Module 1 Flashcards
(170 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is a trace element in living things?
A
Chromium
2
Q
An atom’s valence electron shell
A
determines its chemical reactivity
3
Q
A covalent bond occurs when
A
electrons are shared between two atoms to complete their valence shells
4
Q
When a sodium atom transfers an electron to a chlorine atom
A
the ions will separate in the presence of water.
5
Q
The figure below is depicting the interaction of water molecules with one another. The weak attractions between water molecules are known as
A
hydrogen bonds
A space-filling model shows formation of different bonds between neighboring red and grey atoms of 5 adjacent molecules.
6
Q
A(n) ________Blank can be defined as a substance that keeps pH within established limits by taking up excess H+ or OH- in a solution.
A
buffer
7
Q
All atoms of the same element have the same
A
atomic number
8
Q
An ionic bond forms when
A
a positively charged ion is attracted to a negatively charged ion.
9
Q
When a positively charged hydrogen in a water molecule become attracted to the negatively charged oxygen in a nearby water molecule, this is referred to as a(n)
A
hydrogen bond
10
Q
The subatomic particles that are found within the nucleus of an atom are the
A
neutrons and protons
11
Q
Hydrolysis of maltose, a disaccharide, results in
A
two monosaccharides.
12
Q
A triglyceride is formed when three fatty acids join a glycerol by
A
dehydration synthesis reactions.
13
Q
Which of the following correctly lists the parts of a nucleotide of RNA?
A
nitrogen-containing base, ribose, phosphate
14
Q
A
15
Q
A saturated fat has
* one bond
* two bonds
* no double bonds
A
no double bonds
16
Q
Which of the following is in correct order from largest to smallest?
A
polypeptide - dipeptide - amino acid
17
Q
Select the incorrect association:
1. glucose - monosaccharide
2. cellulose - building block for cell walls in plants
3. sucrose - polysaccharide
4. lactose - a disaccharide
5. starch - a long chain of glucose molecules
A
sucrose - polysaccharide
18
Q
The polymer shown below is comprised of what kind of subunits:
* G-C
* T-A
* C-G
* A-T
Think about the double stand helix
A
nucleotides
19
Q
Which of the following is an organic molecule?
A
C5H10O5
20
Q
Starch is a ________Blank made of many ________Blank.
A
polymer; glucose molecules
21
Q
The four main categories of organic macromolecules are
A
carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
22
Q
Which of the following is a correct match?
* ribosomes – protein synthesis
* Golgi apparatus - production of cellular ATP
* mitochondria - protein alteration and packaging
* lysosomes – lipid synthesis
* smooth endoplasmic reticulum - storage of water
A
ribosomes – protein synthesis
23
Q
Which organelle modifies the contents within vesicles and then repackages them for export?
1. * smooth ER
1. rough ER
1. Golgi apparatus
1. ribosomes
1. 1. plasma membrane
A
Golgi apparatus
24
Q
Both plants and animals need mitochondria to
A
produce ATP
25
Without gap junctions in certain tissues;
* cells would not be able to communicate with each other.
* fluids may leak out past the barrier the junction would create.
* the tissues would not be able to expand and stretch without damage.
* nutrients would not be able to be passed from cell to cell.
* cells would not be able to migrate during their development.
cells would not be able to communicate with each other.
26
Which of the following structures would NOT be found in a prokaryotic cell?
* cell membrane
* nucleus
* ribosomes
* flagella
* chromosomes
NUCLEUS
27
What must materials pass through to enter or leave a cell?
Plasma membrane
28
What function does the nucleolus have?
synthesizes ribosomal RNA
29
Which of the following is involved in the breakdown of damaged organelles?
* smooth endoplasmic reticulum
* lysosome
* ribosome
* rough endoplasmic reticulum
* centrosome
Lysosome
30
Which of the following statements describes the function of a chloroplast?
It converts light energy into chemical energy.
31
Both the nuclear membrane and the plasma membrane are composed of
phospholipids
32
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
* G1 phase - DNA replication
* G2 phase – cytoplasm divides
* S phase - DNA replication
* M phase - cell growth
* G0 phase – chromosomes line up at the spindle equator
s-phase - DNA replication
33
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the events of the cell cycle?
* DNA is duplicated during the G1 and G2 phases.
* DNA replicates during cytokinesis.
* The M phase is usually the longest phase of the cell cycle.
* Interphase consists of G1, S, and G2.
* The cell enters a non-dividing state in the G2 phase.
Interphase consists of G1, S, and G2.
34
Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?
* prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
* interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
* anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
* prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
* metaphase, interphase, cytokinesis, anaphase, telophase
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
35
During which phase of mitosis are the sister chromatids separated and consequently become daughter chromosomes?
* anaphase
* interphase
* metaphase
* prophase
* telophase
anaphase
36
Apoptosis?
can be used to remove damaged or malfunctioning cells.
37
Cancer occurs when
the regulation of the cell cycle is lost and uncontrolled cell division occurs.
38
Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because
plant cells need to build a cell wall, while animal cells do not.
39
What structure is formed by two sister chromatids being held together by a centromere?
duplicated chromosomes
40
Which of the following is mismatched?
* interphase - longest stage of the cell cycle
* S stage - DNA synthesis
* M stage - mitosis and cytokinesis
* G1 stage - cell grows in size and cell organelles increase in number
* G2 stage – mitosis begins
G2 stage – mitosis begins
41
Which lifestyle choice is responsible for 90% of the cases of lung cancer among men?
smoking
42
Which of the following statements is correct?
* Meiosis involves two divisions and produces four nonidentical gametes.
* Meiosis involves one division and produces two nonidentical gametes.
* Mitosis involves one division and produces two nonidentical gametes.
* Mitosis involves two divisions and produces four identical gametes.
* Meiosis involves two divisions and produces two identical gametes.
Meiosis involves two divisions and produces four nonidentical gametes.
43
One major difference between meiosis I and meiosis II is that...
crossing-over occurs in prophase of meiosis I but not in prophase of meiosis II.
44
Which of the following processes does not contribute to creating genetic variability in the offspring?
* meisois
* mitosis
* anaphase
* prophase
mitosis
45
A homologous pair is composed of
two chromosomes with two sister chromatids each.
46
During crossing-over...
* genetic material is exchanged between sister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
* genetic material is exchanged between nonsister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
* sister chromatids from each homologous chromosome of a tetrad are exchanged, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
* nonsister chromatids from each homologous chromosome of a tetrad are exchanged, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
* one homologous chromosome of a tetrad is exchanged with another tetrad, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
genetic material is exchanged between nonsister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
47
In the human life cycle...
* meiosis produces haploid gametes, and fertilization creates a diploid cell that divides by mitosis to produce a new individual.
* mitosis produces haploid gametes, and fertilization creates a diploid cell that divides by meiosis to produce a new individual.
* diploid gametes are produced by meiosis, and fertilization produces haploid daughter cells that divide by mitosis to produce a new individual.
* diploid gametes are produced by mitosis, and fertilization results in tetraploid daughter cells that divide by meiosis to produce a new individual.
* a haploid zygote is produced by meiosis and fertilization results in a diploid daughter cells that divide by mitosis to produce a new individual.
meiosis produces haploid gametes, and fertilization creates a diploid cell that divides by mitosis to produce a new individual.
48
The failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis is called
nondisjunction
49
Which of the following is a function only of mitosis?
* organismal growth
* creating genetic variability
* reducing the chromosome number in gametes
* keeping the chromosome number constant from one generation to the next
* producing gametes
organismal growth
50
Which of the following human syndromes is a monosomy?
* Turner syndrome
* Klinefelter syndrome
* Down syndrome
* Swyer syndrome
* Barr body syndrome
Turner syndrome
51
The human life cycle consists of
adults who are diploid and produce haploid gametes; these gametes fuse to produce a diploid zygote which grows into an adult.
52
Skin color is coded for by several different genes which results in a range of skin colors from very dark to very light. This is an example of?
polygenic inheritance
53
The information in a Punnett square represents
all possible combinations of gametes based on a cross between two parents
54
Determine if the following statement is true or false. Parents with the dominant phenotype cannot have offspring with the recessive phenotype.
False, because both parents could be heterozygous.
55
Alleles are
alternate versions of the same gene.
56
Which of the following is an example of a phenotype?
* AAGg
* freckles
* AA
* Ag
* Gg
freckles
57
Which of the following is mismatched?
* physical expression of a trait - phenotype
* allele that masks expression of alternate allele - dominant
* identical alleles - heterozygous
* allele whose expression can be masked by an alternate allele - recessive
* the specific alleles that an individual has - genotype
identical alleles - heterozygous
58
During meiosis, each pair of alleles on the homologous chromosomes sorts independently from all other pairs of alleles. This statement corresponds to
the law of independent assortment
59
A cow with black and white patches is produced from a white bull and a black cow. This is an example of
codominance
60
A heterozygote trait exhibiting incomplete dominance will
express an intermediate phenotype.
61
A woman with type AB blood marries a man who is heterozygous for type B blood. If they have children, what are all the possible blood types for the children?
* AB only
* AB, AA, AO, and BO
* AB, BB, AO, and BO
* BB only
* AA, BB, and AB
AB, BB, AO, and BO
62
According to Chargaff's data, ________Blank must pair with ________Blank, and ________Blank must pair with ________.
A; T; C; G
63
Which of the following enzyme is needed to reseal breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone during replication?
* DNA polymerase
* RNA polymerase
* topoisomerase
* helicase
* DNA ligase
DNA ligase
64
DNA replication is called semiconservative because
each resulting DNA molecules is comprised of one new DNA strand and one old strand.
65
RNA differs from DNA because RNA
is single-stranded, whereas DNA is double-stranded.
66
Which base is found in DNA, but not in RNA?
thymine
67
The sequence of the mRNA that would result from transcribing a segment of a DNA template strand with the bases AATAGCGTA would be
* AUGCGAUUA.
* AUUAGCGUA.
* UACGCUAAU.
* UUAUCGCAU.Correct
* ATGCGATTA.
UUAUCGCAU
68
What is the hereditary material found in all cells?
* DNA
* rRNA
* mRNA
* tRNA
* ATP
DNA
69
During transcription
* DNA is transcribed into amino acids.
* RNA is transcribed into amino acids.
* DNA is transcribed into mRNA.Correct
* mRNA is transcribed into tRNA.
* rRNA is transcribed into tRNA.
DNA is transcribed into mRNA
70
There are three steps that are required for DNA replication. The first step, unwinding, is accomplished by the enzyme
* helicase.
* DNA polymerase.
* RNA polymerase.
* DNA ligase.
* topoisomerase.
helicase
71
If an organism's DNA contains 28% adenine nucleotides and 22% guanine nucleotides, what percentage of its DNA is composed of cytosine nucleotides?
Multiple Choice
* 28%
* 22%
* 56%
* 44%
* 11%
22%
72
Darwin's primary mission on the HMS Beagle was to
Multiple Choice
* develop the theory of evolution.
* observe natural selection in action.
* gather data on geologic processes from around the world.
* make contact with as many indigenous populations as possible.
* to act as the ship's naturalist.
to act as the ship's naturalist
73
Darwin’s ideas on evolution by natural selection included ideas that were not generally accepted by scientists or society at that time. One such idea was that
Multiple Choice
* catastrophism occurs at a uniform rate.
* the inheritance of acquired characteristics is true.
* the Earth is very old.Correct
uniformitarianism is false.
* the diversity of life on Earth has not changed since the time it was divinely created.
the Earth is very old
74
A finch population with heritable variation in beak size arrives on an island where only large seeds are available as a food source. Describe the process of natural selection that would follow.
Multiple Choice
* Finches with smaller beaks would grow larger beaks so that they could eat the large seeds. All birds will reproduce and the frequency of large beaks within the population will increase.
* Finches with larger beaks will more easily eat the large seeds and are thus more likely to survive and produce offspring with similarly large beaks. The frequency of large beaks within the population will increase.Correct
* All the finches with small and medium beaks will soon die; all of the finches with large beaks will survive. The frequency of large beaks within the population will increase.
* Finches with smaller beaks would grow larger beaks so that they could eat the large seeds. Only these birds that grew larger beaks will reproduce and the frequency of large beaks within the population will increase.
* Finches with larger beaks will more easily eat the large seeds and not need to reproduce.
Finches with larger beaks will more easily eat the large seeds and are thus more likely to survive and produce offspring with similarly large beaks. The frequency of large beaks within the population will increase.
75
Natural selection results in
Multiple Choice
* increased genetic variation.
* a decreased population size.
* an increase in population size.
* offspring that are better adapted to their current environment.Correct
* offspring that are better adapted to a future environment.
offspring that are better adapted to their current environment.
76
The theory of evolution is
Multiple Choice
* supported by multiple sources of evidence described by many different researchers, and by a variety of fields of study.
* supported by only one source of evidence described by Charles Darwin.
* supported by multiple sources of evidence described only by Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace.
* only a hypothesis that has yet to be substantiated.
* supported by many different researchers, but only in one field of study.
supported by multiple sources of evidence described by many different researchers, and by a variety of fields of study.
77
The sugar glider in Australia and the flying squirrel in North America are both small mammals with large expanses of loose skin between their forelimbs and hindlimbs, allowing them to glide from tree to tree within their respective forest habitats. These two species are not evolutionarily related but are very similar in their overall appearance. Darwin's explanation for their similarity is that
Multiple Choice
* both are descendants from a recent common ancestor.
* each have adapted in very similar ways to similar habitats.Correct
* the similarity of the two unrelated species is simply coincidence.
* the two species were created to have similarities.
* the two species must be related to possess such like qualities.
each have adapted in very similar ways to similar habitats.
78
Tortoises in the Galápagos possessed neck lengths unique to each island. Neck lengths appear to be an adaptation to which selective agent?
Multiple Choice
* ease in finding pools of drinking water
* type of vegetation available to eat
* reproductive barriers used to produce offspring
* defense against predators
* male competition for females
*
type of vegetation available to eat
79
In the context of natural selection, fitness refers to
Multiple Choice
* the variation in traits within the population.
* reproductive success.Correct
* mutations that benefit an organism's survival.
* the physical health of an individual.
* the physical health of a population.
reproductive success
80
________Blank structures are evidence of common ancestry, while ________Blank structures serve a similar function but are not constructed similarly, and therefore could not have a common ancestry.
Multiple Choice
* Homologous; analogousCorrect
* Analogous; homologous
* Vestigial; homologous
* Vestigial; analogous
* Homologous; vestigial
Homologous; analogous
81
The wing of a penguin and the wing of an eagle are
Multiple Choice
* homologous structures.
* analogous structures.
* identical structures.
* vestigial structures.
* not comparable in any way.
homologous structures
82
In regards to natural selection, which of the following individuals would be considered the most fit?
Multiple Choice
* the individual that has the longest canine teeth
* the individual that has the greatest number of breeding opportunities
* the individual that has the best camouflage to avoid predators
* the individual that controls the largest territory
* the individual that has the greatest number of offspring
the individual that has the greatest number of offspring
83
All of the following generate genetic variation within a population except
Multiple Choice
* genetic recombination.
* independent assortment of alleles.
* meiosis.
* mutation.
* mitosis
mitosis
84
Which of the following is an inaccurate statement regarding the requirements for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
Multiple Choice
* There can be no mutations.
* Natural selection must occur.
* Mating must be random.
* There can be no genetic.
* There must be no gene glow.
natural selection must occur
85
Which of the following could increase genetic variation?
Multiple Choice
* natural selection
* genetic drift
* bottleneck effect
* founder effect
* mutation
mutation
86
If the average tail size of a reptile continually got smaller through generations, this would be an example of
Multiple Choice
* disruptive selection.
* stabilizing selection.
* directional selection.
* genetic drift.
* bottleneck effect.
directional selection
87
Which of the following is most likely to result in the formation of two distinct species?
Multiple Choice
* directional selection
* stabilizing selection
* disruptive selection
* genetic drift
* bottleneck effect
disruptive selection
88
Analyze the accuracy of the following statement: Dominant alleles are always the most common.
Multiple Choice
* This a true statement because for every gene with two alleles, the dominant allele is always the most common,
* This is a false statement because for some genes with two alleles, the recessive allele is more common.Correct
* This is a true statement only for genes that have disease-causing alleles.
* This is a false statement because for genes that have disease-causing alleles, the recessive allele is always more common.
This is a false statement because for some genes with two alleles, the recessive allele is more common.
89
The increase in frequency of dark phenotypes in response to increased pollution is called
Multiple Choice
* genetic drift.
* founder effect.
* industrial melanism.
* assortative mating.
* stabilizing selection.
industrial melanism
90
A female bird-of-paradise chooses a mate based on his showy plumage and courtship dance. This is an example of
Multiple Choice
* random mating.
* assortative mating.
* sexual selection
* gene flow.
* natural selection.
sexual selection
91
Microevolution is the term that applies to which of the following?
Multiple Choice
* evolution at any scale
* large-scale speciation events that over a long period of time
* small-scale allelic changes over a long period of time
* small-scale allelic changes over a short period of time
* changes of any scale within prokaryotes
small-scale allelic changes over a short period of time
92
Which of the three domains contain(s) prokaryotic organisms?
Multiple Choice
* Bacteria
* Archaea
* Eukarya
* Bacteria and Archaea
* Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
Bacteria and Archaea
93
Two species are said to be closely related if they
Multiple Choice
* possess a common ancestor.
* can interbreed but not produce fertile offspring.
* are reproductively isolated from each other.
* have a shared gene pool.
* can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
posses a common ancester
94
Elaborate courtship behavior in animals, such as with the blue-footed boobies of the Galápagos Islands, is an example of which of the following reproductive barriers?
Multiple Choice
* behavioral isolation
* mechanical isolation
* temporal isolation
* postzygotic isolation
* hybrid sterility
behavioral isolation
95
A reproductive barrier that prevents interbreeding because the two species mate during different times of the year is called
Multiple Choice
* hybrid sterility isolation.
* gamete isolation.
* F2 fitness isolation.
* temporal isolation.
* behavioral isolation.
temporal isolation
96
The pollen, or sperm, from a red maple tree is unable to fertilize the eggs from a sugar maple tree. This is an example of what type of isolating mechanism?
Multiple Choice
* mechanical isolation
* habitat isolation
* temporal isolation
* hybrid sterility
* gamete isolation
gamete isolation
97
A major difference between allopatric and sympatric speciation is whether
Multiple Choice
* the resulting species are reproductively isolated or not.
* gene flow continues to occur or not.
two or three species result.
* geographic isolation is required or not.
* the new species are separated by a prezygotic or postzygotic isolating mechanism.
geographic isolation is required or not
98
Which of the following is an example of sympatric speciation?
Multiple Choice
* two populations of salamanders that live on isolated islands and eventually become separate species, unable to interbreed
* different breeds of dogs that live in different areas of the world but are able to produce fertile offspring
* a horse and a donkey that may interbreed to produce a mule that is sterile and unable to reproduce
* two related plant species living in the same area hybridize, then undergo chromosome doubling, which results in the creation of a third species of plant that is unable to reproduce with either of the two original species
* three species that evolve from a common ancestral species due to reproductive isolation and adaptation to different habitats
two related plant species living in the same area hybridize, then undergo chromosome doubling, which results in the creation of a third species of plant that is unable to reproduce with either of the two original species
99
Which of the following is thought to have contributed to the many mass extinction events that have occurred throughout Earth's history?
Check All That Apply
* plate tectonicsplate tectonics
* habitat losshabitat loss
* meteorite impactsmeteorite impacts
* continental driftcontinental drift
* the evolution of photosynthesis
* plate tectonicsplate tectonics
* habitat losshabitat loss
* meteorite impactsmeteorite impacts
* continental drift
100
A phylogenetic tree
Multiple Choice
* indicates common ancestors.
* is based entirely on DNA evidence.
* uses analogous characteristics to determine relationships.
* indicates the geologic time scale for the evolution of a particular species.
* are no longer used in science.
indicates common ancestors
101
Antibiotics would be effective against
Multiple Choice
* wheat rust.
* ringworm.
* athlete's foot.
* oral thrush.
* strep throat.
strep throat
102
The closest living relatives of land plants are
Multiple Choice
* charophytes
* chytrids.
* sporozoans.
* cyanobacteria.
* lichens.
charophytes
103
Which structure is a characteristic found only in angiosperms?
Multiple Choice
* vascular tissue
* seed
* leaf
* flower
* megaphyll
flower
104
By definition, a fruit is derived from the
Multiple Choice
* archegonium.
* corolla.
* calyx.
* ovary.
* stamen.
ovary
105
The fermentation capabilities of ________ are used to produce bread and alcoholic beverages.
Multiple Choice
* yeasts
* chytrids
* lichens
* mycorrhizal fungi
* molds
yeasts
106
In black bread mold, spores are produced in structures called
Multiple Choice
* clublike structures of the gills.
* sporangia.
* carpels.
* sori.
* mycorrhizae.
sporangia
107
________ tissue conducts water and minerals from a plant's roots to its leaves.
Multiple Choice
* Cuticle
* Transport
* Dermal
* VascularCorrect
*
vascular
108
If you are studying a eukaryotic, multicellular, non-photosynthetic organism, what piece of information would be most useful in determining if it is a fungus or an animal?
Multiple Choice
* It is motile.
* It has cell walls.
* It ingests or absorbs its food.
* It has specialized tissues and organs.
* It was found in a forest.
it has cell walls
109
Pollen grains are
Multiple Choice
* female gametophytes.
* embryonic sporophytes.
* male gametophytes.
* megaspores.
* encapsulated ovules.
male gametophytes
110
Conifers such as pine trees are classified as
Multiple Choice
* angiosperms.
* lycophytes.
* bryophytes.
* charophytes.
* gymnosperms.
gymnosperms
111
Which of these statements about the evolutionary tree of animals is incorrect?
Multiple Choice
* All animals have true tissues.
* All animals are multicellular.
* Humans are more closely related to sea stars than to insects.
* Radial symmetry preceded bilateral symmetry in animal evolution.
* Some animals have no germ layers, while others have two or three germ layers.
All animals have true tissues
112
A(n) _____Blank is an individual animal that possesses both male and female sex organs.
Multiple Choice
* cephalopod
* acoelomate
* deuterostome
* larva
* hermaphrodite
hermaphrodite
113
In protostome development,
Multiple Choice
* the blastopore becomes the anus.
* the coelom forms outpockets from the mesoderm layer of the gut.
* there is no coelom.
* the mouth forms from the second embryonic opening, not from the blastopore.
* the blastopore becomes the mouth.
the blastopore becomes the mouth
114
The mantle, foot, and visceral mass are all parts of a(n)
Multiple Choice
* annelid.
* mollusc.
* planarian.
* tunicate.
* arthropod.
mollusc
115
Which of these is a bivalve?
Multiple Choice
* clam
* octopus
* snail
* squid
* conch
clam
116
Which of these is a cephalopod?
Multiple Choice
* nudibranch
* snail
* oyster
* squid
* mussel
squid
117
Which of these worms are segmented?
Multiple Choice
* annelids
* planarians
* roundworms
* flukes
* All worms are segmented.
annelids
118
Egg-laying mammals are known as
Multiple Choice
* marsupials.
* ectotherms.
* placental mammals.
* monotremes.
* prosimians.
monotremes
119
Which of these is a unique characteristic of mammals?
Multiple Choice
* hair
* four-chambered heart
* extraembryonic membranes
* endothermic
hair
120
In the replacement model of evolution, where did modern humans first evolve?
Multiple Choice
* Africa
* Asia
* Europe
* North America
* South America
Africa
121
In animals with four-chambered hearts, the left ventricle
Multiple Choice
* is larger as it pumps blood to the entire body.
* is larger as it pumps blood in the pulmonary circuit.
* pumps blood to the lungs.
* pumps blood to both the lungs and the body.
* pumps deoxygenated blood.
is larger as it pumps blood to the entire body.
122
Iron is required to
Multiple Choice
* stimulate the formation of lymph.
* form part of hemoglobin, which transports oxygen.
* prevent destruction of red blood cells.
* prevent plaque formation in arteries.
* form part of white blood cells.
form part of hemoglobin, which transports oxygen.
123
Which of the following collects all the venous blood from below the heart?
* Multiple Choice
* pulmonary artery
* renal vein
* hepatic portal vein
* aorta
* inferior vena cava
Inferior vena cava
124
You are a doctor and a patient comes to you for a check-up. He expresses that his father recently had a heart attack brought on by atherosclerosis. He wants to know what he should do to lower his risk of also having a heart attack. Which of the following statements might you make to him?
Multiple Choice
* Do not be concerned about your weight.
* Keep exercise to a minimum.
* Decrease the amount of fruits and vegetables in your diet.
* Decrease the amount of saturated fat and cholesterol in your diet.
* Smoking does not contribute to your risk.
Decrease the amount of saturated fat and cholesterol in your diet.
125
A neutrophil is a type of
Multiple Choice
* white blood cell
* red blood cell.
* platelet.
* erythrocyte.
* cardiac muscle cell.
white blood cell
126
A neutrophil
Multiple Choice
* fights disease.
* forms a plug in damaged blood vessels.
* carries oxygen in the blood.
* releases clotting factors which stimulate the formation of a blood clot.
* carries carbon dioxide in the blood.
fights disease
127
A lower-than-normal level of _____Blank can result in an increased clotting time.
Multiple Choice
* platelets
* basophils
* neutrophils
* erythrocytes
* lymphocytes
platelets
128
Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?
Multiple Choice
* transport substances
* defend the body against infection
* regulate body temperature
* form clots
* produce new red blood cells
produce new red blood cells
129
You are a doctor and an individual comes into your office. During the routine exam, you listen to the patient's heart sounds and notice that the first heart sound or "lub" is not as sharp or crisp as it should be. Your diagnosis of the patient's condition is
Multiple Choice
* atherosclerosis.
* a heart murmur.
* angina pectoris.
* thromboembolism.
* hypertension.
a heart murmur
130
Pulmonary arteries take
Multiple Choice
* O2-poor blood to the lungs.
* O2-rich blood to the lungs.
* O2-rich blood to the body.
* O2-poor blood to the right atrium.
* O2-poor blood to the body.
O2-poor blood to the lungs.
131
Which of these carry(ies) oxygen-poor blood?
Group of answer choices
cerebral arteries
pulmonary arteries
aorta
coronary arteries
pulmonary arteries
132
All of the following are primates EXCEPT _____.
Group of answer choices
gorillas
humans
kangaroos
lemurs
kangaroos
133
The tapeworm is a(n) ______.
Group of answer choices
tunicate
flatworm
chordate
annelid
flatworm
134
The tricuspid valve can also be called the _____.
Group of answer choices
aortic semi lunar valve
left atrioventricular valve
right atrioventricular valve
mitral valve
right atrioventricular valve
135
Which animals have a cylindrical body that is tapered at both ends?
Group of answer choices
Annelids
Platyhelminthes
Cnidarians
Roundworms
roundworms
136
Oxygen is mostly transported through the body by the _____.
Group of answer choices
WBCs
platelets
RBCs
albumin
RBC'S
137
When a blood vessel is damaged, what allows the bleeding to stop?
Group of answer choices
RBCs
albumin
WBCs
platelets
PLATELETS
138
Unique feature of vertebrates include the presence of a(n) ________.
Group of answer choices
endoskeleton
backbone
pharyngeal slit
notochord
backbone
139
Features unique to mammals include _____.
Group of answer choices
being endotherms
extended parental care of the young
having no egg-laying members
the presence of hair and mammary glands
the presence of hair and mammary glands
140
Sharks and rays are a type of ________.
Group of answer choices
cartilaginous fish
jawless fish
tunicate
bony fish
cartilaginous fish
141
Which of these fishes migrated out of freshwater and adapted to life on land?
Group of answer choices
ray finned fish
jawless fish
lobe finned fish
cartilaginous fish
love finned fish
142
What does the term "tetrapod" mean?
Group of answer choices
double life
4 feet
having a pouch
eye laying
4 legged
143
A characteristic that is shared by snakes and birds is _______
Group of answer choices
they lay eggs
being ectothermic
being endothermic
the presence of only a single ovary in females
they lay eggs
144
Which of these chordates is not a vertebrate?
Group of answer choices
bird
echinoderm
shark
lancelet
lancelet
145
The leech is a(n) _____.
Group of answer choices
annelid
flatworm
tunicate
chordate
annelid
146
The platypus is a(n) _____.
Group of answer choices
bird
monotreme
marsupial
eutherian
monotreme
147
Where did humans first appear?
Group of answer choices
Europe
Asia
South America
Africa
Africa
148
All of the following are reptiles EXCEPT _____.
Group of answer choices
birds
lizards
crocodiles
salamanders
salamander
149
Nearly all ________ are aquatic
Group of answer choices
crustaceans
roundworms
arachnids
flatworms
crustaceans
150
Histamine is found in _____.
Group of answer choices
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
monocytes
basophilis
151
White blood cells help us _____.
Group of answer choices
assisting in blood clotting
carry carbon dioxide
defend against foreign invaders
by supporting the activity of the red blood cells
defend against foreign invaders
152
A bacterial infection would show an increase in _____.
Group of answer choices
monocytes
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
neutrophils
153
How do sponges differ from all other animals?
Group of answer choices
Sponges lack true issues
Sponges are autotrophs
Sponges exhibit radial symmetry
Sponges lack a true body cavity
lack true issues
154
A(n) _____ is an example of a mollusc that does not have a shell
Group of answer choices
mussel
octopus
snail
oyster
octopus
155
The valve located between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the ________.
Group of answer choices
aortic SL valve
pulmonary SL valve
mitral valve
tricuspid valve
mitral valve
156
The valve located between the right atrium and the right ventricle is the _______.
Group of answer choices
bicuspid valve
tricuspid valve
aortic SL valve
mitral valve
tricuspid valve
157
The octopus is a(n) ______.
Group of answer choices
arthropod
cephalopod
gastropod
bivale
cephalopod
158
All veins carry blood away from the heart.
Group of answer choices
True
False
false
159
________ are the most diverse and most numerous group of arthropods.
Group of answer choices
Millipedes
Insects
Arachnids
Crustaceans
insects
160
Which statement best describes arteries?
Group of answer choices
All carry blood away from the heart
All carry oxygenated blood
All are thinner than veins
All carry deoxygenated blood
all carry blood away from the heart
161
The pulmonary vein carries oxygen rich blood away from the heart.
Group of answer choices
True
False
false
162
Where does the right side of the heart pump blood to _____
Group of answer choices
lungs
kidney
skeletal muscles
liver
lungs
163
_______ are characterized by stinging cells used for defense and for capturing prey
Group of answer choices
Annelids
Sponges
Cnidarians
Roundworms
cnidarians
164
An infestation with parasitic worms would show an increase in _____.
Group of answer choices
basophils
monocytes
lymphocytes
eosinophils
eosinophils
165
Which are most closely related to humans?
Group of answer choices
chimpanezees
lemurs
orangutans
gorillas
chimpanezees
166
Which of these exhibits radial symmetry?
Group of answer choices
butterfly
shoe box
spoon
Ferris wheel
ferris wheel
167
The arthropod skeleton is composed of ________.
Group of answer choices
cellulose
glycogen
chitin
peptidoglycan
chitin
168
The sea slug is a(n) _____.
Group of answer choices
mollusc
flatworm
chordate
annelid
mollusc
169
170
All of the following are insects except _____.
Group of answer choices
beetles
centipedes
butterflies
praying mantis
centipedes
