose level in an adult?

A

A normal glucose level is 80 mg/dL.

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143
Q

You are treating a 36-year-old patient who displays the following signs and symptoms: rapid, shallow respirations; pale, cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; weakness on the left side of the body; and confusion and irritability. What should you suspect?

A

These signs and symptoms indicate the patient has symptomatic hypoglycemia

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144
Q

The condition in which blood clots as a result of an abnormality of the system of coagulation is called:

A

Thrombophilia is a tendency toward developing blood clots as a result of an abnormality of coagulation

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145
Q

Which of the following is classified as an autoimmune disorder?

A

Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder in which the patient’s immune system produces antibodies to the pancreatic beta cells.Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder in which the patient’s immune system produces antibodies to the pancreatic beta cells

146
Q

Which condition is most likely to create a vasoocclusive crisis in patients?

A

A vasoocclusive crisis is caused by sickle-shaped red blood cells that obstruct blood flow to a portion of the body

147
Q

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called:

A

a wheal

148
Q

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include:

A

histamines and leukotrienes

149
Q

A 50-year-old male was stung by a honeybee approximately 15 minutes ago. He presents with respiratory distress, facial swelling, and hypotension. After placing him on oxygen and administering his epinephrine via auto-injector, you note that his breathing has improved. Additionally, his facial swelling is resolving and his blood pressure is stable. Your next action should be to:

A

record the time and dose of the injection and transport promptly

150
Q

A 73-year-old man presents with a generalized rash, which he thinks may have been caused by an antibiotic that he recently began taking. He has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, and emphysema. He is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 144/94 mm Hg, and his pulse is 64 beats/min and regular. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear scattered wheezing, although he is not experiencing respiratory distress. You should:

A

administer oxygen if needed, transport the patient, and monitor him for signs of deterioration

151
Q

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately?

A

Upper airway swelling

152
Q

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for:

A

3 seconds

153
Q

Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are:

A

urticaria and angioedema

154
Q

A 48-year-old male is found unconscious in the garden by his wife. When you arrive at the scene and assess the man, you find that he is unresponsive, has labored breathing, and has hives over his entire trunk. You should:

A

maintain his airway and assist his ventilations.

155
Q

A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector, and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient?

A

Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.

156
Q

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:

A

properly dispose of the syringe

157
Q

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates:

A

narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs

158
Q

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n):

A

allergen

159
Q

The stinger from a honeybee should be:

A

scraped away from the skin

160
Q

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within ________ following administration

A

1 minute

161
Q

Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A

drying of the eyes

162
Q

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and resolution of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should:

A

monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine

163
Q

You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should:

A

request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine

164
Q

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction?

A

A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin

165
Q

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n):

A

extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems

166
Q

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway?

A

stridor

167
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction?

A

An exaggerated immune system response to any substance

168
Q

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ____ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ____ mg.

A

0.3; 0.15

169
Q

Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting:

A

it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes

170
Q

Which of the following statements regarding epinephrine administration via the intramuscular (IM) route is correct?

A

The 1:1000 concentration should be used

171
Q

You are assessing a young male who was stung on the leg by a scorpion. He is conscious and alert, his breathing is regular and unlabored, and his blood pressure is 122/64 mm Hg. Assessment of his leg reveals a wheal surrounded by an area of redness. He states that he had a “bad reaction” the last time he was stung by a scorpion, and carries his own epinephrine auto-injector. You should:

A

apply oxygen as needed, clean the area with soap and water or a mild antiseptic, and transport him to the hospital

172
Q

Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A

drowsiness

173
Q

Which of the following physiologic actions does epinephrine produce when given for an allergic reaction?

A

Vasoconstriction and bronchodilation

174
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:

A

insulin is not available in the body

175
Q

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days’ duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient’s condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop:

A

acidosis and dehydration

176
Q

A 31-year-old male with a history of diabetes had a seizure that stopped prior to EMS arrival. He is unresponsive and has rapid, shallow breathing. His pulse is rapid and weak, and his skin is cyanotic. The EMT should:

A

assist the patient’s ventilations with a bag-valve mask

177
Q

A 19-year-old male complains of “not feeling right.” His insulin and a syringe are on a nearby table. The patient says he thinks he took his insulin and cannot remember whether he ate. He is also unable to tell you the time or what day it is. The glucometer reads “error” after several attempts to assess his blood glucose level. You should:

A

contact medical control and administer oral glucose

178
Q

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing?

A

Blindness

179
Q

Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A

cool, clammy skin

180
Q

You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 480 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes:

A

Insulin

181
Q

Hemoglobin is:

A

found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen

182
Q

Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for:

A

acute arterial rupture

183
Q

The normal blood glucose level is between:

A

80 and 120 mg/dL

184
Q

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A

cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

185
Q

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient:

A

takes too much of his or her perscribed insulin

186
Q

You respond to a movie theater for a 70-year-old male who is confused. His wife tells you he has type 2 diabetes but refuses to take his pills. Your assessment reveals that the patient is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and tachypneic. Initial management for this patient should include:

A

applying a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min

187
Q

Insulin functions in the body by:

A

enabling glucose to enter the cells

188
Q

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct?

A

In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.

189
Q

During your assessment of a 70-year-old woman, she tells you that she takes blood-thinning medication and has to wear compression stockings around her legs. This information should make you suspect that she has:

A

deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

190
Q

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:

A

rate and depth of breathing

191
Q

A 29-year-old female presents with confusion and disorientation. Her respirations are rapid and shallow, and her pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. She is markedly diaphoretic and has an oxygen saturation of 89%. You should:

A

provide ventilatory support

192
Q

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes who has an altered mental status, it would be MOST important to determine:

A

if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress

193
Q

In contrast to hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia:

A

can only be corrected in the hospital setting

194
Q

A 50-year-old man with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his blood glucose level. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis?

A

deep and rapid breathing

195
Q

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

A

ensuring the absence of a gag reflex

196
Q

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?

A

the brain requires glucose as much as much as it requires oxygen

197
Q

In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who:

A

has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes

198
Q

Excessive eating caused by cellular “hunger” is called:

A

polyphagia

199
Q

Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?

A

weight loss and polyuria

200
Q

The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because:

A

children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults

201
Q

A 31-year-old male with a history of diabetes had a seizure that stopped prior to EMS arrival. He is unresponsive and has rapid, shallow breathing. His pulse is rapid and weak, and his skin is cyanotic. The EMT should:

A

assist the patient’s ventilations with a bag-valve mask

202
Q

During your assessment of a 70-year-old woman, she tells you that she takes blood-thinning medication and has to wear compression stockings around her legs. This information should make you suspect that she has:

A

deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

203
Q

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?

A

a confused 55y/o male with tachycardia and pallor

204
Q

Ketone production is the result of:

A

fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable

205
Q

A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect?

A

pulmonary embolism

206
Q

A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should:

A

open and maintain her airway and asses breathing

207
Q
A
208
Q

Patients develops septic shock secondary to:

A

Poor vessel function and severe volume loss

209
Q

In infants and children, a capillary refill time that is greater than ____ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion

A

2

210
Q

When treating an 80 y/o patient who is in shock it is important to remember that

A

Changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk of vomiting

211
Q

Neurogenic shock occurs when:

A

Failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation

212
Q

All the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:

  • ischemic stroke
  • spinal injury
  • anaphylaxis
  • severe infection
A

Ischemic stroke

213
Q

Shock is the result of:

A

Hypoperfusion to the cells of the body

214
Q

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:

A

Cardio genie shock

215
Q

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax?

A

Decompression of the injured side of the chest

216
Q

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:

A

Plasma

217
Q

A 70y/o female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a BP of 90/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:

A

Septic shock

218
Q

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?

  • hypotension
  • dizziness
  • wheezing
  • pallor
A

Wheezing

219
Q

Which intervention(s) would have the most positive impact on the cardiac arrest patients outcome ?

A

Early CPR and defibrillation

220
Q

The AED gives a “no shock” message to a patient who is in cardiac arrest. What should you do?

A

Resume chest compressions

221
Q

What is the maximum amount of time that should be spent checking for spontaneous breathing in an unresponsive child?

A

10 seconds

222
Q

When performing CPR on an adult, you should compress the chest to what depth and at what a rate of compression per minute?

A

2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6cm)
100 to 120 compressions per minute

223
Q

What is the proper compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult two-rescuer CPR?

A

30:2

224
Q

When you are performing CPR on an adult or child, approximately how often should you reassess the patient for return of respirations and/or circulation

A

Every 2 minutes

225
Q

What is the preferred method of removing a foreign body in an unresponsive child?

A

Abdominal thrusts

226
Q

You are off duty and you come across an unresponsive child lying on the ground at a playground. She does not have a pulse and no one witnessed the collapse. What should you do?

A

Do 5 cycles of chest compressions, then call 911

227
Q

You respond to a call in which a 6y/o was hit by a car. She is responsive but struggling to breathe. What position should you place her in?

A

Any position of comfort

228
Q

When performing CPR on an infant, which of the following is correct?

A

Place 2 fingers in the middle of the sternum, just below the nipple line

229
Q

True or False

Ingested poisoning is usually accidental in adults.

A

False

  • Ingested poisoning is usually accidental in children and deliberate in adults.*
230
Q

True or False

Opioids, sedatives, and barbiturates slow breathing, so ventilatory complications are a concern with such poisonings.

A

True

You should be prepared to provide aggressive ventilatory support and CPR, if necessary, to a patient who has ingested an opioid, a sedative, or a barbiturate, each of which can cause depression of the central nervous system and slow breathing.

231
Q

True or False

When dealing with an absorbed poison, you should flush the skin of the affected area with an alcohol rinse for 15 to 20 minutes.

A

False
When dealing with an absorbed poison, you should flush the skin of the affected area with clean water (not alcohol) for 15 to 20 minutes.

232
Q

True or False

Most poisons do not have an antidote.

A

True

233
Q

Sympathomimetic and ____ overdoses are very similar in that patients may be agitated and have tachycardia and dilated pupils.

A

Sympathomimetic and anticholinergic overdoses are very similar in that patients may be agitated and have tachycardia and dilated pupils.

234
Q

You are assessing a 28-year-old patient and you notice he has pinpoint pupils. You suspect a drug overdose. What drug is the likely cause of this phenomenon?

A

Heroin

235
Q

Which of the following might make it difficult for you to establish IV access in a patient with a drug abuse problem?

A

Venous scarring

(track marks)

236
Q

You are assessing a patient who presents with slurred speech, hypoventilation, and hypotension. Which of the following might the patient have taken?

A

Diazepam is a sedative-hypnotic. Signs and symptoms associated with this agent include slurred speech, sedation or coma, hypoventilation, and hypotension

237
Q

What is the most common route of poisoning?

A

According to the AAPCC, approximately 80% of all poisonings are by ingestion

238
Q

What should you give a patient displaying respiratory depression and hypotension?

A

Naloxone is an antidote that reverses the effects of opiate or opioid overdose; such an overdose is characterized by respiratory depression and hypotension.

239
Q

Which of the following is a CNS stimulant?

A

Sympathomimetics

ex: cocaine

240
Q

Antihistamines are an example of a(n):

A

Antihistamines are anticholinergic agents that block parasympathetic nerves

241
Q

You can use the mnemonic DUMBELS to remember the signs and symptoms of:

A

cholinergic agents poisoning

Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis, muscle weakness
Bradycardia, bronchospasm, bronchorrhea
Emesis
Lacrimation
Seizures, salivation, sweating

242
Q

Which type of food poisoning results from an organism?

A

Salmonellosis

243
Q

For which of the following would you use a DuoDote Auto-Injector?

A

Sarin gas attack

244
Q

You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and hydrocodone (Vicodin). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient should include:

A

assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan)

245
Q

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:

A

oxycodone (Percocet)

246
Q

EMTs are dispatched for a teenage male who is “not acting right.” When they arrive, they are informed that the patient was huffing. Several cans of Freon are found near the patient. Which of the following is a unique consideration for this patient?

A

A sudden adrenaline release can cause a fatal dysrhythmia

247
Q

You are dispatched to a local nursery for a 39-year-old female who is sick. When you arrive, you find the patient lying on the floor. She is semiconscious, has copious amounts of saliva coming from her mouth, and is incontinent of urine. You quickly feel her pulse and note that it is very slow. Immediate management for this patient should include:

A

thoroughly suctioning her oropharynx

248
Q

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will most likely cause:

A

liver damage and failure

249
Q

Naloxone (Narcan) would reverse the effects of:

A

hydromorphone (Dilaudid)

250
Q

Atropine sulfate and pralidoxime chloride are antidotes for:

A

nerve gas agents

251
Q

Which of the following drugs is not a sedative-hypnotic?

A

oxycodone (percocet)

252
Q

A 3-year-old female ingested several leaves from a plant in the living room. The child’s mother is not sure what type of plant it is, stating that she bought it simply because it was pretty. After completing your primary assessment of the child, you should:

A

contact the regional poison control center

253
Q

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be most alert for:

A

seizures and cardiac dysrhythmias

254
Q

An EMT’s primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to:

A

recognize that a poisoning occured

255
Q

Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:

A

avoid contaminating yourself

256
Q

Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poisons is correct?

A

Lung damage might progress after the patient is removed from the environment

257
Q

Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, except:

  • Actidose.
  • LiquiChar.
  • InstaChar.
  • Fructose.
A

fructose

258
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct?

A

The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.

259
Q

You respond to a college campus for a young male who is acting strangely. After law enforcement has secured the scene, you enter the patient’s dorm room and find him sitting on the edge of the bed; he appears agitated. As you approach him, you note that he has dried blood around both nostrils. He is breathing adequately, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg. Treatment for this patient includes:

A

attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated

260
Q

A 49-year-old male presents with confusion, sweating, and visual hallucinations. The patient’s wife tells you that he is a heavy drinker and that he might have had a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is most likely experiencing:

A

delirium tremens

261
Q

It is most important to determine a patient’s weight when asking questions pertaining to a toxic ingestion because:

A

activated charcoal is given based on a patients weight

262
Q

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT most likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose?

A

BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min

263
Q

If you are uncertain how to treat a patient who has been poisoned or exposed to a specific substance, you should:

A

try to find the container the substance was in

264
Q

Before giving activated charcoal, you should:

A

obtain approval from medical control

265
Q

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it:

A

binds to the substance and prevents absorption

266
Q

You respond to a local motel for a young female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious but confused. She tells you that the last thing she remembers was drinking beer at a club with her friends the night before. When she awoke, she was in the bed of the motel room. You should suspect that this patient:

A

was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol)

267
Q

A 25-year-old man overdosed on heroin and is unresponsive. His breathing is slow and shallow and he is bradycardic. He has track marks on both arms. The EMT should:

A

insert a nasal airway and ventilate with a bag-mask device

268
Q

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing:

A

tolerance

269
Q

A construction worker complains of intense pain after a bag of dry powder was spilled on his arm. The EMT should:

A

brush the chemical from his arm and then flush the skin with water

270
Q

Which of the following questions would be least pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance?

A

why was the substance ingested?

271
Q

A 4-year-old, 15-kg male ingested an unknown quantity of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The child’s mother states that she does not know when the ingestion occurred. The child is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. The EMT should:

A

administer 15g of activated charcoal

272
Q

In general, injected poisons are impossible to dilute or remove because they:

A

are usually absorbed quickly into the body

273
Q

Heroin is an example of a(n):

A

opioid

274
Q

You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unresponsive on the couch. The patient’s respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should:

A

ventilate her with a bag-mask device

275
Q

Schizophrenia is an example of a ____ disorder

A

functional

276
Q

Obsessive-compulsive disorder is classified as which type of psychiatric disorder?

A

anxiety

277
Q

Where should you begin the primary assessment of a patient displaying a psychiatric issue?

A

from a distance

278
Q

When assessing a patient with a behavioral issue, you need to ask questions about three contributors: proper CNS functioning, whether the patient took hallucinogenic or other drugs/alcohol, and:

A

significant life changes

279
Q

What is the concern with transporting a patient who is restrained with his or her hands tied behind the back?

A

there is a high risk of positional asphyxia

280
Q

Which of the following is a sign/symptom of PTSD?

  • hypervigilance
  • bradycardia
  • lack of emotion
  • cyanosis
A

hyperventilation

281
Q

How is behavioral crisis defined?

A

any reaction to events that interferes with the activities of daily living.

282
Q

Which of the following behavioral crises is most likely to lead to suicide?

A

depression

283
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the returning veteran?

A

a persons altered consciousness can allow him or her to continue functioning under negative conditions.

284
Q

As an EMT, what is your main goal in a psychiatric emergency?

A

Diffusing/controlling the situation and providing transport

285
Q

In which condition is a patient likely to have a flashback?

A

PTSD

286
Q

A physiologic disorder that impairs bodily function when the body seems to be structurally normal is called a:

A

functional disorder

287
Q

A 78-year-old female presents with an acute change in her behavior. The patient’s son tells you that his mother has type 2 diabetes and was diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease 6 months ago. The patient’s speech is slurred and she is not alert to her surroundings. You should:

A

inquire about the possibility of head trauma

288
Q

In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a behavioral health emergency occurs when a person:

A

becomes agitated or violent and is a threat to him- or herself or others

289
Q

A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he did not seem to recognize her and was very rude to her. The patient is conscious, and has a patent airway and adequate breathing. You should:

A

ask the daughter how her father normally behaves

290
Q

A technique used to gain insight into a patient’s thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called:

A

reflective listening

291
Q

You receive a call for a domestic dispute. When you arrive at the scene, you find a young male standing on the front porch of his house. You notice that an adjacent window is broken. The patient has a large body, is clenching his fists, and is yelling obscenities at you. Which of the following findings is LEAST predictive of this patient’s potential for violence?

A

his large body size

292
Q

It is MOST important for the EMT to remember that suicidal patients may:

A

be homicidal as well

293
Q

Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse?

A

alcohol withdrawl

294
Q

Which of the following is an example of a functional behavioral disorder?

A

Schizophrenia

295
Q

You are assessing a conscious 55-year-old male with a sudden change in behavior. Which of the following clinical findings would be MOST suggestive of dysfunction of this patient’s central nervous system?

A

rapid eye movement

296
Q

A patient with a history of schizophrenia called EMS because he was experiencing abdominal pain. When law enforcement arrived, the patient became violent, necessitating the placement of handcuffs. When you assess the patient, he tells you that killing someone will make his abdominal pain go away. His vital signs are stable. How should you manage this situation?

A

Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance.

297
Q

Common causes of acute psychotic behavior include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A

Alzheimers disease

298
Q

The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:

A

ensure your safety

299
Q

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance for a 30-year-old man who was pulled over for erratic driving. The patient became acutely violent while he was being questioned, which required one of the officers to subdue him with a Taser. When you arrive and assess the patient, you find that he is very agitated and is experiencing apparent hallucinations. His skin is flushed and diaphoretic. You should:

A

limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you

300
Q

Immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should:

A

reassess the patients airway and breathing

301
Q

A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he has attempted to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unresponsive and cyanotic. An empty bottle of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is found on an adjacent table. You should:

A

open the patients aurway and assess his respirations

302
Q

A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to:

A

restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.

303
Q

In which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient?

A

supine

304
Q

You are assessing a 45-year-old female who is severely depressed. She states that it seems as though her entire world is crashing down around her. She further states that she has had frequent thoughts of suicide, but is not sure if she can actually go through with it. How should you manage this situation?

A

ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan

305
Q

When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should:

A

be direct and clearly state your intentions

306
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct?

A

Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient’s emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations.

307
Q

You respond to a call for an unknown emergency. When you arrive at the scene, the patient’s husband meets you at the door and states that his wife has been depressed and has locked herself in an upstairs bedroom. He further tells you that he keeps his handgun in the bedroom. You should:

A

remain in a safe place and request law enforcement.

308
Q

What is menarche?

A

the onset of menstruation, which typically occurs between ages 11 and 16, but may occur either earlier or later

309
Q

In the case of a sexual assault, what is your most important treatment option?

A

Psychological support

310
Q

In addition to providing medical care to a rape victim, which of the following is the most critical thing you should do?

A

move the patient to a private area

311
Q

What should you do when a female patient has unknown vaginal bleeding?

A

treat for shock

312
Q

Which of the following control the process of ovulation and menstruation?

A

ovaries

313
Q

You are assessing a female patient who tells you she feels blood coming from her vaginal area. She gives you permission to look, and you observe moderate bleeding from the vagina. What should you do to manage the bleeding?

A

place a sanitary pad over the vaginal opening

314
Q

If PID is not treated, which complication can occur?

A

ectopic pregnancy

315
Q

You are assessing a 38-year-old woman who reports achy abdominal pain, burning on urination, and a slight fever. As you assist her to the ambulance, you notice that she has a shuffling gait. What condition does this indicate?

A

Signs and symptoms of PID include vaginal discharge, fever and chills, and pain or burning on urination. Patients often present with a distinctive gait that appears as a shuffle when they walk.

316
Q

What is an EMT’s responsibility regarding evidence in the case of a sexual assault?

A

An EMT’s responsibility is to preserve evidence without sacrificing patient care.

317
Q

Why is it important to transport a sexual assault victim to the hospital, even if she does not have any obvious injuries?

A

It is important to transport a sexual assault victim because she** may have injuries that were not detected in the field, such as internal bleeding, and have a delayed onset of symptoms.**

318
Q

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when:

A

normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms.

319
Q

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct?

A

PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.

320
Q

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall:

A

becomes engored with blood

321
Q

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should:

A

place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in seperate paper bags

322
Q

When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT’s main focus should be to:

A

maintain her ABCs and transport without delay

323
Q

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct?

A

painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in men and women

324
Q

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should:

A

provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma

325
Q

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should:

A

assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device

326
Q

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be:

A

given the option of being treated by a female EMT

327
Q

Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct?

A

rape is a legal term, not a medical diagnosis

328
Q

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be:

A

limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries

329
Q

As a women approaches menopause:

A

her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity

330
Q

Which of the following drugs is commonly referred to as “roofies”?

A

Rohypnol

331
Q

A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should:

A

administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay.

332
Q

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she:

A

has gathered patient history information

333
Q

Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the:

A

fallopian tube

334
Q

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT should assume that she:

A

is in shock

335
Q

The onset of menstruation usually occurs in females who are:

A

between 11 and 16 years of age

336
Q

Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A

Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge

337
Q

Potentially life-threatening consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) include:

A

ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy

338
Q

When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should:

A

keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.

339
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?

A

The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.

340
Q

What type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children?

A

alkaline poison

341
Q

You respond to a residence for a patient who is “not acting right.” As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should:

A

retreat at once and call law enforcement.

342
Q

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient’s circulatory status, you should direct your partner to:

A

administer oxygen with the appropriate device.

343
Q

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced?

A

acute myocardial infarction

344
Q

Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested:

A

aspirin

345
Q

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:

A

shortness of breath or difficulty breathing

345
Q

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should:

A

be alert for personal hazards

346
Q

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines?

A

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

347
Q

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should:

A

calmly identify yourself to the patient

348
Q

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:

A

manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit

349
Q

A patient with an altered mental status is:

A

not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

350
Q

Signs of excited delirium include:

A

diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.

350
Q

An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:

A

your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.

351
Q

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm?

A

Ventricular tachycardia

352
Q

Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is:

A

attempting to eliminate acids from the blood.

353
Q

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:

A

decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.

354
Q

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to:

A

experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.

355
Q

The term “behavioral crisis” is MOST accurately defined as:

A

a sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member.

356
Q

When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should:

A

consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient’s behavior

357
Q

An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with:

A

adequate air exchange.

358
Q

Which of the following conditions often requires transport to a hospital with specialized capabilities that may not be available at the closest hospital?

A

Stroke and heart attack

359
Q

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:

A

administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.

EMSP 1501 (11 decks)

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