Module 2 - Early Development Process Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Each one of us originated from

A

two germ cells – a sperm and an ovum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Germ cells are produced through

A

meiosis: the cell division process that results in a germ cell containing 23 chromosomes (not to be confused with mitosis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Females are born with all of their ___________, whereas males make ___________ ________________

A

ovum, sperm continuously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Meiosis involves two cycles of cell division called

A

meiosis 1 and meiosis 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sex cells are also known as __________

A

gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Each cycle of meiosis involves the same four phases as mitosis

A

PMAT. Just like mitosis the parent cell copies its DNA before cell division begins so each single stranded chromosome becomes double-stranded.

In prophase 1 the chromosomes condense and join together in pairs (one from father and one from mother). Genes are swapped in a pair called crossing over.

Metaphase 1 - pairs of chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell. Fibres attach the chromosomes to two bodies on opposite sides of the cell.

Anaphase 1 - the fibres seperate the pairs

Telophase 1 - two nuclei form and then the cell splits into two cells, each with 23 double-stranded chromosomes

Meiosis 2:
Each cell will divide again to form 4 cells with 23 single-stranded chromosomes

Prophase 2 - chromosomes condense and the nucleus breaks down

Metaphase 2 - the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

Anaphase 2- Fibres pull single-stranded chromosomes apart

Telophase 2 - nuclei form and finally, the cells divide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The 4 cells produced by meiosis are genetically …

A

different to each other and to the original cell. This genetic variety explains why children can look and behave so differently from one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

During conception, how many sperm are released into the female ?

A

an average of 500 million (!!!)

sperm must swim for 6-7 hours to reach their destination

only about 200 sperm actually get close to the egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A fertilized egg is known as

A

a zygote (at this point prenatal development has begun. )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Prenatal development is broken into 3 main stages:

A

The germinal period - weeks 0-2

the embryonic period - weeks 3-8

and the fetal period. - weeks 9 - birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The first two weeks of prenatal development are known as

A

the germinal period. During this time, the zygote is rapidly dividing.

Day 1 - fertilization
Day 2-4: cell division takes places
Day 4-5: blastocyst reaches uterus

(Approximately 4-5 days after fertilization, the zygote enters the uterus from the fallopian tube. The zygote is now referred to as the blastocyst – it forms as a hollow ball of cells and will implant into the wall of the uterus.)

Day 5-9: Blastocyst implants

The germinal period comes to an end when the blastocyst is fully embedded, which takes about one week.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What prenatal development period lasts from implantation to 8 weeks?

A

embryonic period.

-cell differentiation begins
-beginnings of all organ systems are forming.
-Embryonic development follows a cephalocaudal pattern of development, meaning that areas near the head tend to develop first.

-By the end of the embryonic period, all bodily systems are functioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Three layers of cells differentiate

A

Ectoderm: The ectoderm will become the nervous system, nails, teeth, inner ear, eye lens, and epidermis.

Mesoderm: The mesoderm will become muscles, bones, circulatory system, and skin.

Endoderm: The endoderm will become the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At what stage of prenatal development does the neural tube form?

A

Embryonic period.

The neural tube - the precursor to the Central Nervous System.

The neural tube is created when the ectoderm folds in on itself, creating a u-shaped groove.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the embryo’s support system?

A
  • the amniotic sac
  • the placenta.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the functions of the placenta?

A

allowing nutrients, oxygen, and waste to pass through, while at the same time preventing maternal blood from mixing with the blood of the developing embryo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When does the zygote enter the uterus from the fallopian tube?

A

Approx 4-5 days after fertilization (zygote is now referred to as the blastocyst)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the amniotic sac?

A

a liquid-filled sac in which the embryo floats, helping to protect it and maintain a constant temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When does The fetal period begin?

A

at the end of the 2nd month and lasts until birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens during the fetal period of development?

A

development continues to be rapid and cephalocaudal in nature.

11-12 weeks, the fetus starts to become more active (spontaneous movements, reflexes) although movements are not felt by the mother until the fetus becomes larger, usually around 16 weeks.

20 weeks, the fetus starts to have facial expressions and begins putting on weight.
A premature birth at 20-22 weeks old has a chance of survival with significant medical intervention. However, 23 weeks is considered the age of viability, or the point at which the brain and lungs are developed enough for survival without major medical intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens when the blastocyst becomes implanted in the uterine wall?

A

Begins to differentiate.

1st - into an inner cell mass that becomes the embryo
and outer mass that becomes the organism’s support system

Then the inner cell mass differentiates into several layers that will form various systems of the body

Then a fold in the top layer develops into the neural tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the neural tube become?

A

One end of the tube will become the brain and the other the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The fetal experience includes

A

movement
sensory experiences
learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fetal behaviour - movement helps…

A

promote muscle development. Interestingly, there are large individual differences in prenatal activity, with these differences continuing into infancy. In other words, an active fetus is likely to become an active newborn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fetal behaviour - sensory experiences…

A

A fetus experiences some degree of sensory input from all five senses, although visual input is minimal.

Since a fetus can move around, it can experience tactile sensations such as kicking the walls of the uterus.

Amniotic fluid contains both odours and flavours (related to what the mother ingests), which a fetus can smell and taste. Researchers suspect that this may be one way in which cultural flavour preferences are transmitted.

A fetus can hear the world around them. This includes both the maternal world (e.g., mom’s heartbeat) and the outside world (e.g., voices of their family members).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fetal behaviour - Learning…

A

When discussing fetal learning, we are only considering learning in its most simple form - habituation and dishabituation.

In other words, this essentially allows researchers to examine whether a fetus gets “bored” of a stimulus and if interest peaks when the stimulus is changed.

Research suggests that the nervous system of a fetus is developed enough to engage in this type of basic learning (e.g., they habituate to repeated stimuli). A fetal brain, however, is not yet developed enough to engage in more complex forms of learning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Meiosis

A

cell division that produces germ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ectoderm

A

the outermost layer of cells of an embryo in early development, which includes nerve cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Mesoderm

A

the middle layer of cells of an embryo in early development, which includes the bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Endoderm

A

the innermost layer of cells of an embryo in early development, which includes the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Amniotic sac

A

a transparent, fluid-filled membrane that surrounds and protects the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Placenta

A

a support organ for the fetus that consists of semi-permeable membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Germinal Period

A
  • Blastocyst develops
  • period ends at implantation
  • begins at fertilization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Embryonic Period

A
  • Neural tube develops
    -Weeks 3-8
  • 3 layers of cells form during this period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Fetal Period

A

-A premature infant may survive is born during this period.
- The mother will begin noticing movements during this period.
-Main feature of this period is weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a teratogen?

A

is anything that has an adverse impact on development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are examples of teratogens?

A

Chemicals
Medications
Recreational Drugs
Alcohol and Nicotine
Some Viruses and Bacteria
Maternal Health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The impact that a given teratogen will have on a developing fetus depends on many factors, including:

A

Type of Teratogen
Dosage
Duration of Exposure
Timing of Exposure
Genetics of the Mother
Genetics of the Fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most infamous teratogen

A

Thalidomide, a medication that was approved for pregnant women without proper testing. Thalidomide resulted in serious birth defects for newborns who were exposed in utero.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Teratogen - alcohol

A

Germinal Period - organ system have not yet started to develop, mild alcohol consumption is unlikely to result in major birth defects

Embryonic period - major organ systems are rapidly developing. Exposure to teratogens during this period can cause major structural abnormalities. Exposure to alcohol can have significant impact on CNS.

Fetal Period- teratogen exposure during this period is more likely to result in physiological defects or minor structural abnormalities.

**The more mothers drink, the more likely it is to have an effect on their child; however, some babies will be unaffected due to their mother’s and/or their own genetic endowments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Why are Major structural defects less likely to happen in the fetal period?

A

Because the basic organ systems are already in place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is one of the leading causes of preventable birth defects and developmental disabilities.

A

Alcohol.

But, not all pregnancies with such exposures will result in birth defects. First, there is a dose-response relationship between exposure to teratogens like these and the likelihood of negative outcomes. In other words, the higher the dose, the greater the likelihood of negative outcomes. Second, both maternal and fetal genetic susceptibilities (e.g., variation in the rate a drug will be metabolized) influence the final outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The second most common drug used during pregnancy

A

Cannabis

maternal cannabis use during pregnancy has adverse impacts on children across development. Longitudinal research indicates that children exposed to cannabis early in development are at a greater risk for attention deficits, increased hyperactivity, and increased likelihood of substance use.

While this is likely to continue to be an active area of research, it is important to note that there is no evidence that there is a safe amount of cannabis exposure for a developing fetus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Are sushi and chicken pox considered teratogens?

A

Sushi - no

Chicken pox (Varicella) - yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What two things contribute to development

A

both genes and the environment contribute to development. Nature versus nurture is no longer a debate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What represents the “nature” factor when it comes to development

A

genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What carries all of the “instructions” for making a person, which are packaged in genes.

A

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

genes code for ____________, NOT for _____________

A

proteins, specific behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the key ingredient that determines a cell’s characteristics and functions.

A

Proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Cells contain different forms of the same gene called

A

alleles.

This “back up copy” is helpful to ensure proper development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is responsible for most human traits?

A

polygenic inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

although every cell contains all genes, only some….

A

only some genes are expressed, and only some genes result in observable characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Genotype

A

The set of genes that an organism carries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Phenotype

A

Expressed characteristics, influenced by genes and environment.

Ex: a baby has brown eyes.

most human traits, including eye colour, are the result of polygenic inheritance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What controls where and how much protein is made by a gene, effectively turning the gene “on” or “off”?

A

Epigenetic “markers”

This occurs naturally during prenatal development when cells are differentiated (e.g., one cell becomes a brain cell while another becomes skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Identical twins originate from the same…

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Epigenetics

A

The study of how DNA interacts with a multitude of smaller molecules found within cells, which can activate and deactivate genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Genes in DNA are expressed when they are…

A

read and transcribed into RNA, which is translated into proteins by structures called ribosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What mostly determines a cell’s characteristics and function?

A

Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What can boost or interfere with the transcription of a specific gene?

A

Epigenetic changes.

The most common way interference happens is that DNA or the proteins it is wrapped around gets labelled with small chemical tags.
The set of all the chemical tags that are attached to the genome of a given cell is called the epigenome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How do epigenome’s inhibit gene expression?

A

Some of these, like a methyl group, inhibit gene expression by derailing the cellular transcription machinery or causing the DNA to coil more tightly, making it inaccessible. The gene is still there but it is silent.

62
Q

How do chemical tags boost transcription?

A

Some chemical tags will unwind the DNA, making it easier to transcribe, which ramps up production of the associated protein.

63
Q

Can epigenetic changes survive cell division?

A

Yes.
This means they can affect an organism for the rest of its life.

Epigenetic changes are part of normal development.

64
Q

The cells in an embryo start with…

A

one master genome.

As the cells divide some genes are activated and others inhibited.

65
Q

Approximately how many cell types are in our body

A

200 (they have essentially the same genome, but its own distinct epigenome)

66
Q

The chemical tags that turn genes on and off can be influenced by factors including…

A

diet, chemical exposure, and medication. The resulting epigenetic changes can eventually result in disease if for example, they turn off a gene that make a tumor suppressing protein.

67
Q

What is part of the reason why genetically identical twins can grow up to have very different lives.

A

Environmentally induced epigentic changes

As twins get older, their epigenomes diverge, affecting the way they age and their susceptibility to disease.

68
Q

Can social experiences cause epigenetic changes?

A

Yes.

Ex: mother rats not attentive enough to pups, genes in the babies that helped them manage stress were methylated and turned off. And it might not stop with that generation.

Most epigenetic marks are erased when egg and sperm cells are formed, but researchers think that some of those imprints survive, passing those epigenetic traits onto the next generation.

69
Q

Are epigenetic changes permanent?

A

Not necessarily. A balanced lifestyle that includes a healthy diet, exercise and avoiding exposure to contaminants may in the long run create a healthy genome.

70
Q

Behavioural genetics

A

the study of how nature and nurture contribute to behaviour.

Specifically, behavioural genetics tries to determine how much variation in behaviour is the result of environmental versus genetic factors.

71
Q

Twin studies

A

compare monozygotic (identical, 100% genetic similarity) twins to dizygotic (fraternal, 50% genetic similarity) twins.

Researchers typically assume that the twins were raised in the same environment. This is one reason why dizygotic twins are used instead of siblings, as dizygotic twins have more similarity in their environment (starting from the womb!).

**If correlation on a given trait is higher for monozygotic twins than for dizygotic twins, researchers can assume that there is a genetic contribution to the behaviour.

72
Q

adoption studies

A

Look to see if offspring become more similar to their biological parents or to their adoptive parents.

If they become more similar to their adoptive parents on a given trait (e.g., reading ability), we can assume there is an environmental contribution.

On the other hand, if the children become more similar to their biological parents on a given trait (e.g., shyness), we can assume there is a genetic contribution.

73
Q

heritability of traits

A

A statistic looking at the proportion of variance in a trait that is due to genetics. the percentage of variance in a population due to genes.

Measured at the population level. Not individuals.

Heritability is abstract. Tells us nothing about specific genes or environmental factors that contribute to behaviour.

Heritability operates in context. Genetics to play a stronger role with environments are stable, but the opposite can be true for disadvantaged environments.

Heritability estimates range from 0-1
0 means the variation in a trait is completely due to environmental factors.
1 means that 100% of the variation in a trait is completely due to genetic factors.

74
Q

Genes code for

A

Protiens

75
Q

Behavioural Genetics

A

The study of how nature and nurture contribute to behaviour

76
Q

Epigenetics

A

The study of external modifications to DNA that turns genes “on” and “off”.

77
Q

Twin studies

A

Research design that compares monozygotic to dizygotic twins.

78
Q

Adoption studies

A

Used to examine whether offspring become more similar to biological or adoptive parents

79
Q

Key processes of brain development

A

Neurogenesis
Neural Migration
Myelination
Synaptogenesis
Synaptic Pruning

80
Q

Neurogenesis

A

Begins 3-4 weeks after conception, generally ends by weeks 18-20

Neurogenesis is the process through which new neurons are formed in the brain.

At its peak, 250,000 neurons are formed each minute. Prenatal neurogenesis is essentially complete by the 18th week, but it continues in some areas of the brain throughout life. Adult neurogenesis especially depends on the environment - it is now considered a normal part of healthy development, but can be inhibited by risk factors like stress.

81
Q

Neural Migration

A

6-24 weeks after conception

Neural migration is the process by which neurons migrate, or move, to their adult location in the brain. Neurons migrate using both active and passive movement – some actively propel themselves, while others are carried along passively.

82
Q

Myelination

A

3rd trimester-adulthood

Once in their final destination, neurons continue to grow and differentiate.

They also develop their myelin sheath – myelination is the process by which the myelin sheath (fatty sheath) forms around the axons of neurons.

The myelin sheath increases the speed of neural transmission and increases information-processing abilities in the brain.

83
Q

Synaptogenesis

A

3rd trimester-adulthood

Once grown and developed, neurons start “talking” to each other through synapses.

Synaptogenesis is the process through which neurons form synapses with other neurons, resulting in trillions of connections.

84
Q

Synaptic Pruning

A

Occurs throughout development, with bursts in early development and during adolescence

Synaptic pruning is a normal developmental process through which certain synapses are eliminated.

About 40% of the synapses that develop are eventually eliminated. Pruning occurs in different areas of the brain depending on development.

gray matter becomes less dense as the brain matures. The prefrontal cortex, which controls executive functioning and long-term planning, is the last to mature.

85
Q

The saying “use it or lose it” truly applies when it comes to

A

Synaptic pruning

86
Q

Why does pruning happen?

A

it is an evolutionary advantage to have a changeable brain – this allows organisms to adapt to their environment and survive in changing conditions.

87
Q

Plasticity

A

Plasticity reflects the capacity of the brain to be affected by experience.

88
Q

Experience-expectant plasticity

A

involves normal wiring of the brain and occurs in part from typical, expected experiences.

For example, hearing sounds and language is an expected part of development, and helps to develop associated brain areas. If this doesn’t happen, these brain regions do not develop in typical ways and will be taken over by other sensory areas.

Relatedly, experience-expectant plasticity is associated with the concept of sensitive periods.

Ex: the infant brain is wired to be responsive to language. If an infant is not exposed to language early in development, it is much more difficult for language capacities to develop in the brain

89
Q

Experience-dependant plasticity

A

refers to the process by which neural connections are created/reorganized based on an individual’s personal experience

This type of plasticity is related to learning and memory and occurs throughout the lifespan.

Ex:, London taxi drivers have highly developed hippocampi

90
Q

Human interactions are complex and can be involved in both kinds of plasticity

A

Infants instinctively attempt to elicit attention from adults. This stimulates neurodevelopment and helps the child learn from the world around them in species-expectant ways. In other words, infants expect adult interactions to develop cognitive, social, and emotional connections in the brain.

However, interactions between all infants and their caregivers are not equal. For example, higher quality (e.g., stable, predictable, attentive, warm) interactions enhance brain connections moreso than lower quality interactions. Thus, depending on what exactly is occurring in these parent-child interactions, a child’s brain will organize in different ways.

91
Q

Neurogenesis

A

The process through which new neurons are formed in the brain.

92
Q

Neural Migration

A

The process by which neurons move to their adult location in the brain.

93
Q

Synaptogenesis

A

The process through which neurons form synapses with other neurons

94
Q

Prenatal development occurs through 3 stages:

A

germinal (zygote), embryonic, and fetal.

95
Q

Exposure to teratogens can negatively impact prenatal development. The likelihood of negative outcomes depends on…

A

many factors related to the teratogen, as well as the mother and developing fetus.

96
Q

While all psychological traits have a heritability component (due to genetic factors), genes do not account for the full picture. What further influences development?

A

Environments further influence development and gene expression through epigenetics.

97
Q

Hazards to prenatal development

A

-spontaneous abortion/misscarriage
-teratogens (drugs, environmental pollutants)
-Maternal factors (age, nutrition, disease, emotional state)

98
Q

The human brain begins to develop in the womb and continues to develop over the life course in what ways?

A

experience-expectant and experience-dependant ways.

99
Q

What did Dr. Noble and her team find?

A

lower family income was linked with smaller cortical surface area, especially in brain regions involved in language and cognitive control abilities.

100
Q

Epigenesis

A

The emergence of new structures and functions in the course of development (modern form of epigenetics)

101
Q

epigenetics

A

study of how DNA interacts with a multitude of smaller molecules found within cells, which can activate and deactivate genes

102
Q

gamates/germ cells

A

-singel cell that resulted from the union of two cells - a sperm and an egg.
-they only contain 1/2 the genetic material found in other cells
-produced via meiosis

103
Q

Meiosis

A

A form of cell division in which the eggs and sperm receive only one member from each of the 23 chromosome pairs contained in all other cells of the body

104
Q

Largest human cell

A

Egg.

But sperm is among the smallest

105
Q

Spontaneous abortion

A

Male fetuses are more susceptible to spontaneous abortion than females in both the 1st week and last several weeks of pregnancy

Female fetuses more susceptible in weeks 10-15

106
Q

Male fetuses

A

more likely to experience fetal distress at birth
higher mortality rates for boys
More sensitve to teratogens
More likely to die from SID and have higher rate of developmental disabilities (attention disorders and Autism)

107
Q

Female fetuses

A

Less likely than males to survive early gestation

108
Q

Zygote

A

fertilized egg

109
Q

4 major development processes of zygote transformation

A

1) Cell division
2) cell migration
3) Cell differentiation
4) Death - apoptosis (cell suicide)

110
Q

Embryonic stem cells

A

embryonic cell that can develop into any type of body cell

111
Q

All human fetuses, regardless of genes they carry can develop…

A

either male or female genitalia

If androgens are absent, female genitalia develops.
Source of androgens is male fetus itself (fetus influences own development)

112
Q

At what stage do monozygotic (identical) twins most often originate?

A

Around 4th day after conception, when the cells arrange themselves into a hallow sphere with a bulge of cells, called the inner cell mass, on one side.

113
Q

Dizygotic (fraternal) twins occur when…

A

two eggs happen to be realsed from the ovary into the fallopian tube and both are fertilized (only half genes in common)

114
Q

Inner cell mass is initially how thick?

A

A single layer, but during second week it folds itself into 3 layers:

top - becomes nervous system, nails, teeth, inner ear, lens of eyes, outer surface of skin

middle - becomes muscles, bones, the circulatory system, inner layers of skin

bottom - becomes digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands

115
Q

Cephalocaudal development

A

the pattern of growth in which areas near the head develop earlier than areas farther from the head.

116
Q

What is related with children age 10 being more behaviourally inhibited?

A

32 week fetuses whose heart rates were generally slower and moved less

117
Q

habituation

A

simple form of learning that involves a decrease in response to repeated or continued stimulation

As young as 30 week gestation shows habituation to both visual and auditory stimuli, indicating that their CNS is sufficiently developed for learning and short term memory to occur.

118
Q

dishabituation

A

introduction to new stimulus rekindles interest following habituation to a repeated stimulus.

119
Q

What has to happen in order to make a protien?

A

DNA has to be unwound from its histones. Called acetylation process

120
Q

Biological drive to make sense of the world by 3 continuous processes (Paiget Theory)

A

1) Adaptation
2) Organization
3) Equilibration

Paiget argued that across all stages, learning unfolds through the processes of accomodation and assimilation. These processes lead to both short term learning as well as long term developmental stages.

121
Q

Paiget’s theory 4 stages

A

1) Sensorimotor (0-2)
2) preoperational (2-7)
3) concrete operational (7-12)
4) formal operational (12+)

122
Q

Sensorimotor stage example and thinking error

A

Infant cannot think about a cup of water unless they are experiencing it.

Object permanence >8 months
A not B error (infants will continue to look for hidden object, rather than new location it was hideen.)

123
Q

Preoperational stage example and thinking error

A

Start to be able to represent experiences through language and symbolic thought
Ex: see a cup of water and know that the words “water” refer to the substance in the cup

Only tend to focus on one feature of an object; and error known as centration

124
Q

Concrete operational example

A

Children can reason logically, but cannot think abstractly.
Ex: pour water from short glass into tall glass and understand the amount hasn’t changed.

125
Q

Formal operational

A

Able to think abstractly and about hypothetical situations.

Can think more about moral, philosophical, ethical issues

126
Q

Key components of information-processing theories

A

-Cognitive development is continuous
-Active child
-Thinking is a process that occurs over time

126
Q

Cognitive development is continuous

A

basic learning and memory capabilities are present from birth and increase continuously over development

126
Q

Problems with Paiget’s theory

A

stage model - children’s thinking not consistent
underestimated infants competence
underestimated influence of environment
Not all cultures reach formal operations stage

127
Q

Information processing Theory

A

-Theories that focus on cognitive systems and processes
-Posits that childrens thinking is limited to;
hardware - memory + processing speed
software - availability of useful strategies and knowledge
-Theories focus on:
structure of cognitive systems
mental activities
how changes in thinking occur

128
Q

Active Child

A

Children are active problem solvers, contributing to their own cognitive development

129
Q

Thinking is a process that occurs over time (Information processing theories)

A

Simple behaviours like asking a question actually reflect a longer sequence of mental processes (e.g., remembering info relevant to question)

130
Q

3 main cognitive capabilities that contribute to memory

A

1) changes in basic processes (associating, recognizing, recalling)

2) changes in strategies (rehearsal, elaboration, selective attention)

3) changes in content knowledge (improves encoding, provides guidelines for what is (an is not) possible/likely)

131
Q

Sociocultural Theories - Vgotsky

A

1) Social interactions are important for learning
2) Role of culture in learning
3) Role of language in learning
4) Internalization of speech
5) Zone of proximal development

132
Q

What is Vgotsky’s most famous contribution to cognitive development?

A

Zone of proximal development. The range of tasks a child can perform with assistance from others, but cannot yet perform independently.

-Direct Scaffolding
-Indirect Scaffolding

133
Q

Direct Scaffolding

A

divide into smaller tasks, added structure, physical tools, feedback, questions about the task

134
Q

Indirect scaffolding

A

creating an environment that supports learning

135
Q

Dynamic systems theory

A

Focus on how change occurs over time in complex systems

Considers the complex interactions both within the child and their environment that might influence cognitive development

Posit development is non-linear (2 steps forward, 1 step back)

-the stepping reflex

136
Q

Attractor states (Dynamic systems theory)

A

refer to each new motor skill; as its learnt it becomes deeper

136
Q

4 major theories of cognitive development

A

Paiget - 4 stage model
Info processing - how we take in info influences our thinking
Sociocultural - emphasizes relationships. Includes language and culture
Dynamic Systems - interactions between factors that may impact dev.

137
Q

Soft assembly (Dynamic systems theory)

A

motor skills assembled online; they are not hardwired, they are acquired through practice and through slow learning skills and skills learned in real time.

138
Q

Minnesota study of twins

A

identified genetic contributions to “almost every behavioural trait so far investigated from reaction time to religiosity”

139
Q

gene synthesis

A

A method in producing DNA

140
Q

Development is a combined function of genetic and environmental factors

A

1) Parents genotyoe - child’s genotype
2) Child’s genotype - Chid’s phenotype
3) Child’s environment - Child’s phenotype
4) Child’s Phenotype - Child environment
5) Child’s environment - Child’s genotype

141
Q

Parents genotyoe - child’s genotype

A

Involves transmission of genetic material from parent to offspring
- human heredity
-genetic diversity + individual differences
-sex determination

142
Q

Child’s genotype - Chid’s phenotype

A

phenotype includes both physical and behavioural charactersitics
genes influence unobservable, intermediate aspects of the phenotype that impact behaviour - notably brain and nervous system

Intermediate phenotypes (endophenotypes) mediate the pathways between genes and behaviour

143
Q

model of hereditary and environmental influences have 3 key elements

A

genotype
phenotype
environment

144
Q

Child’s environment - Child’s phenotype

A

Because of continuous interaction of genotype and environment, a given genotype may develop differently in different environments.

Ex: a phenotype produced by genotype-environment interaction is PKU - a disorder related to a defective recessive gene on chromosome 12 - cannot metabolize phenylalanine (amino acid in red meat, aspartame)

145
Q

Child’s Phenotype - Child environment

A

Active Child

146
Q

Child’s environment - Child’s genotype

A

Although structure of genetic code remains “fixed” during one’s lifetime, the expression of genetic code is altered.

-specific gene does not lead to specific phenotype but that, instead, the genetic encoding of protiens alters the ways in which genes are expressed as phenotypes.

147
Q

Behaviour Genetics

A

Quantitative genetics research designs (family study, twin studies)
Heritability
Molecular genetics research designs (DNA variation)
Environmental effects (growing up in the same family, experiences diverge, much harder to measure than genes)

148
Q

Brain development

A

Collaboration between nature and nurture

Neuron; cell body ,dendrites, axon

Cortex; cerebral constitutes 80% of human brain, 4 main lobes, divided into 2 hemispheres.