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Anatomy Boot Camp > Boot Camp 2.2 > Flashcards

Boot Camp 2.2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does autonomic mean?

A

“self-governed”

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2
Q
  • Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) is _ of our will
  • ANS regulates what?
  • What is it also called?
A
  • Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) is independent of our will
  • ANS regulates fundamental states and life processes such as heart rate, BP, and body temperature
  • Also called visceral motor system
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3
Q

Walter Cannon coined what terms ?

A

terms “homeostasis” and the “flight-or-fight”
– Animals without ANS cannot survive on their own (must be kept
warm and stress-free)

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4
Q

What are visceral reflexes?

A

unconscious, automatic, stereotyped responses to stimulation involving visceral receptors and effectors

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5
Q

What are the components of the visceral arc?

A

i. Receptors: nerve endings that detect stretch, tissue damage, blood chemicals, body temperature, and other internal stimuli
ii. Afferent neurons: lead to CNS
iii. Integrating center: interneurons in the CNS
iv. Efferent neurons: carry motor signals (via ANS) away from the CNS
v. Effectors: carry out end response

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6
Q

Explain the example of the visceral reflex: baroreflex?

A
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7
Q

Two divisions often innervate same target organ: what are their effects?

A

– May have cooperative or contrasting effects

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8
Q

What is the sympathetic and parasympathetic division?

A
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9
Q

What is autonomic tone?

A

normal background rate of activity that represents the balance of the two systems according to the body’s needs

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10
Q

What is the parasympathetic and sympathetic tone?

A

– Parasympathetic tone
* Maintains smooth muscle tone in intestines
* Holds resting heart rate down to about 70 to 80 beats/minute
– Sympathetic tone
* Keeps most blood vessels partially (no parasym) constricted and maintains blood pressure

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11
Q

Sympathetic division does what to the heart and digestive/urinary function?

A

Sympathetic division excites the heart but inhibits digestive and urinary function, while parasympathetic has the opposite effect

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12
Q

What is the difference between the somatic and autonomic efferent pathways?

A
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13
Q

Sensory receptors transmit four kinds of information, what are they?

A

Modality, location, intensity and duration

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14
Q

What is modality and what are examples?

A

Modality – type of stimulus or sensation it produces
* e.g. vision, hearing, taste

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15
Q
  • What does location mean with receptors?
  • What is a receptive field?
A

Location – encoded by which nerve fibers are firing
* Receptive field: area within which a sensory neuron detects stimuli

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16
Q

what is intensity of a receptor? How can the brain distinguish stimulus?

A

Intensity – strength of stimulus
* Brain can distinguish stimulus intensity by:
i. Which fibers are sending signals
ii. How many fibers are doing so
iii. How fast these fibers are firing

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17
Q

What is the duration of a receptor? What is sensory adaption?

A
  • Duration — how long the stimulus lasts
  • Sensory adaptation: if a stimulus is prolonged, firing of the neuron gets slower over time
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18
Q

What are Three ways to classify receptors?

A
  1. By receptor modality (specialized structure)
  2. By receptor location
  3. By receptor complexity
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19
Q

What are the different receptors classifed by modality?

A

Mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors, photreceptors, chemoreceptors, nociceptors

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20
Q

What are mechanoreceptors?

A

respond to touch, pressure, vibration, stretch, and itch

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21
Q

What are thermoreceptors?

A

sensitive to changes in temperature

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22
Q

What are photoreceptors?

A

respond to light energy (retina)

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23
Q

What are chemoreceptors?

A

respond to chemicals (smell, taste, changes in blood chemistry)

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24
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

sensitive to pain-causing stimuli

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25
Q

Wha are the receptors that are classified by location?

A

exteroceptor, interoceptors (visceroreceptors), proprioceptors

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26
Q

What are exteroceptors?

A

– Respond to stimuli arising outside the body
– Receptors in the skin for touch, pressure, pain, and
temperature
– Most special sense organs

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27
Q

What are Interoceptors (visceroreceptors)?

A

– Respond to stimuli arising inside the body

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28
Q

What are proprioceptors?

A

Stretch receptors in muscles, tendons, ligaments, joints and connective tissues

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29
Q

What receptors are classified by structural complexity?

A

Complex receptors and simple receptors

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30
Q

What are complex receptors?

A
  • Special sense organs
  • Vision, hearing, equilibrium, smell, and taste
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31
Q

What are simple receptors? What are different types?

A

-For general senses
-Tactile sensations (touch, pressure, stretch, vibration), temperature, pain, and muscle sense
* Unencapsulated (free/naked)
* Encapsulated dendritic endings

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32
Q

Receptors for the general senses are what?

A

relatively simple in structure and physiology

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33
Q

What are unencapsulated nerve endings that lack connective tissue wrappings? (3) And their features

A
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34
Q

What are encapsulated nerve endings? What does wrapping do?

A

Encapsulated nerve endings are wrapped by glial cells or connective tissue. Wrapping enhances sensitivity or selectivity of response

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35
Q

What are encapsulated nerve endings? and their features

A
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36
Q

What are the chemical senses?

A
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37
Q

For gustatory (taste) receptors, what do food molecules need to do?

A
  • Need to be dissolved in saliva to be able to bind to receptors
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38
Q

To be tasted, molecules must dissolve in _ and flood the taste pore

A

saliva

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39
Q

What are the five primary sensations?

A
  1. Salty
  2. Sweet
  3. Umami (“meaty” taste)
  4. Sour
  5. Bitter
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40
Q

What is the pathway that taste buds take?

A
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41
Q

What are the only neurons in the body directly exposed to the external environment?

A

Olfactory receptors (CN1)

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42
Q

Olfactory mucosa (reflected):
* How big?
* How many cells?
* What is present?
* How many odors are distinguished?

A
  • About 5 cm2
  • 10 to 20 million olfactory cells (neurons)
  • Also epithelial supporting cells and basal stem cells
  • On average 2,000 to 4,000 odors distinguished
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43
Q

What are basal cells?

A

Divide and differentiate to replace olfactory cells

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44
Q

What are the olfactory projection pathways? what are the secondary destinations?

A
  • Action potentials reach primary olfactory cortex in the inferior surface of the temporal lobe
  • Secondary destinations: hippocampus, amygdala, hypothalamus, insula, and orbitofrontal cortex Identify odors, integrate with taste, evoke memories, emotions, and visceral reactions
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44
Q

What is hearing? Where are the receptors?

A
  • a response to vibrating air molecules
  • receptors in outer, inner and middle
45
Q

What is equilibrium? where are receptors?

A
  • the sense of motion, body orientation, and balance
  • just inner eat
46
Q

Where do both hearing and equilibrium reside in?

A

Both senses reside in the inner ear, a maze of fluid-filled
passages and sensory cells

47
Q

What does the fluid filled passages do?

A

Fluid is set in motion and the sensory cells convert this motion into an informative pattern of action potentials

48
Q
A
49
Q

Label and what is the difference?

A
  • Pediatric: the tube is more flat-> more ear infections
  • Adult: tube is more down-> better draining
50
Q

What is the bony labyrinth?

A

Inner ear
* passageways in temporal bone

51
Q

What is the membranous labyrinth? What is it filled and floating in?

A

fleshy tubes lining bony labyrinth
* Filled with endolymph: similar to intracellular fluid
* Floating in perilymph: similar to cerebrospinal fluid

INNER EAR

52
Q

What is the labyrinth?

A

vestibule and three semicircular ducts (equilibrium receptors)

53
Q

What is the cochlea?

A

organ of hearing

54
Q
A
55
Q
A
56
Q

What is the physiology of hearing?

A
57
Q

What is the auditory projection pathway?

A
58
Q

What is equilibrium?

A

Co-ordination, balance, and orientation in 3-D space

59
Q

What is the vestibular apparatus (receptors for equilibrium)?

A

Three semicircular ducts
* Detect only angular acceleration

Two chambers
* Anterior saccule and posterior utricle
– Responsible for static equilibrium and linear acceleration

60
Q
A
61
Q

What is the static equilibrium?

A

when head is tilted, heavy otolithic membrane sags, bending the stereocilia and stimulating the hair cells

62
Q

What is dynamic equilibrium?

A
  • In car, linear acceleration detected as otoliths lag behind,
    bending the stereocilia and stimulating the hair cells
  • Because macula sacculi is nearly vertical, it responds to vertical acceleration and deceleration
63
Q

The Semicircular Ducts:
* What are these?
* Each duct is filled with what?
* Each ampulla contains what?

A
  • Rotary movements detected by the three semicircular ducts
  • Each duct is filled with endolymph and opens up as a dilated sac
    (ampulla)
  • Each ampulla contains crista ampullaris
64
Q

What is the crista ampullaris?

A

Consists of hair cells with stereocilia and a kinocilium buried in a mound of gelatinous membrane called the cupula (one in each duct)
– Spatial orientation of canals causes ducts to be stimulated by rotation in different planes

65
Q

What are the vestibular projection pathways?

A
66
Q
A
67
Q
A
68
Q
A
69
Q

What is the visual projection pathway?

A
70
Q
A
71
Q

What is blood plasma? What is it made up of?

A

Straw colored, viscous
90% water
10% solutes
* nutrients
* gases-> CO2+O2
* salts
* hormones-> water soluble or fat with carrier
* proteins

  • 55% of whole blood
  • Least dense component
72
Q

What are the three major categories of plasma proteins?

A

Albumins, globulins (antibodies), fibrinogen

73
Q

What is albumin?

A
  • smallest and most abundant
  • contribute to viscosity and osmolarity-> water balance
  • influence blood pressure, flow, and fluid balance
  • transport lipid solube hormones
74
Q

What are globulins (antibodies)?

A

provide immune system functions

75
Q

What is fibrinogen?

A

Precursor of fibrin threads that help form blood clots

76
Q

**

What is serum?

A

Identical to plasma except for the absence of fibrinogen

77
Q

Formed elements:
* originate where?
* What does it not do?
* Survive how long?
* Where?

A
  • originate in bone marrow (hematopoiesis)
  • do not divide
  • survive in the blood only a few days
  • In spongy bones
78
Q

What are the three classes of formed elements?

A
  1. Erythrocytes-> 120 days
  2. Leukocytes
  3. Platelets
79
Q

What are the different WBCs?

A
80
Q

Hematopoiesis:
* Occurs in?
* Where in body?

A
  • Occurs in red bone marrow
  • Red bone marrow of axial skeleton, girdles and proximal epiphyses of humerus and femur
81
Q

What are the hemocytoblasts? What do they give rise to? What push cells towards a specific path?

A
  • Hematopoietic stem cells (pluripotent stem cells)
  • Give rise to all formed elements
  • Hormones and growth factors push the cell toward a
    specific pathway of blood cell development
82
Q

What are characterisitics of erythrocytes?

A
83
Q

What is the function of erythrocytes? What binds reversibly with oxygen?

A
  • RBC: dedicated to respiratory gas transport
  • Hemoglobin binds reversibly with oxygen
84
Q

What does hemeglobin consist of? What does heme contain?

A
85
Q

What is the transport of oxygen?

A

– 98.5 % in hemoglobin (binds with iron of heme group)
– 1.5 % dissolved in plasma.

86
Q

The association of O2 and hemoglobin is affected by (3)

A
  • pH
  • Temperature
  • pO2 and pCO2
87
Q

What is the transport of Carbon dioxide?

A

– 7 % dissolved in plasma,
– 23 % in hemoglobin (binds with globin)
– 70 % as bicarbonate ions (HCO3−)

88
Q

What is erythropoiesis?
How long is development and lifespan?

A
89
Q
  • What is the direct stimulus for erythropoiesis? What is it released by?
A

Erythropoietin (EPO)
* Released by the kidneys in response to hypoxia

90
Q

What is the hormonal control of erythropoiesis?

A
91
Q

What is the destruction of erythrocytes?

A
92
Q

What are antibodies for blood called?

A

agglutinins

93
Q

What is agglutination?

A

– Antibody molecule binding to antigens
– Causes clumping of red blood cells if mismatch

94
Q

What is the universal donor? What is lacked? What does donor’s plasma have?

A

– Type O: most common blood type
– Lacks RBC antigens
– Donor’s plasma may have both antibodies against recipient’s RBCs (anti-A and anti-B)

95
Q

What is the universal recipient? What is lacked?

A

– Type AB: rarest blood type
– Lacks plasma antibodies; no anti-A or anti-B

96
Q
A
97
Q

Explain the transfusion reaction

A
98
Q

when was the Rh group discovered?

A

Rh (C, D, E) agglutinogens discovered in rhesus monkey in 1940

99
Q
  • Rh D is what?
  • How does Rh vary?
A

– Rh D is the most reactive and a patient is considered blood type Rh+ if having D antigen on RBCs
– Rh frequencies vary among ethnic groups

100
Q

What are the two different groups of WBC and the subgroups?

A
  • Granulocytes: neutrophils (50-70%), Eosinophils (2-4%), Basophils (0.5-1%)
  • Agranulocytes: lymphocytes (25-45%) and monocytes (3-8%)
101
Q

What are neutrophils? What do they look like?

A

Neutrophils (60% to 70%): polymorphonuclear leukocytes
* Barely visible granules in cytoplasm; three- to five - lobed nucleus

102
Q

What does eosinophils look like?

A

Eosinophils (2% to 4%)
* Large rosy -orange granules; bilobed nucleus

103
Q

What do basophils look like?

A

Basophils (less than 1%)
* Large, abundant, violet granules (obscure a large S-shaped nucleus)

104
Q

What do lymphocytes look like?

A

Lymphocytes (25% to 33%)
* Variable amounts of bluish cytoplasm (scanty to abundant); ovoid/round , uniform dark violet nucleus

105
Q

What do monocytes look like?

A

Monocytes (3% to 8%)
* Usually largest WBC; ovoid, kidney-, or horseshoe-shaped nucleus

106
Q

What is the lineage of WBCs?

A
107
Q

Platelets:
* What are they also called?
* What are they?
* Required for what?

A
  • Also called Thrombocytes
  • Small fragments of megakaryocytes
  • Required for blood clotting
108
Q

What do granules of platelets contain?

A
  • Serotonin-> vasoconstriction
  • Ca2+-> clot casude
  • Enzymes
  • ADP
  • Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)-> repair lining
109
Q

What is thrombopoiesis? What is it regulated by?

A
  • Platelet formation
  • Formation is regulated by thrombopoietin
110
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

The cessation of bleeding
– Stopping potentially fatal leaks
– Hemorrhage: excessive bleeding

111
Q

What are the three hemostatic mechanisms?

A
  1. Vascular spasm
  2. Platelet plug formation
  3. Blood clotting (coagulation)

* Platelets play an important role in all three

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