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Anatomy Boot Camp > Module 1 > Flashcards

Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a trace element in living things?

A

Chromium

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2
Q

An atom’s valence electron shell

A

determines its chemical reactivity

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3
Q

A covalent bond occurs when

A

electrons are shared between two atoms to complete their valence shells

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4
Q

When a sodium atom transfers an electron to a chlorine atom

A

the ions will separate in the presence of water.

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5
Q

The figure below is depicting the interaction of water molecules with one another. The weak attractions between water molecules are known as

A

hydrogen bonds

A space-filling model shows formation of different bonds between neighboring red and grey atoms of 5 adjacent molecules.

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6
Q

A(n) ________Blank can be defined as a substance that keeps pH within established limits by taking up excess H+ or OH- in a solution.

A

buffer

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7
Q

All atoms of the same element have the same

A

atomic number

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8
Q

An ionic bond forms when

A

a positively charged ion is attracted to a negatively charged ion.

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9
Q

When a positively charged hydrogen in a water molecule become attracted to the negatively charged oxygen in a nearby water molecule, this is referred to as a(n)

A

hydrogen bond

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10
Q

The subatomic particles that are found within the nucleus of an atom are the

A

neutrons and protons

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11
Q

Hydrolysis of maltose, a disaccharide, results in

A

two monosaccharides.

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12
Q

A triglyceride is formed when three fatty acids join a glycerol by

A

dehydration synthesis reactions.

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13
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the parts of a nucleotide of RNA?

A

nitrogen-containing base, ribose, phosphate

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14
Q
A
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15
Q

A saturated fat has
* one bond
* two bonds
* no double bonds

A

no double bonds

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16
Q

Which of the following is in correct order from largest to smallest?

A

polypeptide - dipeptide - amino acid

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17
Q

Select the incorrect association:
1. glucose - monosaccharide
2. cellulose - building block for cell walls in plants
3. sucrose - polysaccharide
4. lactose - a disaccharide
5. starch - a long chain of glucose molecules

A

sucrose - polysaccharide

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18
Q

The polymer shown below is comprised of what kind of subunits:
* G-C
* T-A
* C-G
* A-T

Think about the double stand helix

A

nucleotides

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19
Q

Which of the following is an organic molecule?

A

C5H10O5

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20
Q

Starch is a ________Blank made of many ________Blank.

A

polymer; glucose molecules

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21
Q

The four main categories of organic macromolecules are

A

carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.

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22
Q

Which of the following is a correct match?
* ribosomes – protein synthesis
* Golgi apparatus - production of cellular ATP
* mitochondria - protein alteration and packaging
* lysosomes – lipid synthesis
* smooth endoplasmic reticulum - storage of water

A

ribosomes – protein synthesis

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23
Q

Which organelle modifies the contents within vesicles and then repackages them for export?
1. * smooth ER
1. rough ER
1. Golgi apparatus
1. ribosomes
1. 1. plasma membrane

A

Golgi apparatus

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24
Q

Both plants and animals need mitochondria to

A

produce ATP

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25
Q

Without gap junctions in certain tissues;
* cells would not be able to communicate with each other.
* fluids may leak out past the barrier the junction would create.
* the tissues would not be able to expand and stretch without damage.
* nutrients would not be able to be passed from cell to cell.
* cells would not be able to migrate during their development.

A

cells would not be able to communicate with each other.

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26
Q

Which of the following structures would NOT be found in a prokaryotic cell?
* cell membrane
* nucleus
* ribosomes
* flagella
* chromosomes

A

NUCLEUS

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27
Q

What must materials pass through to enter or leave a cell?

A

Plasma membrane

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28
Q

What function does the nucleolus have?

A

synthesizes ribosomal RNA

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29
Q

Which of the following is involved in the breakdown of damaged organelles?
* smooth endoplasmic reticulum
* lysosome
* ribosome
* rough endoplasmic reticulum
* centrosome

A

Lysosome

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30
Q

Which of the following statements describes the function of a chloroplast?

A

It converts light energy into chemical energy.

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31
Q

Both the nuclear membrane and the plasma membrane are composed of

A

phospholipids

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32
Q

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
* G1 phase - DNA replication
* G2 phase – cytoplasm divides
* S phase - DNA replication
* M phase - cell growth
* G0 phase – chromosomes line up at the spindle equator

A

s-phase - DNA replication

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33
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the events of the cell cycle?
* DNA is duplicated during the G1 and G2 phases.
* DNA replicates during cytokinesis.
* The M phase is usually the longest phase of the cell cycle.
* Interphase consists of G1, S, and G2.
* The cell enters a non-dividing state in the G2 phase.

A

Interphase consists of G1, S, and G2.

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34
Q

Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?
* prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
* interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
* anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
* prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
* metaphase, interphase, cytokinesis, anaphase, telophase

A

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

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35
Q

During which phase of mitosis are the sister chromatids separated and consequently become daughter chromosomes?
* anaphase
* interphase
* metaphase
* prophase
* telophase

A

anaphase

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36
Q

Apoptosis?

A

can be used to remove damaged or malfunctioning cells.

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37
Q

Cancer occurs when

A

the regulation of the cell cycle is lost and uncontrolled cell division occurs.

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38
Q

Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because

A

plant cells need to build a cell wall, while animal cells do not.

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39
Q

What structure is formed by two sister chromatids being held together by a centromere?

A

duplicated chromosomes

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40
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?
* interphase - longest stage of the cell cycle
* S stage - DNA synthesis
* M stage - mitosis and cytokinesis
* G1 stage - cell grows in size and cell organelles increase in number
* G2 stage – mitosis begins

A

G2 stage – mitosis begins

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41
Q

Which lifestyle choice is responsible for 90% of the cases of lung cancer among men?

A

smoking

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42
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
* Meiosis involves two divisions and produces four nonidentical gametes.
* Meiosis involves one division and produces two nonidentical gametes.
* Mitosis involves one division and produces two nonidentical gametes.
* Mitosis involves two divisions and produces four identical gametes.
* Meiosis involves two divisions and produces two identical gametes.

A

Meiosis involves two divisions and produces four nonidentical gametes.

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43
Q

One major difference between meiosis I and meiosis II is that…

A

crossing-over occurs in prophase of meiosis I but not in prophase of meiosis II.

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44
Q

Which of the following processes does not contribute to creating genetic variability in the offspring?
* meisois
* mitosis
* anaphase
* prophase

A

mitosis

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45
Q

A homologous pair is composed of

A

two chromosomes with two sister chromatids each.

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46
Q

During crossing-over…
* genetic material is exchanged between sister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
* genetic material is exchanged between nonsister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
* sister chromatids from each homologous chromosome of a tetrad are exchanged, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
* nonsister chromatids from each homologous chromosome of a tetrad are exchanged, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
* one homologous chromosome of a tetrad is exchanged with another tetrad, resulting in new combinations of alleles.

A

genetic material is exchanged between nonsister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles.

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47
Q

In the human life cycle…
* meiosis produces haploid gametes, and fertilization creates a diploid cell that divides by mitosis to produce a new individual.
* mitosis produces haploid gametes, and fertilization creates a diploid cell that divides by meiosis to produce a new individual.
* diploid gametes are produced by meiosis, and fertilization produces haploid daughter cells that divide by mitosis to produce a new individual.
* diploid gametes are produced by mitosis, and fertilization results in tetraploid daughter cells that divide by meiosis to produce a new individual.
* a haploid zygote is produced by meiosis and fertilization results in a diploid daughter cells that divide by mitosis to produce a new individual.

A

meiosis produces haploid gametes, and fertilization creates a diploid cell that divides by mitosis to produce a new individual.

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48
Q

The failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis is called

A

nondisjunction

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49
Q

Which of the following is a function only of mitosis?
* organismal growth
* creating genetic variability
* reducing the chromosome number in gametes
* keeping the chromosome number constant from one generation to the next
* producing gametes

A

organismal growth

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50
Q

Which of the following human syndromes is a monosomy?
* Turner syndrome
* Klinefelter syndrome
* Down syndrome
* Swyer syndrome
* Barr body syndrome

A

Turner syndrome

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51
Q

The human life cycle consists of

A

adults who are diploid and produce haploid gametes; these gametes fuse to produce a diploid zygote which grows into an adult.

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52
Q

Skin color is coded for by several different genes which results in a range of skin colors from very dark to very light. This is an example of?

A

polygenic inheritance

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53
Q

The information in a Punnett square represents

A

all possible combinations of gametes based on a cross between two parents

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54
Q

Determine if the following statement is true or false. Parents with the dominant phenotype cannot have offspring with the recessive phenotype.

A

False, because both parents could be heterozygous.

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55
Q

Alleles are

A

alternate versions of the same gene.

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56
Q

Which of the following is an example of a phenotype?
* AAGg
* freckles
* AA
* Ag
* Gg

A

freckles

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57
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?
* physical expression of a trait - phenotype
* allele that masks expression of alternate allele - dominant
* identical alleles - heterozygous
* allele whose expression can be masked by an alternate allele - recessive
* the specific alleles that an individual has - genotype

A

identical alleles - heterozygous

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58
Q

During meiosis, each pair of alleles on the homologous chromosomes sorts independently from all other pairs of alleles. This statement corresponds to

A

the law of independent assortment

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59
Q

A cow with black and white patches is produced from a white bull and a black cow. This is an example of

A

codominance

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60
Q

A heterozygote trait exhibiting incomplete dominance will

A

express an intermediate phenotype.

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61
Q

A woman with type AB blood marries a man who is heterozygous for type B blood. If they have children, what are all the possible blood types for the children?
* AB only
* AB, AA, AO, and BO
* AB, BB, AO, and BO
* BB only
* AA, BB, and AB

A

AB, BB, AO, and BO

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62
Q

According to Chargaff’s data, ________Blank must pair with ________Blank, and ________Blank must pair with ________.

A

A; T; C; G

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63
Q

Which of the following enzyme is needed to reseal breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone during replication?
* DNA polymerase
* RNA polymerase
* topoisomerase
* helicase
* DNA ligase

A

DNA ligase

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64
Q

DNA replication is called semiconservative because

A

each resulting DNA molecules is comprised of one new DNA strand and one old strand.

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65
Q

RNA differs from DNA because RNA

A

is single-stranded, whereas DNA is double-stranded.

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66
Q

Which base is found in DNA, but not in RNA?

A

thymine

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67
Q

The sequence of the mRNA that would result from transcribing a segment of a DNA template strand with the bases AATAGCGTA would be
* AUGCGAUUA.
* AUUAGCGUA.
* UACGCUAAU.
* UUAUCGCAU.Correct
* ATGCGATTA.

A

UUAUCGCAU

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68
Q

What is the hereditary material found in all cells?
* DNA
* rRNA
* mRNA
* tRNA
* ATP

A

DNA

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69
Q

During transcription
* DNA is transcribed into amino acids.
* RNA is transcribed into amino acids.
* DNA is transcribed into mRNA.Correct
* mRNA is transcribed into tRNA.
* rRNA is transcribed into tRNA.

A

DNA is transcribed into mRNA

70
Q

There are three steps that are required for DNA replication. The first step, unwinding, is accomplished by the enzyme

  • helicase.
  • DNA polymerase.
  • RNA polymerase.
  • DNA ligase.
  • topoisomerase.
A

helicase

71
Q

If an organism’s DNA contains 28% adenine nucleotides and 22% guanine nucleotides, what percentage of its DNA is composed of cytosine nucleotides?

Multiple Choice
* 28%
* 22%
* 56%
* 44%
* 11%

A

22%

72
Q

Darwin’s primary mission on the HMS Beagle was to

Multiple Choice
* develop the theory of evolution.
* observe natural selection in action.
* gather data on geologic processes from around the world.
* make contact with as many indigenous populations as possible.
* to act as the ship’s naturalist.

A

to act as the ship’s naturalist

73
Q

Darwin’s ideas on evolution by natural selection included ideas that were not generally accepted by scientists or society at that time. One such idea was that

Multiple Choice
* catastrophism occurs at a uniform rate.
* the inheritance of acquired characteristics is true.
* the Earth is very old.Correct
uniformitarianism is false.
* the diversity of life on Earth has not changed since the time it was divinely created.

A

the Earth is very old

74
Q

A finch population with heritable variation in beak size arrives on an island where only large seeds are available as a food source. Describe the process of natural selection that would follow.

Multiple Choice
* Finches with smaller beaks would grow larger beaks so that they could eat the large seeds. All birds will reproduce and the frequency of large beaks within the population will increase.
* Finches with larger beaks will more easily eat the large seeds and are thus more likely to survive and produce offspring with similarly large beaks. The frequency of large beaks within the population will increase.Correct
* All the finches with small and medium beaks will soon die; all of the finches with large beaks will survive. The frequency of large beaks within the population will increase.
* Finches with smaller beaks would grow larger beaks so that they could eat the large seeds. Only these birds that grew larger beaks will reproduce and the frequency of large beaks within the population will increase.
* Finches with larger beaks will more easily eat the large seeds and not need to reproduce.

A

Finches with larger beaks will more easily eat the large seeds and are thus more likely to survive and produce offspring with similarly large beaks. The frequency of large beaks within the population will increase.

75
Q

Natural selection results in

Multiple Choice
* increased genetic variation.
* a decreased population size.
* an increase in population size.
* offspring that are better adapted to their current environment.Correct
* offspring that are better adapted to a future environment.

A

offspring that are better adapted to their current environment.

76
Q

The theory of evolution is

Multiple Choice
* supported by multiple sources of evidence described by many different researchers, and by a variety of fields of study.
* supported by only one source of evidence described by Charles Darwin.
* supported by multiple sources of evidence described only by Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace.
* only a hypothesis that has yet to be substantiated.
* supported by many different researchers, but only in one field of study.

A

supported by multiple sources of evidence described by many different researchers, and by a variety of fields of study.

77
Q

The sugar glider in Australia and the flying squirrel in North America are both small mammals with large expanses of loose skin between their forelimbs and hindlimbs, allowing them to glide from tree to tree within their respective forest habitats. These two species are not evolutionarily related but are very similar in their overall appearance. Darwin’s explanation for their similarity is that

Multiple Choice
* both are descendants from a recent common ancestor.
* each have adapted in very similar ways to similar habitats.Correct
* the similarity of the two unrelated species is simply coincidence.
* the two species were created to have similarities.
* the two species must be related to possess such like qualities.

A

each have adapted in very similar ways to similar habitats.

78
Q

Tortoises in the Galápagos possessed neck lengths unique to each island. Neck lengths appear to be an adaptation to which selective agent?

Multiple Choice
* ease in finding pools of drinking water
* type of vegetation available to eat
* reproductive barriers used to produce offspring
* defense against predators
* male competition for females
*

A

type of vegetation available to eat

79
Q

In the context of natural selection, fitness refers to

Multiple Choice
* the variation in traits within the population.
* reproductive success.Correct
* mutations that benefit an organism’s survival.
* the physical health of an individual.
* the physical health of a population.

A

reproductive success

80
Q

________Blank structures are evidence of common ancestry, while ________Blank structures serve a similar function but are not constructed similarly, and therefore could not have a common ancestry.

Multiple Choice
* Homologous; analogousCorrect
* Analogous; homologous
* Vestigial; homologous
* Vestigial; analogous
* Homologous; vestigial

A

Homologous; analogous

81
Q

The wing of a penguin and the wing of an eagle are

Multiple Choice
* homologous structures.
* analogous structures.
* identical structures.
* vestigial structures.
* not comparable in any way.

A

homologous structures

82
Q

In regards to natural selection, which of the following individuals would be considered the most fit?

Multiple Choice
* the individual that has the longest canine teeth
* the individual that has the greatest number of breeding opportunities
* the individual that has the best camouflage to avoid predators
* the individual that controls the largest territory
* the individual that has the greatest number of offspring

A

the individual that has the greatest number of offspring

83
Q

All of the following generate genetic variation within a population except

Multiple Choice
* genetic recombination.
* independent assortment of alleles.
* meiosis.
* mutation.
* mitosis

A

mitosis

84
Q

Which of the following is an inaccurate statement regarding the requirements for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

Multiple Choice
* There can be no mutations.
* Natural selection must occur.
* Mating must be random.
* There can be no genetic.
* There must be no gene glow.

A

natural selection must occur

85
Q

Which of the following could increase genetic variation?

Multiple Choice
* natural selection
* genetic drift
* bottleneck effect
* founder effect
* mutation

A

mutation

86
Q

If the average tail size of a reptile continually got smaller through generations, this would be an example of

Multiple Choice
* disruptive selection.
* stabilizing selection.
* directional selection.
* genetic drift.
* bottleneck effect.

A

directional selection

87
Q

Which of the following is most likely to result in the formation of two distinct species?

Multiple Choice
* directional selection
* stabilizing selection
* disruptive selection
* genetic drift
* bottleneck effect

A

disruptive selection

88
Q

Analyze the accuracy of the following statement: Dominant alleles are always the most common.

Multiple Choice
* This a true statement because for every gene with two alleles, the dominant allele is always the most common,
* This is a false statement because for some genes with two alleles, the recessive allele is more common.Correct
* This is a true statement only for genes that have disease-causing alleles.
* This is a false statement because for genes that have disease-causing alleles, the recessive allele is always more common.

A

This is a false statement because for some genes with two alleles, the recessive allele is more common.

89
Q

The increase in frequency of dark phenotypes in response to increased pollution is called

Multiple Choice
* genetic drift.
* founder effect.
* industrial melanism.
* assortative mating.
* stabilizing selection.

A

industrial melanism

90
Q

A female bird-of-paradise chooses a mate based on his showy plumage and courtship dance. This is an example of

Multiple Choice
* random mating.
* assortative mating.
* sexual selection
* gene flow.
* natural selection.

A

sexual selection

91
Q

Microevolution is the term that applies to which of the following?

Multiple Choice
* evolution at any scale
* large-scale speciation events that over a long period of time
* small-scale allelic changes over a long period of time
* small-scale allelic changes over a short period of time
* changes of any scale within prokaryotes

A

small-scale allelic changes over a short period of time

92
Q

Which of the three domains contain(s) prokaryotic organisms?

Multiple Choice
* Bacteria
* Archaea
* Eukarya
* Bacteria and Archaea
* Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

A

Bacteria and Archaea

93
Q

Two species are said to be closely related if they

Multiple Choice
* possess a common ancestor.
* can interbreed but not produce fertile offspring.
* are reproductively isolated from each other.
* have a shared gene pool.
* can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

A

posses a common ancester

94
Q

Elaborate courtship behavior in animals, such as with the blue-footed boobies of the Galápagos Islands, is an example of which of the following reproductive barriers?

Multiple Choice
* behavioral isolation
* mechanical isolation
* temporal isolation
* postzygotic isolation
* hybrid sterility

A

behavioral isolation

95
Q

A reproductive barrier that prevents interbreeding because the two species mate during different times of the year is called

Multiple Choice
* hybrid sterility isolation.
* gamete isolation.
* F2 fitness isolation.
* temporal isolation.
* behavioral isolation.

A

temporal isolation

96
Q

The pollen, or sperm, from a red maple tree is unable to fertilize the eggs from a sugar maple tree. This is an example of what type of isolating mechanism?

Multiple Choice
* mechanical isolation
* habitat isolation
* temporal isolation
* hybrid sterility
* gamete isolation

A

gamete isolation

97
Q

A major difference between allopatric and sympatric speciation is whether

Multiple Choice
* the resulting species are reproductively isolated or not.
* gene flow continues to occur or not.
two or three species result.
* geographic isolation is required or not.
* the new species are separated by a prezygotic or postzygotic isolating mechanism.

A

geographic isolation is required or not

98
Q

Which of the following is an example of sympatric speciation?

Multiple Choice
* two populations of salamanders that live on isolated islands and eventually become separate species, unable to interbreed
* different breeds of dogs that live in different areas of the world but are able to produce fertile offspring
* a horse and a donkey that may interbreed to produce a mule that is sterile and unable to reproduce
* two related plant species living in the same area hybridize, then undergo chromosome doubling, which results in the creation of a third species of plant that is unable to reproduce with either of the two original species
* three species that evolve from a common ancestral species due to reproductive isolation and adaptation to different habitats

A

two related plant species living in the same area hybridize, then undergo chromosome doubling, which results in the creation of a third species of plant that is unable to reproduce with either of the two original species

99
Q

Which of the following is thought to have contributed to the many mass extinction events that have occurred throughout Earth’s history?

Check All That Apply
* plate tectonicsplate tectonics
* habitat losshabitat loss
* meteorite impactsmeteorite impacts
* continental driftcontinental drift
* the evolution of photosynthesis

A
  • plate tectonicsplate tectonics
  • habitat losshabitat loss
  • meteorite impactsmeteorite impacts
  • continental drift
100
Q

A phylogenetic tree

Multiple Choice
* indicates common ancestors.
* is based entirely on DNA evidence.
* uses analogous characteristics to determine relationships.
* indicates the geologic time scale for the evolution of a particular species.
* are no longer used in science.

A

indicates common ancestors

101
Q

Antibiotics would be effective against

Multiple Choice
* wheat rust.
* ringworm.
* athlete’s foot.
* oral thrush.
* strep throat.

A

strep throat

102
Q

The closest living relatives of land plants are

Multiple Choice
* charophytes
* chytrids.
* sporozoans.
* cyanobacteria.
* lichens.

A

charophytes

103
Q

Which structure is a characteristic found only in angiosperms?

Multiple Choice
* vascular tissue
* seed
* leaf
* flower
* megaphyll

A

flower

104
Q

By definition, a fruit is derived from the

Multiple Choice
* archegonium.
* corolla.
* calyx.
* ovary.
* stamen.

A

ovary

105
Q

The fermentation capabilities of ________ are used to produce bread and alcoholic beverages.

Multiple Choice
* yeasts
* chytrids
* lichens
* mycorrhizal fungi
* molds

A

yeasts

106
Q

In black bread mold, spores are produced in structures called

Multiple Choice
* clublike structures of the gills.
* sporangia.
* carpels.
* sori.
* mycorrhizae.

A

sporangia

107
Q

________ tissue conducts water and minerals from a plant’s roots to its leaves.

Multiple Choice
* Cuticle
* Transport
* Dermal
* VascularCorrect
*

A

vascular

108
Q

If you are studying a eukaryotic, multicellular, non-photosynthetic organism, what piece of information would be most useful in determining if it is a fungus or an animal?

Multiple Choice
* It is motile.
* It has cell walls.
* It ingests or absorbs its food.
* It has specialized tissues and organs.
* It was found in a forest.

A

it has cell walls

109
Q

Pollen grains are

Multiple Choice
* female gametophytes.
* embryonic sporophytes.
* male gametophytes.
* megaspores.
* encapsulated ovules.

A

male gametophytes

110
Q

Conifers such as pine trees are classified as

Multiple Choice
* angiosperms.
* lycophytes.
* bryophytes.
* charophytes.
* gymnosperms.

A

gymnosperms

111
Q

Which of these statements about the evolutionary tree of animals is incorrect?

Multiple Choice
* All animals have true tissues.
* All animals are multicellular.
* Humans are more closely related to sea stars than to insects.
* Radial symmetry preceded bilateral symmetry in animal evolution.
* Some animals have no germ layers, while others have two or three germ layers.

A

All animals have true tissues

112
Q

A(n) _____Blank is an individual animal that possesses both male and female sex organs.

Multiple Choice
* cephalopod
* acoelomate
* deuterostome
* larva
* hermaphrodite

A

hermaphrodite

113
Q

In protostome development,

Multiple Choice
* the blastopore becomes the anus.
* the coelom forms outpockets from the mesoderm layer of the gut.
* there is no coelom.
* the mouth forms from the second embryonic opening, not from the blastopore.
* the blastopore becomes the mouth.

A

the blastopore becomes the mouth

114
Q

The mantle, foot, and visceral mass are all parts of a(n)

Multiple Choice
* annelid.
* mollusc.
* planarian.
* tunicate.
* arthropod.

A

mollusc

115
Q

Which of these is a bivalve?

Multiple Choice
* clam
* octopus
* snail
* squid
* conch

A

clam

116
Q

Which of these is a cephalopod?

Multiple Choice
* nudibranch
* snail
* oyster
* squid
* mussel

A

squid

117
Q

Which of these worms are segmented?

Multiple Choice
* annelids
* planarians
* roundworms
* flukes
* All worms are segmented.

A

annelids

118
Q

Egg-laying mammals are known as

Multiple Choice
* marsupials.
* ectotherms.
* placental mammals.
* monotremes.
* prosimians.

A

monotremes

119
Q

Which of these is a unique characteristic of mammals?

Multiple Choice
* hair
* four-chambered heart
* extraembryonic membranes
* endothermic

A

hair

120
Q

In the replacement model of evolution, where did modern humans first evolve?

Multiple Choice
* Africa
* Asia
* Europe
* North America
* South America

A

Africa

121
Q

In animals with four-chambered hearts, the left ventricle

Multiple Choice
* is larger as it pumps blood to the entire body.
* is larger as it pumps blood in the pulmonary circuit.
* pumps blood to the lungs.
* pumps blood to both the lungs and the body.
* pumps deoxygenated blood.

A

is larger as it pumps blood to the entire body.

122
Q

Iron is required to

Multiple Choice
* stimulate the formation of lymph.
* form part of hemoglobin, which transports oxygen.
* prevent destruction of red blood cells.
* prevent plaque formation in arteries.
* form part of white blood cells.

A

form part of hemoglobin, which transports oxygen.

123
Q

Which of the following collects all the venous blood from below the heart?

  • Multiple Choice
  • pulmonary artery
  • renal vein
  • hepatic portal vein
  • aorta
  • inferior vena cava
A

Inferior vena cava

124
Q

You are a doctor and a patient comes to you for a check-up. He expresses that his father recently had a heart attack brought on by atherosclerosis. He wants to know what he should do to lower his risk of also having a heart attack. Which of the following statements might you make to him?

Multiple Choice
* Do not be concerned about your weight.
* Keep exercise to a minimum.
* Decrease the amount of fruits and vegetables in your diet.
* Decrease the amount of saturated fat and cholesterol in your diet.
* Smoking does not contribute to your risk.

A

Decrease the amount of saturated fat and cholesterol in your diet.

125
Q

A neutrophil is a type of

Multiple Choice
* white blood cell
* red blood cell.
* platelet.
* erythrocyte.
* cardiac muscle cell.

A

white blood cell

126
Q

A neutrophil

Multiple Choice
* fights disease.
* forms a plug in damaged blood vessels.
* carries oxygen in the blood.
* releases clotting factors which stimulate the formation of a blood clot.
* carries carbon dioxide in the blood.

A

fights disease

127
Q

A lower-than-normal level of _____Blank can result in an increased clotting time.

Multiple Choice
* platelets
* basophils
* neutrophils
* erythrocytes
* lymphocytes

A

platelets

128
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?

Multiple Choice
* transport substances
* defend the body against infection
* regulate body temperature
* form clots
* produce new red blood cells

A

produce new red blood cells

129
Q

You are a doctor and an individual comes into your office. During the routine exam, you listen to the patient’s heart sounds and notice that the first heart sound or “lub” is not as sharp or crisp as it should be. Your diagnosis of the patient’s condition is

Multiple Choice
* atherosclerosis.
* a heart murmur.
* angina pectoris.
* thromboembolism.
* hypertension.

A

a heart murmur

130
Q

Pulmonary arteries take

Multiple Choice
* O2-poor blood to the lungs.
* O2-rich blood to the lungs.
* O2-rich blood to the body.
* O2-poor blood to the right atrium.
* O2-poor blood to the body.

A

O2-poor blood to the lungs.

131
Q

Which of these carry(ies) oxygen-poor blood?
Group of answer choices

cerebral arteries

pulmonary arteries

aorta

coronary arteries

A

pulmonary arteries

132
Q

All of the following are primates EXCEPT _____.
Group of answer choices

gorillas

humans

kangaroos

lemurs

A

kangaroos

133
Q

The tapeworm is a(n) ______.
Group of answer choices

tunicate

flatworm

chordate

annelid

A

flatworm

134
Q

The tricuspid valve can also be called the _____.
Group of answer choices

aortic semi lunar valve

left atrioventricular valve

right atrioventricular valve

mitral valve

A

right atrioventricular valve

135
Q

Which animals have a cylindrical body that is tapered at both ends?
Group of answer choices

Annelids

Platyhelminthes

Cnidarians

Roundworms

A

roundworms

136
Q

Oxygen is mostly transported through the body by the _____.
Group of answer choices

WBCs

platelets

RBCs

albumin

A

RBC’S

137
Q

When a blood vessel is damaged, what allows the bleeding to stop?
Group of answer choices

RBCs

albumin

WBCs

platelets

A

PLATELETS

138
Q

Unique feature of vertebrates include the presence of a(n) ________.

Group of answer choices

endoskeleton

backbone

pharyngeal slit

notochord

A

backbone

139
Q

Features unique to mammals include _____.
Group of answer choices

being endotherms

extended parental care of the young

having no egg-laying members

the presence of hair and mammary glands

A

the presence of hair and mammary glands

140
Q

Sharks and rays are a type of ________.
Group of answer choices

cartilaginous fish

jawless fish

tunicate

bony fish

A

cartilaginous fish

141
Q

Which of these fishes migrated out of freshwater and adapted to life on land?
Group of answer choices

ray finned fish

jawless fish

lobe finned fish

cartilaginous fish

A

love finned fish

142
Q

What does the term “tetrapod” mean?
Group of answer choices

double life

4 feet

having a pouch

eye laying

A

4 legged

143
Q

A characteristic that is shared by snakes and birds is _______
Group of answer choices

they lay eggs

being ectothermic

being endothermic

the presence of only a single ovary in females

A

they lay eggs

144
Q

Which of these chordates is not a vertebrate?
Group of answer choices

bird

echinoderm

shark

lancelet

A

lancelet

145
Q

The leech is a(n) _____.
Group of answer choices

annelid

flatworm

tunicate

chordate

A

annelid

146
Q

The platypus is a(n) _____.
Group of answer choices

bird

monotreme

marsupial

eutherian

A

monotreme

147
Q

Where did humans first appear?
Group of answer choices

Europe

Asia

South America

Africa

A

Africa

148
Q

All of the following are reptiles EXCEPT _____.
Group of answer choices

birds

lizards

crocodiles

salamanders

A

salamander

149
Q

Nearly all ________ are aquatic
Group of answer choices

crustaceans

roundworms

arachnids

flatworms

A

crustaceans

150
Q

Histamine is found in _____.
Group of answer choices

neutrophils

eosinophils

basophils

monocytes

A

basophilis

151
Q

White blood cells help us _____.
Group of answer choices

assisting in blood clotting

carry carbon dioxide

defend against foreign invaders

by supporting the activity of the red blood cells

A

defend against foreign invaders

152
Q

A bacterial infection would show an increase in _____.
Group of answer choices

monocytes

neutrophils

eosinophils

basophils

A

neutrophils

153
Q

How do sponges differ from all other animals?
Group of answer choices

Sponges lack true issues

Sponges are autotrophs

Sponges exhibit radial symmetry

Sponges lack a true body cavity

A

lack true issues

154
Q

A(n) _____ is an example of a mollusc that does not have a shell
Group of answer choices

mussel

octopus

snail

oyster

A

octopus

155
Q

The valve located between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the ________.
Group of answer choices

aortic SL valve

pulmonary SL valve

mitral valve

tricuspid valve

A

mitral valve

156
Q

The valve located between the right atrium and the right ventricle is the _______.
Group of answer choices

bicuspid valve

tricuspid valve

aortic SL valve

mitral valve

A

tricuspid valve

157
Q

The octopus is a(n) ______.
Group of answer choices

arthropod

cephalopod

gastropod

bivale

A

cephalopod

158
Q

All veins carry blood away from the heart.
Group of answer choices

True

False

A

false

159
Q

________ are the most diverse and most numerous group of arthropods.

Group of answer choices

Millipedes

Insects

Arachnids

Crustaceans

A

insects

160
Q

Which statement best describes arteries?
Group of answer choices

All carry blood away from the heart

All carry oxygenated blood

All are thinner than veins

All carry deoxygenated blood

A

all carry blood away from the heart

161
Q

The pulmonary vein carries oxygen rich blood away from the heart.
Group of answer choices

True

False

A

false

162
Q

Where does the right side of the heart pump blood to _____
Group of answer choices

lungs

kidney

skeletal muscles

liver

A

lungs

163
Q

_______ are characterized by stinging cells used for defense and for capturing prey
Group of answer choices

Annelids

Sponges

Cnidarians

Roundworms

A

cnidarians

164
Q

An infestation with parasitic worms would show an increase in _____.
Group of answer choices

basophils

monocytes

lymphocytes

eosinophils

A

eosinophils

165
Q

Which are most closely related to humans?
Group of answer choices

chimpanezees

lemurs

orangutans

gorillas

A

chimpanezees

166
Q

Which of these exhibits radial symmetry?
Group of answer choices

butterfly

shoe box

spoon

Ferris wheel

A

ferris wheel

167
Q

The arthropod skeleton is composed of ________.
Group of answer choices

cellulose

glycogen

chitin

peptidoglycan

A

chitin

168
Q

The sea slug is a(n) _____.
Group of answer choices

mollusc

flatworm

chordate

annelid

A

mollusc

169
Q
A
170
Q

All of the following are insects except _____.
Group of answer choices

beetles

centipedes

butterflies

praying mantis

A

centipedes

Anatomy Boot Camp (8 decks)

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