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Mod 1 > Mod 1 Farm (Lectures) > Flashcards

Mod 1 Farm (Lectures) Flashcards

1
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

How the drug concentrations change over time as they are moved through the body

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2
Q

What are the 4 principles to pharmacokinetics?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Elimination

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3
Q

What does po stand for

A

Oral administration

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4
Q

What does sl stand for?

A

Sublingual absorption

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5
Q

What does pr stand for?

A

rectal administration

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6
Q

What is the difference between enteral and parenteral routes of absorption?

A

enteral is through GI tract
parenteral is outside GI tract

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7
Q

What is the abbreviation IM?

A

Intramuscular

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8
Q

What is the abbreviation IV?

A

Intravenous

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9
Q

What is the abbreviation IC?

A

Intracoronary

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10
Q

What is the abbreviation sc or sq?

A

subcutaneous

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11
Q

What type of molecules pass trough the cell membrane easily through passive diffusion

A

lipid soluble

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12
Q

Which types of molecules can only cross through aqueous channels with passive diffusion

A

H20 molecules

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13
Q

If a molecule cannot pass through lipid membrane or aqueous channels what does it need to pass?

A

A carrier protein or active transport

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14
Q

A molecule needs to be ____ soluble to pass through GI tract

A

H20

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15
Q

Why might a drug have an enteric coating? Where are enteric coatings are dissolved?

A

To avoid side effects in the stomach
small intestine

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16
Q

What type of drug is slowly absorbed

A

Sustained Release

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17
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

percent of drug that gets into systemic circulation

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18
Q

Drugs given through ___ will have a 1st pass. What is 1st pass?

A

GI
a % of the drug that is eliminated through gut or liver before it reaches systemic circulation

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19
Q

What kind of drug administration will have no 1st pass

A

IV

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20
Q

Where are drugs primarily stored and can serve as a reservoir?

A

Adipose tissue

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21
Q

What is the storage site for toxic agents like heavy metal and lead

A

bone

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22
Q

What organs may drugs be stored in?

A

liver and kidney

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23
Q

What organ does most of drug metabolism

A

the liver

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24
Q

Where are most drugs excreted from

A

kidneys

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25
Q

What is steady state

A

holding constant blood level, have to take medication at routine times

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26
Q

What is the difference between agonist and antagonist?

A

The agonist stimulate a receptor and enhances a physiological effect (has affinity and efficacy)
The antagonist inhibits a receptor and decreases physiological effect (has affinity, NO efficacy)

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27
Q

What is potency? What does it mean if a drug has a higher potency?

A

Potency is the amount of drug required to achieve an effect
If a drug is more potent, it can be given in a smaller dose to have same effect

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28
Q

Aspirin and perastine,
P2Y12 inhibitors – plavix (clopidogrel) Brilinto (ticagrelor)
are all ____

A

Anti-platelets

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29
Q

What do anti platelets do

A

inhibit platelet aggregation

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30
Q

tPA
TNKase (tanectase)
Retevase (reteplase) are all types of

A

Thrombolytics

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31
Q

Convert plasminogen to plasmin

A

Thrombolytics

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32
Q

What might you use for DVT fast

A

IV heparin

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33
Q

Heparin, coumadin, and direct Xa inhibitors are all examples of

A

Anti-coagulants

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34
Q

What drugs are thrombin inhibitors
influence thrombin from converting fibrinogen –> fibrin

A

Anti-coagnulants

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35
Q

What anti clotting might someone with valve disease, afib, and increase risk for DVT might be put on

A

coumadin

36
Q

What anti clotting drug might someone with nonvalvular Afib and VTE might be put on

A

Direct Oral Anticoagulants

37
Q

What do you use to monitor Heparin and Coumadin

A

aPTT 60-80s (?)

38
Q

Diuretics are used to treat

A

hypertension

39
Q

What class of drugs increases renal excreation of H20 and Na+ in order to decrease BP

A

Diuretics

40
Q

What loop diuretic might be given to someone to manage CHF/pulmonary edema

A

Lasix (furosenide)

41
Q

What thiazide diuretic is given first line for patients who are black

A

Hydrodiuril (hydrochlorothiazide)

42
Q

What are the side effects of anti-hypertensive drugs

A

hypotension, dehydration, ototoxicity, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia

43
Q

how do Sympatholytic Drugs (B Blockers and A blockers) influence HR, heart contractility, and sympathetic influence

A

Decrease

44
Q

What is the SE of blocking B2 receptors, why is this bad for diabetics?

A

decrease glucogenesis and glucagon secretion and might mask symptoms of hypoglycemia
people with DM will get selective BB

45
Q

why would you not give a patient with CHF a sympatholytic drug

A

it decreases myocardial contractility

46
Q

What kind of drug dilates peripheral vasculature by inhibiting smooth muscle contraction

A

Vasodilators

47
Q

Apresoline (hydrazoline) is a ____ which will _____

A

arterial dilator
decrease BP

48
Q

What kind of drug decreased BP by inhibiting actin/myosin coupling in smooth muscle

A

Calcium Channel blockers

49
Q

_______ (a type of Ca channel blocker): Norvasc (amlodipine) and Procardia (nifedipine) will ___ RHR and MHR and decrease BP

A

Dyhydropyramines
increase

50
Q

_____ (type fo Ca channel blocker): Diltiazem, Verapamil will __ RHR, and ___ conduction through the AV node

A

Benzothiazepines
decrease
slow

51
Q

Benicar (olmesartan)
Cozaar (losartan)
Diovan (valsartan)
What kind of anti-hypertensive drug?

A

Angiotensin REceptor Blockers (ARBs)

52
Q

How do ARBs work

A

block the action of angiotensin II (a constrictor) –> vasodilation

53
Q

Capoten (captopril)
Vasotec (enalapril)
Altace (ramipril)
Zestril (lisinopril)
are what type of drugs

A

Angiotensin- converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

54
Q

How do ACE inhibitors work?

A

inhibits the enzyme that converts ang I to ang II so no ang II is made. ACE inhibitors block ACE from breaking down bradykinin
bradykinin vasodilates

55
Q

ACE is a vaso___
Bradykinin is a vaso___

A

vasoconstrictor
vasodilator

56
Q

ACE inhibitors are frequently combined with a ___ or ___ for antihypertensive action

A

diuretic or B blocker

57
Q

What drugs decrease myocardial demand

A

B Blockers
Ca Channel Blockers
Nitrates

58
Q

What drugs decrease angina

A

Nitrates
B Blockers
Calcium Channel Blockers

59
Q

What is the most common drug given for angina

A

nitrates

60
Q

what is the best choice drug to give to someone with angina from coronary vasospasm

A

Calcium channel blockers (they dec spasm)

61
Q

HMG-CoA reReductase inhibitors (statins) are what kind of drug

A

Anti - hyperlipidemic

62
Q

How does lipitor (simvastatin) and Zocor (atorvastatin) work?

A

decrease production of cholesterol

63
Q

What are the adverse effects of statins

A

myopathy
liver function abnormalities
cataracts
tendinopathy
inc risk of DM II in women

64
Q

What 2 drugs together may cause profound weakness and myopathy?

A

high doses of triglyceride meds (fibric acids) and statins

65
Q

What might someone go on if they can’t tolerate a statin

A

Ezetimide (zetia) or PCSK9 inhibitors

66
Q

How does Ezetimide (zetia) work?

A

inhibits cholesterol absorption from GI tract

67
Q

how does Pralvent (alirocrumab) and Repatha (evolocumab) work? How is it administered?

A

Works on cholesterol clearance by binding to protein PCSK9 to receptor on liver
IV

68
Q

What do Fibric Acids (clofibrate and gemfibrozel) do?

A

Decrease trigliceride levels

69
Q

What drugs together increase the risk of statin myopathy?

A

Statins + Fibric Acids

70
Q

What are the 4 classes of Anti-Arrhythmics

A

1: Sodium channel blockers
2: B Blockers
3: Drugs that prolong repolarization
4: Calcium Channel Blockers

71
Q

Pronestyl (procainamide)
Quinidex (quinidine)
mexitil (mexilitine)
What kind of drugs are they and how are they an anti-arrhythmic

A

sodium channel blockers:
decrease cell membrane excitability in cardiac cycle by inhibiting the Na Channels

72
Q

What parts of the cardiac cycle do the Sodium channel blockers influence

A

P wave

73
Q

tenormil (atenolol)
corgard (nadolol)
What kind of drugs are they and how do they work as anti-arrythmics

A

B Blockers:
decrease SNS response, decrease automaticity, prolong the refractory period

74
Q

What is common to give someone with Afib and Aflutter

A

Beta Blockers

75
Q

What part of the cardiac cycle are B Blockers influencing?

A

T wave are, the refractory period

76
Q

Cordarone (amiodarone)
Bretylot (bretylium)
What kind of drugs are they and how do they work for anti-arrhythmic

A

Drugs that prolong repolarization
they prevent a new depolarization

77
Q

Which anti-arrhythmic drug is most effective for ventricular dysrrhythmis and supreventricular dysrhythmia

A

Drugs that prolong repolaization (aminodarone and bretylium)

78
Q

Calan (verapamil)
Cardizem (diltizem)
What kind of drugs are they and how do they work as an anti-arrhythmic

A

Calcium channel blockers
they alter excitability of cardiac tissue by inhibiting Ca movement in cardiac cycle

79
Q

What phase of the cardiac cycle are the calcium channel blockers influencing

A

(s-t)

80
Q

What drugs are common to give to someone for rapid rhythms and superventricular tachycardia

A

calcium channel blockers

81
Q

Pressors cause ___
Inotropes cause ___

A

vasoconstriction
inc myocardial contractility

82
Q

Why would someone be put on pressors or inotropes

A

Their very sick, their BP is very low so the meds will maintain their BP, prevent hypotension, and maintain cardiac output

83
Q

Norepinepharine and vasopressin are examples of ____
dobutamine, dopamine, and milrinone are examples of ___

A

pressors
inotropes

84
Q

What drugs significant decrease the risk of cardiovascular death/hospitalization in pts with heart faliure?

A

SGL2 (sodium glucose co-transport) Inhibitors

85
Q

Jardiance (empagliflozin)
Farxiga (dapagliflozen)
What kind of drugs are they and how do they help?

A

SGL2 inhibitors
Decrease risk of hospitalization and death with CVD both with preserved and reduced ejection fracture

Mod 1 (7 decks)

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