Midterm Flashcards

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1
Q

A client performs two repetitions of a bench press exercise with 130 lb and gradually decreases the resistance with each set until he performs 10 reps with 100 lb on the last set. Which of the following resistance training systems is the client using?

a. Drop-set
b. Peripheral heart action
c. Pyramid
d. Split-routine

A

c.

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2
Q

During an overhead squat assessment, a client’s knees move inward. Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate to strengthen and activate the client’s underactive musculature?

a. Leg swings: side-to-side
b. Ice skaters
c. Tube walking: side-to-side
d. Proprioceptive plyometrics

A

c.

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3
Q

Which assessment should a personal trainer use to determine the heart rate zone a client should begin training at?

a. LEFT test
b. Shark skill test
c. YMCA step test
d. Davies test

A

c.

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4
Q

Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to step forward with toes pointing straight ahead and then pushing off of the front foot through heel onto the back leg and maintain balance on the back leg?

a. Single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
b. Lunge to balance
c. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
d. Step-up to balance

A

b.

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5
Q

Performing the drawing-in maneuver or bracing can do what?

a. Cause narrowing of openings in the vertebrae
b. Affect posture and muscle balance
c. Result in lower endurance for stabilization
d. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems

A

d.

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6
Q

A seated cable row is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model?

a. Corrective
b. Power
c. Stabilization
d. Strength

A

d.

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7
Q

A client is performing a prone iso-ab exercise. The trainer notices that he is not able to maintain proper alignment. How should the exercise be regressed?

a. Perform with one hip in full extension
b. Perform with hands on stability ball
c. Perform with feet elevated
d. Perform in a standard push-up position

A

d.

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8
Q

What is the balance-stabilization exercise that involves lifting one leg directly beside the balance leg while maintaining optimal alignment including level hips and shoulders and holding this position for 5-20 seconds?

a. Single-leg balance
b. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
c. Multiplanar step-up to balance
d. Multiplayer hop with stabilization

A

a.

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9
Q

What is the most accurate time of day to conduct a resting heart rate measurement?

a. Immediately after a workout
b. Upon waking in the morning
c. Immediately before a workout
d. Before going to bed at night

A

b.

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10
Q

What is the phenomenon called when prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles?

a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Override mechanism
c. Neural inhibition
d. Reciprocal inhibition

A

a.

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11
Q

Which of the following is considered objective information gathered during a fitness evaluation?

a. PAR-Q results
b. A client’s current injuries
c. If they wear shoes with elevated heels
d. Body composition testing results

A

d.

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12
Q

What is involved in the preparatory step for a multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise?

a. Stand on a box with feet shoulder-width apart and pointed straight ahead
b. Stand on a box with feet in a staggered stance and pointed sideways
c. Standing in front of a box with feet in a staggered stance, pointed straight ahead
d. Stand in front of a box with feet shoulder-width apart

A

d.

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13
Q

Which of the following assessments can also be used to determine training intensities of the bench press?

a. Overhead squat assessment
b. Upper extremity strength assessment
c. Lower extremity strength assessment
d. Single-leg squat assessment

A

b.

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14
Q

How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using SMR?

a. 25 sec
b. 30 sec
c. 20 sec
d. 15 sec

A

b.

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15
Q

While performing an overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes a client demonstrating a low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?

a. Rectus abdominus
b. Biceps femoris
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

d.

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16
Q

Ice skaters are an example of what type of exercise?

a. Plyo-Stabilization
b. Plyo-Modification
c. Plyo-Power
d. Plyo-Acceleration

A

c.

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17
Q

During the overhead squat assessment, the client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are considered to be overactive?

a. Rotator cuff
b. Erector spinae
c. Pectoralis minor
d. Lower trapezius

A

c.

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18
Q

Which of the following assessments would be most important for a new client who recently recovered from a shoulder surgery?

a. Body composition
b. 1RM strength assessment
c. Shark skill test
d. Pushing/pulling assessments

A

d.

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19
Q

Maintenance of which of the following is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs?

a. Static equilibrium
b. Mechanical equilibrium
c. Dynamic equilibrium
d. Postural equilibrium

A

d.

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20
Q

Which of the following is a form of training in which an individual reacts to the ground surface in such a way that he or she develops larger than normal forces that can be used to project the body with a greater velocity or speed of movement?

a. High-intensity training
b. Hypopressive exercise
c. Vacuum exercise
d. Reactive training

A

d.

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21
Q

During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. Which of the following describes this action?

a. Length-tension relationships
b. Arthrokinematic dysfunction
c. Synergistic dominance
d. Force-couple relationships

A

c.

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22
Q

To which of the following do the local core stabilizers attach?

a. Clavicle
b. Vertebrae
c. Femur
d. Humerus

A

b.

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23
Q

Which of the following is an example of a core-power exercise?

a. Back extension
b. Marching
c. Reverse crunch
d. Ball medicine ball pullover throw

A

d.

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24
Q

What is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion, and is used in Phase 1 of the OPT model?

a. Active flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Relative flexibility
d. Functional flexibility

A

b.

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25
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about circuit training?

a. It is ideal for achieving hypertrophy
b. It typically involves a high number of sets
c. It involves a series of exercises that can be performed one after another
d. It is usually done with a 3-minute rest period in between exercises

A

c.

26
Q

Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises?

a. Standing cable row
b. Standing triceps extension
c. Dumbbell chest press
d. Biceps curl

A

a.

27
Q

Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for the goal of improving neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability?

a. Back extension
b. Overhead medicine ball throws
c. Prone iso-abs
d. Incline reverse crunch

A

c.

28
Q

Ruby performs SMR and static stretching on a client, following which she performs an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following indicates the need for a static standing TFL stretch?

a. The client leans forward excessively
b. The client’s knees fall inward
c. The client’s knees bow out
d. The client’s toes turn out

A

b.

29
Q

A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called?

a. Multiple set
b. Peripheral heart action
c. Superset
d. Pyramid system

A

b.

30
Q

How many weeks should a client spend during the Stabilization Phase of core training?

a. 9
b. 8
c. 10
d. 4

A

d.

31
Q

What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper-extremity (bench press) strength assessment?

a. 10-15%
b. 1-2%
c. 5-10%
d. 15-20%

A

c.

32
Q

Which of the following involves the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements?

a. Plyo-power
b. Reactive-speed
c. Reactive-modification
d. Reactive-stabilization

A

a.

33
Q

Holding a static stretch for at least 30 seconds causes which of the following neuromuscular phenomena?

a. Remodeling
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. Synergistic dominance
d. Pattern overload

A

b.

34
Q

James performs a multiplanar lunge to balance. After first stepping out into the lunge, which of the following should he perform as the next step in this exercise?

a. Rotate 90 degrees
b. Hold balance on the back leg
c. Push off the front foot through the heel
d. Hold the lunge for 5 seconds

A

c.

35
Q

A client has been training in Phase 2 for 4 months. She is now experiencing joint pain and emotional fatigue. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome is she most likely in?

a. Alarm reaction
b. DOMS
c. Exhaustion
d. Resistance development

A

c.

36
Q

If a client exhibits increased force output of his hamstrings and adductor magnus to compensate for a weakened gluteus maximus during hip extension, this is an example of which of the following?

a. Pattern overload
b. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Synergistic dominance

A

d.

37
Q

During a workout, a personal trainer wants to increase the proprioceptive demand of a standard push-up exercise for his client. Which of the following would be a proper progression?

a. Hands on the floor, knees on the floor
b. Hands on the wall, feet on the floor
c. Hands on a bench, feet on the floor
d. Hands on the floor, feet on a stability ball

A

d.

38
Q

What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?

a. Active stretching
b. Ballistic stretching
c. Static stretching
d. Elastic stretching

A

c.

39
Q

Which of the following clients would use active-isolated stretching during a warm-up?

a. Strength level client
b. Corrective exercise level client
c. Power level client
d. Stabilization level client

A

a.

40
Q

What tern refers to the simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist?

a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Postural distortion
d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction

A

b.

41
Q

Which of the following is a questionnaire designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client?

a. Inhibitory control test
b. McGill pain questionnaire
c. Remote associates test (RAT)
d. Physical activity readiness questionnaire (PAR-Q)

A

d.

42
Q

What are the muscles of the global stabilization system primarily responsible for?

a. Enhancing pelvic floor function and diaphragmatic breathing
b. Transferring loads between the upper and lower extremities
c. Intravertebral stability from vertebra to vertebra
d. Concentric force production of the thoracic and cervical spine

A

b.

43
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about dynamic assessments?

a. They help identify areas of dysfunction in an individual’s movements
b. They facilitate the evaluation of pre-existing health conditions
c. They help analyze the continual changes in an individual’s bone mineral density
d. They provide information about a client’s exercise preferences

A

a.

44
Q

During a pulling assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client’s shoulders elevate. Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive?

a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Lower trapezius
c. Scalenes
d. Levator scapulae

A

b.

45
Q

Which of the following best describes the split-routine system used in resistance training?

a. Performing 2 exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest
b. Increasing or decreasing weight with each set
c. Performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise
d. Training different body parts on separate days

A

d.

46
Q

A client’s head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?

a. Longus capitis
b. Longus coli
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Supraspinatus

A

c.

47
Q

Which of the following is a core-stabilization exercise?

a. Floor prone cobra
b. Cable rotation
c. Rotation chest pass
d. Ball crunch

A

a.

48
Q

Which of the following governs how the body responds and adjusts to stress?

a. Homeostasis
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. General adaptation syndrome
d. Synergistic dominance

A

c.

49
Q

Increased force output of the synergists for hip extension to compensate for the weakened gluteus maximus is an example of which of the following?

a. Davis’s law
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Wolff’s law

A

b.

50
Q

Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?

a. Blood pressure and carbon dioxide release
b. Heart rate and carbon dioxide release
c. Heart rate and oxygen uptake
d. Blood pressure and oxygen release

A

c.

51
Q

How long should a client hold the landing position in a squat jump with stabilization exercise?

a. 6-7 sec
b. 8-10 sec
c. 1-2 sec
d. 3-5 sec

A

d.

52
Q

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Davies test assessment?

a. Assessing dynamic flexibility and integrated total body strength
b. Assessing lower-extremity agility and balance
c. Estimating one-rep maximum and upper-extremity strength
d. Assessing upper-extremity agility and stabilization

A

d.

53
Q

During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has pronated feet, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees. Which muscles would he or she expect to be shortened?

a. Hip external rotators
b. Gluteus medius
c. Adductors
d. Gluteus maximus

A

c.

54
Q

Which of the following BMI ranges indicates a person is overweight?

a. 15-19.99
b. 10-14.99
c. 25-29.99
d. 20-24.99

A

c.

55
Q

Which of the following is muscle that acts as the initial and main source of motive power?

a. Neutralizer
b. Antagonist
c. Fixator
d. Prime mover

A

d.

56
Q

What is the term for the client’s pulse found on their wrist?

a. Popliteal
b. Carotid
c. Radial
d. Brachial

A

c.

57
Q

According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?

a. 150 min
b. 100 min
c. 200 min
d. 250 min

A

a.

58
Q

A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which of the following flexibility techniques should the client use first?

a. Static stretching
b. Active-isolated stretching
c. SMR
d. Dynamic stretching

A

c.

59
Q

Which of the following is designed to estimate a cardiovascular starting point?

a. Shark skill test
b. Rockport walk test
c. Spirometry test
d. Cycle ergometer test

A

b.

60
Q

Knee injuries involving ligaments lead to which of the following?

a. Decreased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles
b. An increase in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles
c. Increased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core of the knee
d. A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella

A

d.