Boot Camp 2.2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does autonomic mean?

A

“self-governed”

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2
Q
  • Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) is _ of our will
  • ANS regulates what?
  • What is it also called?
A
  • Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) is independent of our will
  • ANS regulates fundamental states and life processes such as heart rate, BP, and body temperature
  • Also called visceral motor system
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3
Q

Walter Cannon coined what terms ?

A

terms “homeostasis” and the “flight-or-fight”
– Animals without ANS cannot survive on their own (must be kept
warm and stress-free)

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4
Q

What are visceral reflexes?

A

unconscious, automatic, stereotyped responses to stimulation involving visceral receptors and effectors

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5
Q

What are the components of the visceral arc?

A

i. Receptors: nerve endings that detect stretch, tissue damage, blood chemicals, body temperature, and other internal stimuli
ii. Afferent neurons: lead to CNS
iii. Integrating center: interneurons in the CNS
iv. Efferent neurons: carry motor signals (via ANS) away from the CNS
v. Effectors: carry out end response

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6
Q

Explain the example of the visceral reflex: baroreflex?

A
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7
Q

Two divisions often innervate same target organ: what are their effects?

A

– May have cooperative or contrasting effects

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8
Q

What is the sympathetic and parasympathetic division?

A
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9
Q

What is autonomic tone?

A

normal background rate of activity that represents the balance of the two systems according to the body’s needs

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10
Q

What is the parasympathetic and sympathetic tone?

A

– Parasympathetic tone
* Maintains smooth muscle tone in intestines
* Holds resting heart rate down to about 70 to 80 beats/minute
– Sympathetic tone
* Keeps most blood vessels partially (no parasym) constricted and maintains blood pressure

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11
Q

Sympathetic division does what to the heart and digestive/urinary function?

A

Sympathetic division excites the heart but inhibits digestive and urinary function, while parasympathetic has the opposite effect

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12
Q

What is the difference between the somatic and autonomic efferent pathways?

A
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13
Q

Sensory receptors transmit four kinds of information, what are they?

A

Modality, location, intensity and duration

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14
Q

What is modality and what are examples?

A

Modality – type of stimulus or sensation it produces
* e.g. vision, hearing, taste

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15
Q
  • What does location mean with receptors?
  • What is a receptive field?
A

Location – encoded by which nerve fibers are firing
* Receptive field: area within which a sensory neuron detects stimuli

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16
Q

what is intensity of a receptor? How can the brain distinguish stimulus?

A

Intensity – strength of stimulus
* Brain can distinguish stimulus intensity by:
i. Which fibers are sending signals
ii. How many fibers are doing so
iii. How fast these fibers are firing

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17
Q

What is the duration of a receptor? What is sensory adaption?

A
  • Duration — how long the stimulus lasts
  • Sensory adaptation: if a stimulus is prolonged, firing of the neuron gets slower over time
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18
Q

What are Three ways to classify receptors?

A
  1. By receptor modality (specialized structure)
  2. By receptor location
  3. By receptor complexity
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19
Q

What are the different receptors classifed by modality?

A

Mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors, photreceptors, chemoreceptors, nociceptors

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20
Q

What are mechanoreceptors?

A

respond to touch, pressure, vibration, stretch, and itch

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21
Q

What are thermoreceptors?

A

sensitive to changes in temperature

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22
Q

What are photoreceptors?

A

respond to light energy (retina)

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23
Q

What are chemoreceptors?

A

respond to chemicals (smell, taste, changes in blood chemistry)

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24
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

sensitive to pain-causing stimuli

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25
Wha are the receptors that are classified by location?
exteroceptor, interoceptors (visceroreceptors), proprioceptors
26
What are exteroceptors?
– Respond to stimuli arising outside the body – Receptors in the skin for touch, pressure, pain, and temperature – Most special sense organs
27
What are Interoceptors (visceroreceptors)?
– Respond to stimuli arising inside the body
28
What are proprioceptors?
Stretch receptors in muscles, tendons, ligaments, joints and connective tissues
29
What receptors are classified by structural complexity?
Complex receptors and simple receptors
30
What are complex receptors?
* Special sense organs * Vision, hearing, equilibrium, smell, and taste
31
What are simple receptors? What are different types?
-**For general senses** -Tactile sensations (touch, pressure, stretch, vibration), temperature, pain, and muscle sense * Unencapsulated (free/naked) * Encapsulated dendritic endings
32
Receptors for the general senses are what?
relatively simple in structure and physiology
33
What are unencapsulated nerve endings that lack connective tissue wrappings? (3) And their features
34
What are encapsulated nerve endings? What does wrapping do?
Encapsulated nerve endings are wrapped by glial cells or connective tissue. Wrapping **enhances** sensitivity or selectivity of response
35
What are encapsulated nerve endings? and their features
36
What are the chemical senses?
37
For gustatory (taste) receptors, what do food molecules need to do?
* Need to be dissolved in saliva to be able to bind to receptors
38
To be tasted, molecules must dissolve in _ and flood the taste pore
saliva
39
What are the five primary sensations?
1. Salty 2. Sweet 3. Umami (“meaty” taste) 4. Sour 5. Bitter
40
What is the pathway that taste buds take?
41
What are the only neurons in the body directly exposed to the external environment?
Olfactory receptors (CN1)
42
Olfactory mucosa (reflected): * How big? * How many cells? * What is present? * How many odors are distinguished?
* About 5 cm2 * 10 to 20 million olfactory cells (neurons) * Also epithelial supporting cells and basal stem cells * On average 2,000 to 4,000 odors distinguished
43
What are basal cells?
Divide and differentiate to replace olfactory cells
44
What are the olfactory projection pathways? what are the secondary destinations?
* Action potentials reach primary olfactory cortex in the inferior surface of the temporal lobe * Secondary destinations: hippocampus, amygdala, hypothalamus, insula, and orbitofrontal cortex Identify odors, integrate with taste, evoke **memories**, emotions, and visceral reactions
44
What is hearing? Where are the receptors?
* a response to vibrating air molecules * receptors in outer, inner and middle
45
What is equilibrium? where are receptors?
* the sense of motion, body orientation, and balance * just inner eat
46
Where do both hearing and equilibrium reside in?
Both senses reside in the **inner ear**, a maze of fluid-filled passages and sensory cells
47
What does the fluid filled passages do?
Fluid is set in motion and the sensory cells **convert** this motion into an informative pattern of action potentials
48
49
Label and what is the difference?
* Pediatric: the tube is more flat-> more ear infections * Adult: tube is more down-> better draining
50
What is the bony labyrinth?
Inner ear * passageways in temporal bone
51
What is the membranous labyrinth? What is it filled and floating in?
**fleshy tubes** lining bony labyrinth * Filled with endolymph: similar to intracellular fluid * Floating in perilymph: similar to cerebrospinal fluid | INNER EAR
52
What is the labyrinth?
vestibule and three semicircular ducts (**equilibrium** receptors)
53
What is the cochlea?
organ of **hearing**
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What is the physiology of hearing?
57
What is the auditory projection pathway?
58
What is equilibrium?
Co-ordination, balance, and orientation in 3-D space
59
What is the vestibular apparatus (receptors for equilibrium)?
Three semicircular ducts * Detect only angular acceleration Two chambers * Anterior saccule and posterior utricle – Responsible for static equilibrium and linear acceleration
60
61
What is the static equilibrium?
when head is tilted, heavy otolithic membrane sags, bending the stereocilia and stimulating the hair cells
62
What is dynamic equilibrium?
* In car, linear acceleration detected as otoliths lag behind, bending the stereocilia and stimulating the hair cells * Because macula sacculi is nearly vertical, it responds to vertical acceleration and deceleration
63
The Semicircular Ducts: * What are these? * Each duct is filled with what? * Each ampulla contains what?
* Rotary movements detected by the three semicircular ducts * Each duct is filled with endolymph and opens up as a dilated sac (ampulla) * Each ampulla contains crista ampullaris
64
What is the crista ampullaris?
Consists of **hair cells** with stereocilia and a kinocilium buried in a mound of gelatinous membrane called the cupula (one in each duct) – Spatial orientation of canals causes ducts to be stimulated by rotation in different planes
65
What are the vestibular projection pathways?
66
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What is the visual projection pathway?
70
71
What is blood plasma? What is it made up of?
Straw colored, viscous 90% **water** 10% solutes * nutrients * gases-> CO2+O2 * salts * hormones-> water soluble or fat with carrier * proteins ## Footnote * 55% of whole blood * Least dense component
72
What are the three major categories of plasma proteins?
Albumins, globulins (antibodies), fibrinogen
73
What is albumin?
* smallest and most abundant * contribute to viscosity and osmolarity-> water balance * influence blood pressure, flow, and fluid balance * transport lipid solube hormones
74
What are globulins (antibodies)?
provide immune system functions
75
What is fibrinogen?
Precursor of fibrin threads that help form blood clots
76
# **** What is serum?
Identical to plasma except for the absence of fibrinogen
77
Formed elements: * originate where? * What does it not do? * Survive how long? * Where?
* originate in bone marrow (**hematopoiesis**) * do not divide * survive in the blood only a few days * In spongy bones
78
What are the three classes of formed elements?
1. Erythrocytes-> 120 days 2. Leukocytes 3. Platelets
79
What are the different WBCs?
80
Hematopoiesis: * Occurs in? * Where in body?
* Occurs in red bone marrow * Red bone marrow of axial skeleton, girdles and proximal epiphyses of humerus and femur
81
What are the hemocytoblasts? What do they give rise to? What push cells towards a specific path?
* Hematopoietic stem cells (pluripotent stem cells) * Give rise to **all formed elements** * Hormones and growth factors push the cell toward a specific pathway of blood cell development
82
What are characterisitics of erythrocytes?
83
What is the function of erythrocytes? What binds reversibly with oxygen?
* RBC: dedicated to respiratory gas transport * Hemoglobin binds **reversibly** with oxygen
84
What does hemeglobin consist of? What does heme contain?
85
What is the transport of oxygen?
– 98.5 % in hemoglobin (binds with **iron** of heme group) – 1.5 % dissolved in plasma.
86
The association of O2 and hemoglobin is affected by (3)
* pH * Temperature * pO2 and pCO2
87
What is the transport of Carbon dioxide?
– 7 % dissolved in plasma, – 23 % in hemoglobin (binds with globin) – 70 % as **bicarbonate ions** (HCO3−)
88
What is erythropoiesis? How long is development and lifespan?
89
* What is the direct stimulus for erythropoiesis? What is it released by?
Erythropoietin (EPO) * Released by the kidneys in response to hypoxia
90
What is the hormonal control of erythropoiesis?
91
What is the destruction of erythrocytes?
92
What are antibodies for blood called?
agglutinins
93
What is agglutination?
– Antibody molecule binding to antigens – Causes clumping of red blood cells if mismatch
94
What is the universal donor? What is lacked? What does donor's plasma have?
– Type O: **most common** blood type – Lacks RBC antigens – Donor’s plasma may have both antibodies against recipient’s RBCs (anti-A and anti-B)
95
What is the universal recipient? What is lacked?
– Type AB: **rarest** blood type – Lacks plasma antibodies; no anti-A or anti-B
96
97
Explain the transfusion reaction
98
when was the Rh group discovered?
Rh (C, D, E) agglutinogens discovered in rhesus monkey in 1940
99
* Rh D is what? * How does Rh vary?
– Rh D is the most reactive and a patient is considered **blood type Rh+** if having D antigen on RBCs – Rh frequencies vary among ethnic groups
100
What are the two different groups of WBC and the subgroups?
* **Granulocytes**: neutrophils (50-70%), Eosinophils (2-4%), Basophils (0.5-1%) * **Agranulocytes**: lymphocytes (25-45%) and monocytes (3-8%)
101
What are neutrophils? What do they look like?
Neutrophils (60% to 70%): polymorphonuclear leukocytes * Barely visible granules in cytoplasm; three- to five - lobed nucleus
102
What does eosinophils look like?
Eosinophils (2% to 4%) * Large rosy -orange granules; bilobed nucleus
103
What do basophils look like?
Basophils (less than 1%) * Large, abundant, violet granules (obscure a large S-shaped nucleus)
104
What do lymphocytes look like?
Lymphocytes (25% to 33%) * Variable amounts of bluish cytoplasm (scanty to abundant); ovoid/round , uniform dark violet nucleus
105
What do monocytes look like?
Monocytes (3% to 8%) * Usually largest WBC; ovoid, kidney-, or horseshoe-shaped nucleus
106
What is the lineage of WBCs?
107
Platelets: * What are they also called? * What are they? * Required for what?
* Also called **Thrombocytes** * Small fragments of megakaryocytes * Required for **blood clotting**
108
What do granules of platelets contain?
* Serotonin-> vasoconstriction * Ca2+-> clot casude * Enzymes * ADP * Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)-> repair lining
109
What is thrombopoiesis? What is it regulated by?
* Platelet formation * Formation is regulated by thrombopoietin
110
What is hemostasis?
The cessation of bleeding – Stopping potentially fatal leaks – Hemorrhage: excessive bleeding
111
What are the three hemostatic mechanisms?
1. Vascular spasm 2. Platelet plug formation 3. Blood clotting (coagulation) | * Platelets play an important role in all three