Module 3 Quiz Flashcards
For which of the following are Stage 1 cardiorespiratory training programs designed?
a. To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients
b. For advanced clients who have a moderately high cardiorespiratory fitness level base
c. To help clients improve anaerobic power and sprinting capabilities
d. For clients with low-to-moderate cardiorespiratory fitness levels who are ready to begin training at higher intensity levels
a.
Performing the drawing-in maneuver or bracing can do what?
a. Cause narrowing of openings in the vertebrae
b. Result in lower endurance for stabilization
c. Affect posture and muscle balance
d. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems
d.
Which of the following intensity ranges best describes someone just moving into a zone 3 cardiorespiratory training workout?
a. 86-90%
b. 66-70%
c. 75-79%
d. 80-85%
a.
In order to properly stretch the hamstring during the active supine biceps femurs stretch, a client will need to contract which of the following during knee extension?
a. Quadriceps
b. Gastrocnemius
c. Adductors
d. Gluteus maximus
a.
Which of the following is a formula that determines a client’s target heart rate during exercise?
a. Peak Metabolic Equivalent Method
b. Peak Maximal Heart Rate Method
c. VO2 Reserve Method
d. Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) Method
d.
What is caused by a high agonist muscle decreasing the neural drive to its functional antagonist?
a. Altered reciprocal inhibition
b. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
c. Synergistic dominance
d. Autogenic inhibition
a.
How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using SMR?
a. 15 seconds minimum
b. 25 seconds minimum
c. 30 seconds minimum
d. 20 seconds minimum
c.
Ryan is performing static stretching on a client’s calves after an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is most likely to have prompted him to perform this procedure?
a. The client had a posterior pelvic tilt
b. The client’s feet had turned out
c. The client had an anterior pelvic tilt
d. The client’s knees bowed out
b.
At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise?
a. 60
b. 45
c. 90
d. 120
c.
What technique uses a co-contraction of global muscles to enhance global trunk stability?
a. Horizontal adduction
b. Flexion
c. Extension
d. Bracing
d.
In core-power training (Phase 5), what are exercises designed to improve?
a. Rate of force production of the core musculature
b. Muscular endurance of the final erectors
c. Joint stability of the sacroiliac joint
d. Proprioceptive capabilities of the LPHC
a.
Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?
a. Psoas
b. Pectineus
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Gracilis
a.
Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?
a. Synergistic dominance
b. Myotatic stretch-reflex
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Relative flexibility
c.
A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?
a. Functional
b. Corrective
c. Active
d. Dynamic
c.
Which of the following concepts is demonstrated when a tight poses decreases the neural drive of the gluteus maximus?
a. Pattern overload
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Synergistic dominance
b.
