Module 11 Master Question Bank Flashcards
1) A lead acid battery is considered fully charged when?
a) SG reaches 1.180
b) Cells gas freely
c) SG + voltage remain constant for specified period
c) SG + voltage remain constant for specified period
2) Preferred method of Battery charging a Ni-Cad Battery is constant?
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Power
b) Current
3) Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically are associated with
a) Elevators
b) Rudder
c) Ailerons
c) Ailerons
4) In an aircraft control system employing servo-tabs instillation of external ground locks to main control surface
a) is unnecessary since system is irreversible and therefore control surface cannot be displace by the wind
b) would not prevent movement of control column
c) would also prevent movement of control column
b) would not prevent movement of control column
5) Air above Mach 0.7 is
a) Compressible
b) Incompressible
c) Compressible only when above speed of sound
a) Compressible
6) Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the
a) Pressure to increase, velocity to increase
b) Pressure to decrease, velocity to increase
c) Pressure to increase, velocity to decrease
b) Pressure to decrease, velocity to increase
7) An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant true airspeed. It’s Mach number will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Not change
b) Decrease
8) Spongy brakes are usually a result of
a) Air in system
b) Internal leakage
c) External leakage
a) Air in system
9) Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the
a) Wheel hub
b) Wheel flange
c) Brake drum
b) Wheel flange
10) Blow out panels are fitted to floors of pressurised aircraft to
a) Provide access for pressurising aircraft
b) Relieve pressure if maximum differential is exceeded
c) Provide venting should a differential pressure build up across floor
c) Provide venting should a differential pressure build up across floor
11) If an aircraft were yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab?
a) To the left
b) To the right
c) To the centre
a) To the left
12) If an aircraft were flying with left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?
a) up
b) down
c) moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation
a) up
13) When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?
a) To increase lift
b) To re-energise the boundary layer
c) To allow flap to be retract in to it when it retracts
b) To re-energise the boundary layer
14) A purpose of a cut out in a hydraulic system
a) is to limit loss of fluid in event of pipe fracture
b) is to prevent creep of jack operated services which have several selected positions
c) is to relieve pump of load when operation of services is completed and accumulator charged with fluid
c) is to relieve pump of load when operation of services is completed and accumulator charged with fluid
15) Hydraulic pressure can be restored by
a) the use of pressure/heat exchanger
b) compressing the air charge in an accumulator
c) compressing the fluid in a reservoir
b) compressing the air charge in an accumulator
16) Auto pilot servo brake is energised
a) to actuate off
b) at same time as the clutch
c) to actuate on
a) to actuate off
17) Hand held mikes are not permissible on
a) Public transport aircraft
b) Public transport or aerial work
c) Private aircraft only
a) Public transport aircraft
18) Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at
a) 10,000 ft alt
b) 2500 ft alt
c) 1000 ft alt
b) 2500 ft alt
19) A cross feed valve is usually in
a) Open position
b) Closed position
c) It’s last position
b) Closed position
20) Full time yaw damper system detects
a) Only low frequencies
b) All frequencies
c) Band pass frequencies
c) Band pass frequencies
21) What is radio altitude track altitude?
a) 500 ft
b) 2500 ft
c) 10,000 ft
b) 2500 ft
22) Which category are hand mikes considered essential?
a) Light aircraft
b) Aerial work aircraft
c) Heavy passenger aircraft
a) Light aircraft
23) Emergency frequency is?
a) 121.5
b) 123.5
c) 125.5
a) 121.5
24) Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on
a) High pressure systems
b) Low pressure systems
c) Air or vapour systems
c) Air or vapour systems
25) Cargo and baggage compartments in which fire is completely confined come under
a) Class B
b) Class C
c) Class D
c) Class D
26) When a current transformer is disconnected wheat should be done?
a) Terminals shorted
b) Resistor placed across terminals
c) Left open circuit
a) Terminals shorted
27) What does a differential sensing coil sense?
a) Current
b) Volts
c) Power
a) Current
28) 121.5 MHz is what frequency? (Requires double check-duplicate)
a) VHF
b) ILS
c) VOR
a) VHF
29) 121.5 MHz is what frequency? (Requires double check-duplicate)
a) VOR
b) ILS
c) VHF
a) VOR
30) Where does the GCU get its power?
a) PMG
b) Battery
c) RAT
a) PMG
31) Galley loads are wired in
a) Series
b) Parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption
c) Either series or parallel depending on design
b) Parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption
32) On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?
a) Cellulose only
b) Not cellulose
c) Polyurethane
b) Not cellulose
33) A current limiter
a) limits current flow to a load
b) opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded
c) can be used as a radio suppresser
b) opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded
34) When a load is shed from a busbar
a) busbar voltage increases
b) current consumption from the busbar decreases
c) busbar voltage decreases
b) current consumption from the busbar decreases
35) In an unparalleled AC generation system the phase rotation on one generator in relation to the others
a) Is unimportant
b) Must be synchronised prior to paralleling
c) Must be BCA
a) Is unimportant
36) In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than it’s reactive power share is protected by?
a) over current and under current protection circuits
b) over voltage and under voltage protection circuits
c) over excitation and under excitation protection circuits
b) over voltage and under voltage protection circuits
37) Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by?
a) Equalising circuits which control the speed of generators
b) Equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators
c) Automatic load sharing
b) Equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators
38) Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by
a) Brushes positioned on MNA
b) Weak spring tension
c) Rotating field diode failure
b) Weak spring tension
39) Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from aircraft
a) allow to stabilise for one hour
b) take the temperature of the electrolyte
c) carryout a capacity test
a) allow to stabilise for one hour
40) When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna
a) use cellulose paint
b) use any paint
c) do not use cellulose paint
c) do not use cellulose paint
41) On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins
a) AB
b) CD
c) EF
c) EF
42) Over voltage protection circuits are activated
a) before the over voltage limit is exceeded
b) dependant on the magnitude of the over voltage
c) after fixed time delay
b) dependant on the magnitude of the over voltage
43) With respect to flight spoilers they
a) only operate on the ground
b) only operate in flight
c) can operate both on ground and in flight
c) can operate both on ground and in flight
44) Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with/
a) Oxygen
b) Co2
c) Helium
b) Co2
45) As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000 ft) the cabin altitude must?
a) Stay the same
b) Increase
c) Decrease
c) Decrease
46) A refrigerant is used in which of the following?
a) Air cycle machine
b) Pneumatic pump
c) Vapour cycle
c) Vapour cycle
47) With aircraft lights – which of the following is true?
a) Starboard light red, port light green, tail light red
b) Starboard light red, port light green, tail light white
c) Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white
c) Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white
48) An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions
a) Aircraft on the ground with one engine running
b) Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on
c) Aircraft in the air with both engines running
b) Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on
49) With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?
a) The up going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron
b) The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle
c) The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron
c) The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron
50) How many axis does the autopilot control?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
b) Three
51) A diode connected across a coil will?
a) prevent back EMF and allow faster switching
b) suppress arching when relay is opening and closing
c) prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way
b) suppress arching when relay is opening and closing
52) Which fault does not trip the GCR?
a) Under frequency and under volts
b) Over frequency and over volts
c) Over frequency and under frequency
c) Over frequency and under frequency
53) differential protection in a generating system
a) detects voltage difference between source and load
b) detects current difference between source and load
c) uses the volts coil to trip the GCR
b) detects current difference between source and load
54) Open phase sensing on a current transformer
a) is detected using all phases
b) is detected using any phase
c) is detected on generator neutral circuit
c) is detected on generator neutral circuit
55) Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then
a) the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to main base
b) the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired
c) the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only
a) the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to main base
56) A white light must be
a) of five candela showing from starboard side through an angle of 110 degrees in the horizontal plain
b) of at least three candela showing through an angle of 110 degrees from dead astern in the horizontal plain
c) of at least three candela showing through 70 degrees from dead astern to each side in horizontal plain
c) of at least three candela showing through 70 degrees from dead astern to each side in horizontal plain
57) If a battery is switched off in flight the
a) battery is disconnected from bus
b) generator voltage falls to zero
c) captain’s instruments will be powered from standby bus
a) battery is disconnected from bus
58) To flash a generator field
a) generator must be stationary
b) rotate but not on line
c) online and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage
a) generator must be stationary
59) A hydraulic motor generator’s voltage and current is controlled by
a) the swash plate
b) the constant speed drive
c) the voltage regulator
c) the voltage regulator
60) The ground interlock pins are numbered
a) A and B
b) C and N
c) E and F
c) E and F
61) A nose down change of trim (tuck under) occurs due to shock induced on
a) tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
b) tip stall on a delta wing aircraft
c) root stall on a delta wing aircraft
c) root stall on a delta wing aircraft
62) Zone 320 under the ATA system is
a) vertical stabiliser
b) central fuselage
c) horizontal stabiliser
a) vertical stabiliser
63) When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is
a) 0.005 ohms
b) 1/50 ohms
c) 50 milliohms
c) 50 milliohms
64) Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a pitot static leak check?
a) Altimeter
b) Air speed indicator
c) Vertical speed indicator
a) Altimeter
65) The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical section and will therefore provide side-load
a) only when the rudder is moved
b) if a suitable angle of attack develops due to either yaw or rudder movement
c) only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw
b) if a suitable angle of attack develops due to either yaw or rudder movement
66) An aircraft left wing low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit would be
a) moved up causing the left aileron to move down
b) moved up causing the left aileron to move up
c) moved down causing the left aileron to move down
a) moved up causing the left aileron to move down
67) The bearing used in a fibre pulley is
a) a roller bearing
b) a plain bearing
c) a ball bearing
c) a ball bearing
68) The real time on a CMC is when
a) existing faults page is selected on CDU
b) ground test page is selected on the CDU
c) fault history page is selected on the CDU
a) existing faults page is selected on CDU
69) The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause
a) the cabin pressure to decrease
b) the cabin pressure to increase
c) it will not effect the cabin pressure
b) the cabin pressure to increase
70) A spill valve opens
a) to control the air from the cabin to outside
b) to control the flow to the cabin
c) to prevent an excessive pressure difference
b) to control the flow to the cabin
71) An aircraft aerofoil is exposed to supersonic flow. The boundary layer
a) is subsonic
b) increases in depth
c) is supersonic
a) is subsonic
72) A brake debooster valve is provided for
a) decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes
b) applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the brakes quickly
c) increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly
b) applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the brakes quickly
73) A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of 0 degrees. A shock wave will form
a) on the upper surface only and moving aft
b) on the upper and lower surfaces and will move aft until the point of maximum camber
c) on the upper and lower surface and will move aft
c) on the upper and lower surface and will move aft
74) One of the inputs in a CMC is auto pilot controls. The data will be stored in
a) volatile memory
b) non-volatile memory
c) erased only after end of sector
b) non-volatile memory
75) The runway heading is
a) QDH
b) QDR
c) QDM
c) QDM
76) A spar web will take loads in
a) shear
b) tension
c) bending
a) shear
‘The spar as a whole, takes bending and shear’??
77) What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?
a) soft rubber
b) fire-proof grommets
c) none required
b) fire-proof grommets
78) A fuel cross-feed valve is powered from
a) AC busbar
b) The battery
c) DC busbar
c) DC busbar
79) A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated
a) by the fuel
b) by internal cooling
c) by air
a) by the fuel
80) A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13 000 ft by
a) bellows in the outflow valve
b) altitude sensor
c) cabin over pressure relief valve
b) altitude sensor
81) How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightening strike?
a) Bonded strip
b) Earthing strip
c) Special paint
a) Bonded strip
82) ILS marker beacon lights are
a) green, blue, amber
b) blue, amber, white
c) blue, white, green
b) blue, amber, white
83) 111.1 MHz is
a) an ILS frequency
b) a VOR frequency
c) a HF frequency
a) an ILS frequency
84) An auto pilot PFCU servo brake is
a) energised on
b) energised off
c) energised at the same time as the clutch
b) energised off
85) A florescent tube contains
a) orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
b) phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
c) iodine coatings and rare gases
b) phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
86) Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery
a) when fully charged
b) at any time
c) only in the battery workshop
a) when fully charged
87) Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates
a) excessive charging current
b) not enough charging current
c) low electrolyte temperature
a) excessive charging current
88) The aviation distress frequency is
a) 122.5 MHz
b) 121.5 MHz
c) 121.5 kHz
b) 121.5 MHz
89) A radio altimeter in track mode is effective to
a) 2000 ft
b) 100 ft
c) 2500 ft
c) 2500 ft
90) During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by
a) undervoltage
b) underfrequency
c) overcurrent
a) undervoltage
91) 112.1 MHz is
a) an ILS frequency
b) a VOR frequency
c) an ADF frequency
b) a VOR frequency
92) What does a Decca navigation system operate on?
a) Low frequency
b) High frequency
c) Very high frequency
a) Low frequency
93) What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed structure?
a) 24 inches
b) 26 inches
c) 28 inches
b) 26 inches
94) In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC
a) all faults are recorded in Volatile memory
b) all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
c) only primary faults are recorded
b) all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
95) Adhesive bonding is
a) wetting + gripping
b) wetting + setting
c) spread + setting
b) wetting + setting
96) Tension is the stress of
a) twisting
b) elongation or stretch
c) crush or compression
b) elongation or stretch
97) What is the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201-301 people?
a) 3 BCF
b) 4 Methyl Bromide
c) 4 Fire Extinguishers
c) 4 Fire Extinguishers
98) On an aircraft with asymmetrical ailerons what happens to induced drag when banking right?
a) Drag on inside aileron goes up but not as much as the outer
b) Drag on the outer aileron increases
c) Drag on the outer aileron is less
c) Drag on the outer aileron is less
99) When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted
a) a clearance exists at the secondary stops
b) the secondary stops will just be in contact
c) the secondary stops have been over-ridden
a) a clearance exists at the secondary stops
100) Excessive wear on both sides of a control cable pulley groove is evidence of
a) pulley misalignment
b) cable misalignment
c) excessive cable tension
a) pulley misalignment
101) A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed
a) with the aileron in the neutral position
b) with the aileron in the down position
c) when the aircraft is in level flight attitude
a) with the aileron in the neutral position
102) A flying control static friction check
a) can only be carried out during flight
b) will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls
c) demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls
c) demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls
103) Anoxia is due to
a) release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood
b) lack of oxygen
c) low air pressure on the body
b) lack of oxygen
104) The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant
a) inlet and outlet
b) outlet and vary the inlet
c) inlet and vary the outlet
c) inlet and vary the outlet
105) The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control
a) the rate of pressurisation
b) cabin differential pressure
c) cabin air flow
b) cabin differential pressure
106) Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is
a) more important in descent
b) equally important in ascent and descent
c) more important in ascent
a) more important in descent
107) With a pressurised aircraft at max differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the differential capsule in the pressure controller will.
a) have a constant mass flow
b) let all pressurising air to be spilled over board
c) let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure
b) let all pressurising air to be spilled over board
108) If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum
a) a warning light comes on in the cockpit
b) compressor delivery is automatically boosted
c) an inward relief valve opens
a) a warning light comes on in the cockpit
109) Fuel cross feed valves are lubricated by
a) fuel
b) special lubricant
c) no lubrication needed
a) fuel
110) Fuel cross feed valves are operated by
a) 28 v dc bus
b) battery bus
c) 115 v ac
a) 28 v dc bus
111) What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?
a) white
b) green
c) yellow
b) green
112) Which of the following has hyperbolic curve?
a) VOR
b) DME
c) Loran C
c) Loran C
113) What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?
a) Boric acid
b) Bicarbonate of soda
c) Distilled water
a) Boric acid
114) A GPS satellite will come into view
a) 20 degrees above the horizon with respect to the viewer
b) 15 degrees above the horizon with respect to the viewer
c) 10 degrees above the horizon with respect to the viewer
b) 15 degrees above the horizon with respect to the viewer
115) Apparent drift is a function of
a) sin x latitude
b) cos x latitude
c) tan x latitude
b) cos x latitude
116) What is an aileron balance cable for?
a) To allow the cable to be tensioned
b) To allow aircraft to fly hands off
c) To correct for wing heaviness
a) To allow the cable to be tensioned
117) With an increase in the Mach number, the boundary airflow
a) remains constant
b) decreases thickness
c) increases thickness
c) increases thickness
118) A comfortable cabin altitude rate of climb is
a) 500 ft per min
b) 300 ft per min
c) 100 ft per min
a) 500 ft per min
119) Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to
a) aerial work and transport category aircraft
b) transport category aircraft only
c) private category
b) transport category aircraft only
120) A white steady light is required
a) of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern
b) of at least 10 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern
c) of at least 10 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern
a) of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern
121) Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to prevent
a) overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines
b) voltages spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits
c) large circulating currents developing
a) overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines
122) Consumer loads are connected to a busbar
a) in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced
b) in series so when loads are shed current is reduced
c) in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced
a) in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced
123) A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for
a) negative sequence protection
b) overload protection
c) differential protection
c) differential protection
124) Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares
a) generator current to busbar current
b) generator voltage to busbar voltage
c) ambient pressure to cabin to cabin pressure
a) generator current to busbar current
125) When a current transformer is disconnected
a) a shorting link should be fitted
b) a resistor should be installed
c) no further precautions required
a) a shorting link should be fitted
126) In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation
a) must be synchronised prior to paralleling
b) must be out of phase prior to paralleling
c) is of no consequence after paralleling
a) must be synchronised prior to paralleling
127) Diodes are placed across a contactor to
a) speed up operation by reducing back EMF
b) prevent contact bounce
c) ensure smooth contactor operation
a) speed up operation by reducing back EMF
128) Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will
a) isolate the battery from the main busbar
b) disconnect all power to the main busbar
c) shut down the APU
a) isolate the battery from the main busbar
129) The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is
a) to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway
b) to limit the range of control movement
c) to allow the pilot to override
c) to allow the pilot to override
130) Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to maintain generator outputs at the same voltage
a) to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRU’s
b) to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators
c) to prevent CSD shock loading
b) to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators
131) A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field
a) uses a current coil in parallel with generator output
b) uses a voltage coil in series with generator output
c) uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output
c) uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output
132) CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate
a) high oil pressure, low oil temp
b) low oil pressure, high oil temp
c) low oil pressure, underfrequency
b) low oil pressure, high oil temp
133) The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by
a) a hydraulically actuated swash plate
b) an IDG
c) a CSD
a) a hydraulically actuated swash plate
134) An AC generator used with a CSD
a) does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant
b) does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant
c) needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load
c) needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load
135) Power to a GCU is supplied
a) initially by a ‘field tickling’ supply and then PMG output
b) generator output only
c) battery bus or rectified generator output
c) battery bus or rectified generator output
136) Trip signals for a GCR are
a) underfrequency and overcurrent
b) differential protection and undervoltage
c) overfrequency and undervoltage
b) differential protection and undervoltage
137) Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of
a) high oil temp/low oil pressure
b) high oil temp/low oil quantity
c) low oil quantity/low oil temp
a) high oil temp/low oil pressure
138) Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with
a) Nomex
b) Teflon
c) PVC
b) Teflon
139) A heat gun should be operated at
a) 100 degrees above the specified
b) 100 degrees below the specified
c) at the specified temperature
c) at the specified temperature
140) High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because
a) it will damage the drive shaft
b) it will cause high circulating current in the bus/other generators
c) it will trip the GCR
c) it will trip the GCR
141) Over voltage condition trips the generator. Time taken to trip the GCU depends on
a) closing of fuel and hydraulic valves
b) amplitude of voltage
c) time delay circuit
b) amplitude of voltage
142) Speed of HMG is controlled by a
a) swash plate
b) CSD unit
c) ID unit
a) swash plate
143) Track mode of RA is operational
a) from 1.0 to 100 feet
b) from 0 to 2500 feet
c) above 10000 feet
b) from 0 to 2500 feet
144) Permanent magnet should have
a) low retentivity, high coercivity
b) high retentivity, low coercivity
c) low retentivity, low coercivity
b) high retentivity, low coercivity
145) How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 25%
c) 25%
146) How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
b) 2
147) Wavelength of X band radar is?
a) 3cm
b) 5cm
c) 10m
a) 3cm
148) Precipitation static is caused by
a) HF radiation
b) Lightening strikes
c) Skin to air particle collisions
c) Skin to air particle collisions
149) HF aerials have weak points designed at
a) front end
b) back end
c) both ends
b) back end
150) How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?
a) By a motor load test
b) Motor test and Go-Nogo gap measurement
c) Screwdriver torque test
c) Screwdriver torque test
151) What is reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?
a) 1000 MHz
b) 1030 MHz
c) 1090 MHz
c) 1090 MHz
152) How often do hand held extinguishers have to be weighed?
a) Annually
b) Bi-annually
c) Every 5 years
a) Annually
153) CAT II RVR limit is
a) 10,000 ft
b) 1200 ft
c) 1000 ft
b) 1200 ft
154) Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be
a) 3 inches
b) 4 inches
c) 5 inches
a) 3 inches
155) Dissimilar Metal Fusion Bonding is best for
a) high strength and high stiffness
b) high strength and toughness
c) high strength and ductility
c) high strength and ductility
156) A fuselage station is a
a) longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage
b) lateral point on aircraft fuse
c) lateral point on aircraft wing
a) longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage
157) Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use
a) solvent etch
b) alkaline etch
c) acid etch
c) acid etch
158) What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?
a) the hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery
b) the battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode
c) the power supply to the battery will be interrupted
c) the power supply to the battery will be interrupted
159) The purpose of a slot in a wing is to
a) act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer
b) speed up the airflow and increase lift
c) provide housing for the slat
a) act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer
160) The purpose of primer is to
a) help bonding of the top coat
b) provide shiny surface for the top coat
c) provide flexible surface for the top coat
a) help bonding of the top coat
161) Large flap deployment
a) causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface
b) causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface
c) has no effect on spanwise flow
b) causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface
162) At speeds greater than Mach 1 airflow in the boundary layer is
a) subsonic
b) supersonic
c) stationary
a) subsonic
163) A machmeter works
a) above 10000 ft
b) always
c) always except on ground
b) always
164) With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft (nose up) range of movement of the elevator is restricted
a) for ‘up’ travel movement
b) for ‘down’ travel movement
c) would make no difference to the movement
a) for ‘up’ travel movement
165) Acrylic windows must be able to flex in situ because they have
a) lager coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
b) smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
c) slight shrinkage due to age
b) smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
166) Engine wing fire bottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15 degrees C to
a) 1500 psi
b) 1250 psi
c) 600 psi
c) 600 psi
167) When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain the same
b) decrease
168) Radio marker info is displayed on
a) HSI
b) ADI
c) EICAS
b) ADI
169) Angle of attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to
a) move probe up
b) move probe down
c) move probe laterally
b) move probe down
170) When does auto trim operate at lower speed?
a) when flaps are down
b) when gear is down
c) when flaps are up
c) when flaps are up
171) A water separator is located
a) downstream of the turbine
b) downstream of heat exchanger
c) upstream of the turbine
a) downstream of the turbine
172) A cargo bay must have signs stating
a) no hazardous cargo
b) max dimensions
c) max loadings
c) max loadings
173) Where is alpha angle used?
a) accelerometer
b) IRS
c) Angle of attack
c) Angle of attack
174) A fire that can be put out by a crewmember in a cargo bay is a
a) class a
b) class b
c) class d
b) class b
175) Spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to
a) 15 deg
b) 30 deg
c) 60 deg
c) 60 deg
176) Fuel systems that are interconnected must have
a) air spaces interconnected
b) separate venting for each tank
c) no airspace
a) air spaces interconnected
177) As fuel level increases, system capacitance
a) decreases
b) increases
c) no change
b) increases
178) When refuelling
a) the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full
b) it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank
c) it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank
c) it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank
179) Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?
a) Tip stalls first
b) Root stalls first
c) Both stall together
a) Tip stalls first
180) Composite material is bonded by
a) copper wire
b) special paint
c) aluminium wire
b) special paint
181) Cargo nets are manufactured from
a) hessian
b) polypropylene
c) nylon
c) nylon
182) With an auto pilot engaged which control surface is inhibited?
a) Elevators
b) Ailerons
c) THS
c) THS
183) When flaps are lowered the automatic trim system will
a) increase the angle of incidence of the THS
b) decrease the angle of incidence of the THS
c) angle of incidence remains the same
b) decrease the angle of incidence of the THS
184) During flight an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly
a) left wing low
b) right wing low
c) nose up
b) right wing low
185) In auto pilot the control column
a) does not move
b) moves in pitch
c) moves in pitch and roll
c) moves in pitch and roll
186) Where is the spinup/rundown brake?
a) Inner gimbal
b) Outer gimbal
c) Rotating vane
b) Outer gimbal
187) On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would
a) carry out a check swing after fitment
b) fit the serviceable pre indexed flex valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from
c) align the aircraft onto it’s ‘A’ quotient so that no error is induced
b) fit the serviceable pre indexed flex valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from
188) In airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?
a) QFE
b) QNH
c) 1013.25
c) 1013.25
189) Zone D cargo compartment windows
a) are made from fire retardant Perspex
b) must have blinds pulled down
c) must be blanked off
c) must be blanked off
190) A ‘hyperbolic’ system is
a) ILS
b) VOR
c) LORAN C
c) LORAN C
191) A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is
a) class A
b) class B
c) class E
a) class A
192) When is ‘autothrottle’ disengaged?
a) On selection of reverse thrust
b) After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TOGA can be selected in case of emergency
c) On landing
a) On selection of reverse thrust
193) On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it?
a) In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel
b) On the GCU
c) By means of a remote trimmer
c) By means of a remote trimmer
194) Tubeless tyres are stored
a) horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter on top
b) vertically
c) At 15 to 20 P.S.I.
b) vertically
195) Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is
a) by angle of swash plate
b) by IDG
c) by CSU
a) by angle of swash plate
196) Aircraft with auto pilot and auto trim, a pitch command input will cause
a) column to move and trim system to move
b) column to move and trim system not to move
c) column will not move and trim system will move
a) column to move and trim system to move
197) ATA 100 is
a) upper fuse
b) lower fuse
c) Left hand wing
b) lower fuse
198) On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is
a) top of wheels closer together
b) bottom of wheels closer together
c) front of wheels closer together
b) bottom of wheels closer together
199) In regard to aircraft transponder, what is pulse frequency?
a) Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second
b) Number of pulses per signal
c) Amount of times reply signal is sent per second
c) Amount of times reply signal is sent per second
200) Weight of extinguisher is stamped
a) on base of body
b) on head fitting
c) on bracket
b) on head fitting
201) In a CMC system where would you find ‘real time’ fault?
a) In test
b) In fault
c) In fault history
b) In fault
202) Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by
a) cooling fan on timer switch
b) thermal protection
c) water cooling
b) thermal protection
203) In a capacitive fire detection system, if
a) there is a break the system will work but will not test satisfactory
b) there is a short to earth the system will work but not test satisfactory
c) there is a break the system will not work
b) there is a short to earth the system will work but not test satisfactory
204) Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of
a) air
b) CO2
c) Nitrogen
b) CO2
205) When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment
a) it is applied wet and flushed out
b) it is applied dry and left
c) it is added to the fuel and burnt
c) it is added to the fuel and burnt
206) Microbial growth is
a) brown black slime
b) red dots
c) green sludge
a) brown black slime
207) Vibration monitoring signals are sent
a) direct to the gauge
b) via a ½ wave rectifier to the gauge
c) via a signal conditioner to the gauge
c) via a signal conditioner to the gauge
208) The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is from
a) ambient and minus
b) zero and minus
c) zero and positive
a) ambient and minus
209) Solid burning oxygen units have a burn time of
a) 15 min
b) 30 min
c) 45 min
a) 15 min
210) A direct reading bordon gauge has a restriction in the inlet, this is to
a) prevent FOD ingestion
b) dampen sudden pressure changes
c) allow for calibration
b) dampen sudden pressure changes
211) Windshield heating provides
a) impact resistance enhancement
b) increases strength to resist cabin pressure
c) thermal expansion for a tighter fit
a) impact resistance enhancement
212) CAT 2 RVR limit is
a) 800m
b) 400m
c) 200m
b) 400m
213) When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps
a) the whole system
b) just the moisture trap
c) the system between compressor and regulator valve
b) just the moisture trap
214) The pneumatic system pump is
a) rotor vane
b) piston
c) centrifugal
b) piston
215) A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will
a) wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced
b) be ok, and provide better grip
c) produce loss of fluid
a) wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced
216) At what press and temp is anti ice fluid applied?
a) 70 deg F at 100 psi
b) 7 deg F at 100 psi
c) 70 deg at 10 psi
a) 70 deg F at 100 psi
217) In a semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by
a) stringers
b) frames
c) bulkheads
b) frames
218) Wing bending and shear loads are taken by
a) spar cap
b) main spar
c) skin
b) main spar
219) The dilutor demand regulator functions
a) when the user breathes in
b) all the time
c) only when the supply valve is opened by the user
a) when the user breathes in
220) A maintainer valve in an hydraulic system will
a) allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply
b) dampen pressure inputs
c) maintain a high pressure to all systems
a) allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply
221) In a pneumatic system the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to
a) essential equipment
b) non-essential equipment
c) all equipment
b) non-essential equipment
222) A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is
a) 500ft per min
b) 300ft per min
c) 100ft per min
a) 500ft per min
223) The hot junction of a thermocouple is
a) in the instrument
b) in the combustion chamber
c) aft of the combustion chamber
c) aft of the combustion chamber
224) With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will
a) lower
b) rise
c) not be affected
b) rise
225) Before carrying out a ground pressure check
a) check all pitot and static lines are fitted
b) turn on all instruments
c) set altimeter to QNH
a) check all pitot and static lines are fitted
226) The electrical connector to a remote aircraft component must be
a) .5in wide
b) 0.25in wide and 22 AWG
c) 22 AWG
a) .5in wide
227) To measure moisture in an oxygen system use
a) a glass plate
b) litmus paper
c) a hygrometer using the dew point method
c) a hygrometer using the dew point method
228) Most large transport aircraft skins are
a) 2024
b) 7075
c) 5056
a) 2024
229) Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?
a) In the pressure line
b) In the suction line
c) In the case drain
c) In the case drain
230) How much oxygen is allowed in a tyre?
a) 5% by volume
b) 15% by volume
c) 5% by pressure
a) 5% by volume
231) A tyre specification 32 x 10.75 – 14. What does the 10.75 refer to?
a) Bead diameter
b) Section width
c) Overall diameter
b) Section width
232) What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?
a) Increase in pressure
b) Increase in temperature
c) Fluid loss
b) Increase in temperature
233) What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?
a) Increase viscosity
b) Increase acidity
c) Increase alkalinity
b) Increase acidity
234) When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?
a) The leg is serviceable – the separator has bottomed
b) Leaking air/oil seals
c) Separator plate stuck open
a) The leg is serviceable – the separator has bottomed
235) When does auto trim operate at lower speed?
a) When flaps down
b) When gear down
c) When flaps up
c) When flaps up
236) What force is an I-beam subjected to?
a) Bending
b) Tension
c) Shear
a) Bending
237) How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?
a) Energised open
b) Energised closed for fail-safe
c) Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection
b) Energised closed for fail-safe
238) How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?
a) Via tray
b) Vent reservoir to atmosphere
c) By pressurising
c) By pressurising
239) When a ni-cad battery is fully charged
a) the electrolyte level stays the same
b) the electrolyte level is higher level than normal
c) the electrolyte level is lower than normal
b) the electrolyte level is higher level than normal
240) How many programs can a FMC store?
a) One current
b) Two. One active and one standby
c) Two. Both active
b) Two. One active and one standby
241) EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at
a) cruise
b) take off
c) approach
b) take off
242) How does an IRS calculate velocity?
a) Integration of accelerometers
b) Double integration of accelerometers
c) Differential of laser gyro
a) Integration of accelerometers
243) What is the arc of a landing light?
a) 11 degrees
b) 15 degrees
c) 20 degrees
a) 11 degrees
244) In an auto pilot what controls pitch mode?
a) Glideslope
b) VOR
c) Localiser
a) Glideslope
245) Glideslope controls auto pilot in
a) pitch
b) yaw
c) roll
a) pitch
246) Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at
a) low current levels
b) high voltage levels
c) all voltage levels
a) low current levels
247) Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by
a) a GCU
b) a BPCU
c) an IRS
b) a BPCU
248) When a rad.alt. Reaches 2500ft what happens to the display?
a) rad.alt. out of view
b) rad.alt. flag in view
c) error warning in view
a) rad.alt. out of view
249) A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by
a) Bonding strips
b) Special conductive grease
c) Conductive paint
c) Conductive paint
250) An aspect ratio of 8 would mean
a) span 64, mean chord 8
b) mean chord 64, span 8
c) span squared 64, chord 8
a) span 64, mean chord 8
251) Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?
a) PLI washers can be used more than once, providing they are used in critical bolted joints
b) PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication
c) PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once
c) PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once
252) Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of
a) frame stations, water lines and buttock lines
b) frames stations, vertical lines and lateral lines
c) longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines
a) frame stations, water lines and buttock lines
253) Windscreen delamination is
a) windscreen peeling away from the airframe
b) bubbling of glass due to overheat
c) separation of the glass from the vinyl layer
c) separation of the glass from the vinyl layer
254) What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?
a) 50 degrees F to 70 degrees F
b) 30 degrees C to 50 degrees C
c) 50 degrees C to 70 degrees C
a) 50 degrees F to 70 degrees F
255) What is the maximum temperature of warm water, which is used to clean dirty aircraft acrylic panels?
a) 104 degrees F
b) 40 degrees F
c) 125 degrees F
a) 104 degrees F
256) Pitot tubes are heated
a) electrically
b) by compressed bleed air
c) by kinetic heating
b) by compressed bleed air
257) Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems
a) provide additional fluid if leaks occur
b) are only ever used in an emergency
c) store fluid under pressure
c) store fluid under pressure
258) A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of
a) Butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon
b) natural rubber
c) synthetic rubber
a) Butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon
259) Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in
a) acidity
b) alkalinity
c) viscosity
a) acidity
260) The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is
a) aerodynamic shape is not disturbed
b) more efficient
c) less of a fire hazard
a) aerodynamic shape is not disturbed
261) The type of fluid used in an oleo strut will depend upon
a) type of fluid most readily available
b) the type of seal material
c) heat generated in operation of the system
c) heat generated in operation of the system
262) A restrictor valve
a) may be used to slow down undercarriage extension
b) restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage
c) speed up the flow in one direction
a) may be used to slow down undercarriage extension
263) The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to
a) damp the rebound
b) absorb the landing shock
c) ensure the separator does not bottom
b) absorb the landing shock
264) The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to
a) separate the oil from the air
b) restrict the compression of the air
c) permit free flow during compression and restriction of oil during compression
c) permit free flow during compression and restriction of oil during compression
265) Oxygen cylinder test dates
a) are painted in white on the cylinder
b) may be stamped on the neck of the cylinder
c) are variable depending on discharge
b) may be stamped on the neck of the cylinder
266) Fluorescent tubes are made up of
a) phosphates, rare gases and mercury
b) oxides, rare gases and mercury
c) ionides, rare gases and mercury
a) phosphates, rare gases and mercury
267) A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its secondary. What is the current drawn?
a) 3A
b) 1.2A
c) 0.3A
b) 1.2A
268) What is B-RNAV?
a) Ability to store 6 waypoints
b) Indicates true airspeed
c) Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint
c) Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint
269) An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters
a) DME,ILS,ADF
b) VOR,ILS
c) RA,ADF,ILS
b) VOR,ILS
270) After engine start using a Nicad battery, the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator, an initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current
a) there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines
b) the battery is faulty
c) no cause for concern
c) no cause for concern
271) Topping up a Nicad battery in situ
a) is not allowed
b) is only allowed in the shop
c) is permitted
a) is not allowed
272) What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?
a) Frames
b) Stringers
c) Bulkheads
b) Stringers
273) The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is
a) 11 degrees
b) 110 degrees
c) 140 degrees
c) 140 degrees
274) What is the wavelength of C band radar?
a) 3cm
b) 4m
c) 7cm
c) 7cm
275) O2 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable cause?
a) Supernumarator regular
b) Temperature compensator
c) Breathing regulator
c) Breathing regulator
276) Made up wheels should be stored
a) vertical at 20/30 PSI charge
b) horizontal no more than 4 high
c) vertical at working pressure
a) vertical at 20/30 PSI charge
277) High pressure pneumatic source is a
a) reciprocating pump
b) centrifugal compressor
c) butterfly pump
a) reciprocating pump
278) High pressure pneumatic pump is a
a) spur gear
b) butterfly pump
c) reciprocating pump
c) reciprocating pump
279) Before an aircraft reaches critical mach
a) the nose pitches up because the CP moves forward
b) the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
c) the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave
b) the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
280) A cantilever wing is
a) top wing of a biplane
b) normal airliner wing
c) swept back wing
b) normal airliner wing
281) A horn balance control will
a) increase degree of movement at high speed
b) decrease degree of movement at low speed
c) decrease degree of movement at high speed
a) increase degree of movement at high speed
282) The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is
a) above ambient pressure
b) below ambient pressure
c) above zero pressure
c) above zero pressure
283) In normal flight if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will
a) move up
b) move down
c) remain in line with the elevator
b) move down
284) In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the right wing will
a) increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing
b) decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing
c) keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant
a) increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing