MLT 125 Exam IV

Question 1

Which blood group system is associated with resistance to malaria?

Answer 1

Duffy

P. vivax, P. knowleri

Question 2

Which antibodies are considered cold agglutinins?

Answer 2

M,N,I,P

Question 3

Which autoantibody specificity is associated with Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria and what test that was discussed in lecture is used to detect it?

Answer 3

autoanti-P

Donath-Landsteiner

Question 4

Which antigens are destroyed by enzymes and which are enhanced by enzymes?

Answer 4

Destroyed; Duffy, M, N, S

Enhanced; Kidd, Rh, Lewis, I, i, P

Question 5

What procedure might help you distinguish between an anti-Fyᵃ and an anti-Jkᵃ?

Answer 5

ficin treated panel

Jk’a enhanced, Fy’a destroyed

Question 6

Which blood group is produced in the tissues?

Answer 6

Lewis

Question 7

What is the McLeod phenotype?

Answer 7

absence of Kx antigen

Question 8

Which of the antibodies from the other blood group systems discussed for this exam require the antiglobulin test (AHG) for in vitro detection?

Answer 8

Kidd
Kell
Duffy
M,N - all phases
S, s
Lutheran

Question 9

What is the rarest phenotype of the Lutheran system?

Answer 9

Lu(a-b-)

Question 10

Which antigen is X-linked?

Answer 10

Xg’a

Question 11

Which antibody is often found in patients with infectious mono, lymphoproliferative disease, and cold agglutinins?

Answer 11

anti-i

Question 12

Which antibodies are known for causing delayed HTR?

Answer 12

Kidd

Question 13

Fy(a-b-) is found primarily in what type of population?

Answer 13

68% african americans

FyFy, malarial resistant

Question 14

Which antigen is found primarily in South Central and North American Indians and Asians?

Answer 14

Di’a

Diego

Question 15

Which blood group systems are known for showing dosage

Answer 15

M, N, Duffy, Rh, Kidd, S

Question 16

What is the most common antibody seen in the BB besides ABO and Rh antibodies

Answer 16

anti-K

Question 17

Which blood group antigen increases in strength as a newborn grows older?

Answer 17

i increases to I

Question 18

Can a patient with blood group Ss be immunized by genotype SS, Ss, or ss?

Answer 18

No, inherited each gene

Question 19

Which antigens are actually WBC antigens that are expressed in variable degrees on red blood cells and can cause confusing reactions in serological test?

Answer 19

Bg

Question 20

Which antigens are well-developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, and generally saline reactive?

Answer 20

M, N

Question 21

Name 3 most common antibodies that most likely to react at 37◦C?

Answer 21

anti-D
anti-E
anti-K

Question 22

What is the most practical manner for preventing transmission of malaria by blood transfusion?

Answer 22

don’t accept blood from donor from endemic malarial area

Question 23

List the reasons a prospective donor might be permanently rejected for donation of blood products.

Answer 23

AIDS
Hepatitis
IV drug users

Question 24

List the reasons a prospective donor might be temporarily deferred and for how long.

Answer 24

12 months
tattoo
piercing
vaccines

6 months
pregnancy
miscarriage

Question 25

Can unused autologous be placed in the general supply and used for another patient other than who it was intended?

Answer 25

NO | *different criteria/screening requirements*

Question 26

Explain the difference between plasmapheresis, cytapheresis, and plateletpheresis.

Answer 26

remove plasma-separation collection of cells remove platelets - separation

Question 27

Explain the significance of why donor units should be tested for a weak D antigen.

Answer 27

weak D is Rh positive; cannot donate Rh pos to Rh neg recipient

Question 28

What are the two terms used to refer to AHG that contains both anti-complement and anti-IgG?

Answer 28

broad spectrum | polyspecific

Question 29

A transfusion that replaces approximately a patient’s blood volume within a 24 hour period is called what kind of transfusion?

Answer 29

massive transfusion

Question 30

When a physician signs an order for uncrossmatched blood and accepts full responsibility for the transfusion of such products, this is referred to as _________________ ________________?

Answer 30

emergency release

Question 31

Why are homozygous cells used for “ruling out”?

Answer 31

dosage-showing antibody

Question 32

Why should a patient’s serum/plasma for compatibility testing be stored?

Answer 32

in case of any concern; transfusion reactions, misidentified patient

Question 33

Leukocyte antibodies are usually responsible for what type of transfusion reaction?

Answer 33

Febrile

Question 34

Which blood bank test detects in vitro sensitization?

Answer 34

IAT

Question 35

Explain how the shelf life for blood is determined.

Answer 35

70% viability after transfusion; usually within 24 hours

Question 36

What is the purpose of the albumin/LISS portion of an antibody screen or crossmatch?

Answer 36

to detect IgG abtibodies

Question 37

A positive DAT would give you what kind of information on the patient?

Answer 37

RBC's are coated with gamma and/or beta globulins

Question 38

A patient that has had multiple transfusions is most likely to have what type of transfusion reaction?

Answer 38

Febrile

Question 39

What does CPDA stand for? What is the shelf life of a unit of blood with CPDA-1 as the anticoagulant? What is the shelf life of as unit with the additive AS-1?

Answer 39

Citrate phosphate dextrose adenine 35 days 42 days

Question 40

How often should a new recipient sample be collected if a series of transfusions are to be administered over a period of several days?

Answer 40

3 days

Question 41

Incomplete antibodies are usually Ig___?

Answer 41

IgG | *blocking*

Question 42

What does it mean to perform a major crossmatch?

Answer 42

donor cells and recipients plasma are tested for compatibility

Question 43

Cells are “washed” how many times in an antibody screen? What is the purpose of doing this?

Answer 43

3 times | prevent neutralization of AHG by the globulins

Question 44

What is therapeutic phlebotomy and why is it used? Give two diseases or conditions in which this might be used.

Answer 44

blood letting; remove blood from pt with certain conditions polycythemia hemochromatosis porphyrias

Question 45

What type of transfusion is it when a recipient serves as his/her own donor?

Answer 45

autologous

Question 46

What is the “three in, three out” rule? Why is this used?

Answer 46

when doing Ab panels and you suspect a specific Ag, pick 3 bottles of cells that are pos for the Ag and 3 bottles that are neg, then test against the plasma to confirm ID of Ab

Question 47

Explain an antibody screen: why and when is it done, what are the stages of the screen, what happens if it is positive, and why is there a control?

Answer 47

Done prior to transfusion to detect clinically significant Ab's IS, 37, AHG, CC if positive run Ab panel AC, detects in vivo sensitization

Question 48

Explain TRALI.

Answer 48

Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury | caused by leukocyte Ab in plasma that leak into lungs; leading cause of transfusion related deaths

Question 49

What is a directed or specific donation?

Answer 49

blood intended for specific recipient

Question 50

Anti-Dia

Answer 50

Diego

Question 51

Anti-Sc2

Answer 51

Scianna

Question 52

Anti-Xga

Answer 52

Xg

Question 53

Anti-Cob

Answer 53

Colton

Question 54

Anti-Ch3

Answer 54

Chodo rogers

Question 55

Anti-Ge3

Answer 55

Gerbich

Question 56

If you do an antibody panel and all cells are positive, including the control, what should be the first thing you should think of may be causing the problem?

Answer 56

Warm or Cold autoAb | 1-6 degree Celsius