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MLT 125-Immunohematology > MLT-125 Exam 2 > Flashcards

MLT-125 Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best temperature range for cold agglutinins to develop?

A

0-5 degrees C

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2
Q

Give 3 examples of infections that may cause cold agglutinins to develop.

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae
IM
Primary atypical pneumoniae

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3
Q

Small quantities of Ag is injected in hypersensitive pt at closely spaced intervals to help build tolerance to an ordinarily shocking dose w/o severe rxn.

A

desensitization

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4
Q

Briefly explain Grave’s disease

A

increased T3 and T4 and decreased or absent TSH(thyroid stimulating hormone); goiter, weight loss, tachycardia

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5
Q

Explain what the reactions mean in a hemagglutination inhibition test

A

= agglutination

+ lack of agglutination; pt AB present

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6
Q

Within which organ is it thought that potentially self-reactive lymphocytes are removed?

A

Thymus

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7
Q

The Nichols strain of T. pallidum is used in what type of testing?

A

FTA-ABS

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8
Q

When do serum tests for syphilis usually become reactive?

A

primary chancre; 1st and 3rd weeks

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9
Q

In secondary syphilis, would the serological tests performed to detect syphilis be +, =, have no diagnostic value, or are they not performed in that stage? How long after treatment does the serological test become nonreactive?

A

Serological tests are +

12 months

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10
Q

The secondary stage of syphilis occurs how many weeks after the appearance of the primary chancre?

A

6-8 weeks

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11
Q

Name the three pharmacologically active mediators of anaphylaxis

A

Histamines
Eosinophil Chemotactic Factors of Anaphylaxis(ECF-A)
Proteolytic enzymes(tryptase,chymase)

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12
Q

What stage of syphilis is usually noncontagious?

A

Latent stage

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13
Q

P24 is a viral antigen that is the first to be detected in which potentially deadly virus?

A

HIV

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14
Q

Name three means of transmission of the HIV virus?

A

intimate sexual contact
contact with blood or body fluids
perinatally from infected mother to infant

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15
Q

Needles that dispense antigen for the VDRL test must be calibrated to deliver how much? How often should the needle be QC’d?

A

1/60 of a mL

each time test is performed

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16
Q

T. pallidum crosses the placents in which week of gestation?

A

18th

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17
Q

What does the FTA-ABS test identify in the patient’s serum? What does the fluorescein labeled antihuman globulin do for the purposes of interpreting this test?

A

identifies treponemal Ab

makes Ag-Ab rxn visible

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18
Q

In the direct fluorescent antibody test, the____ is “labeled” with fluorescent dye.

A

Antibody

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19
Q

The serum is inactivated to destroy complement in the VDRL or RPR?

A

VDRL

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20
Q

Give 5 examples of an autoimmune disease and describe whether it is organ-specific and, if so, which organs are affected or if it is systemic.

A 
Addisons - organ; adrenal glands
MS - organ; myelin sheaths on nerves
Lupus - systemic; skin, joints, kidney, brain, heart, lungs
RA - both- joints, lungs, skin
Grave's - organ; thyriod
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21
Q

A flat bottomed bottle is required in the VDRL or RPR?

A

VDRL

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22
Q

Explain a flocculation test and give examples of this type of testing.

A

a very specific type of precipitation that occurs over a narrow range of antigen concentration; RPR VDRL

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23
Q

The VDRL or the RPR is always read macroscopically?

A

RPR

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24
Q

A modified VDRL antigen is used in what type of testing?

A

RPR

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25
Q

Name some synonyms for Type B viral hepatitis.

A

serum hepatitis
Hep B
HBV

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26
Q

The initial primary lesion that develops on the external genitalia in syphilis.

A

Chancre

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27
Q

The rotator speed for RPR should be ___rpm?

A

100 rpm; 180 rpm on VDRL

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28
Q

Why do you get false negative results with a postzone reaction?

A

excess Ag; may obscure the presence of a small amount of Ab

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29
Q

The antibody to tissue lipids is called ___?

A

reagin

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30
Q

Why would you get false negative results with a prozone reaction?

A

Ab excess; not enough Ag to cause precipitation

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31
Q

Ag and Ab are precipitated to a maximum; number of multivalent sites of Ag and Ab are aprox. equal. Reversible reactions where Ab bind with more than on Ag and vice versa, forming lattice.

A

Zone of equivalence

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32
Q

What is tannic acid used for in serological testing?

A

allows proteins to complex with RBC as antigen carriers

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33
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reaction that results from the buildup of Ab to animal serum used in passive immunization.

A

Serum sickness

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34
Q

How does the Western blot test differ from ELISA tests?

A

ELISA is a screening test that identifies any Ab to HIV

Western blot identifies specific Ag for confirmatory testing

35
Q

An Ab that causes clumping or agglutination of the cells that triggered its formation.

A

Agglutinin

36
Q

Why is cholesterol added to the antigen that is used in the flocculation test for syphilis?

A

center of absorption for tissue lipids; so agglutinated particles can be visualized

37
Q

T or F Treating a pregnant woman with syphilis does not cure the fetus.

A

False; can cure fetus

38
Q

T or F Congential, primary and secondary syphilis are best treated by repeated doses of penicillin.

A

False; single shot

39
Q

T or F Treatment does not alter any tissue damage that has already occurred.

A

True

40
Q

T or F It is necessary to get repeated blood tests for 5 years following treatment.

A

False

41
Q

T or F Tertiary syphilis cannot be treated.

A

False

42
Q

Loss of self tolerance results in what type of disease?

A

Autoimmune

43
Q

Explain cross reactivity and what kind of results it can lead to.

A

Ag that are closely related in structure can provide false positive results

44
Q

The presence of anti-double stranded DNA can distinguish RA from what other autoimmune disease?

A

Lupus

45
Q

Combining soluble Ag with soluble Ab to produce insoluble complexes that are visible.

A

Precipitation

46
Q

Recent experiences or exposure to group A hemolytic Strep can be detected when there are high or steadily increasing concentrations of what in a patient’s serum?

A

anti-streptolysin-O

47
Q

A life threatening response to an allergen characterized by the systemic release of histamine.

A

Anaphylaxis

48
Q

What is a xenograft? Also know as what?

A

heterograft; the transfer of tissue from an individual of one species to an individual of another species

49
Q

Transplanting from one individual to a genetically nonidentical person of the same species is called what?

A

Allograft or Homograft

50
Q

A delayed hypersensitivity reaction caused by T-cell sensitization to low molecular weight compounds; such as nickel and rubber, that come into contact with the skin
Exposure to metals, antibiotics, dyes, poison ivy

A

Contact dermatitis

51
Q

Which type of test is most widely used to detect HIV?

A

ELISA

52
Q

Which hepatitis is the most virulent? Why is Hep C more dangerous than Hep B?

A

Hep C
85% of Hep C infected develop chronic infection, only 10% in Hep B infected
2 out of 3 infected become carriers that can transmit

53
Q

What is the first antigen to appear in the serum of a person infected with HBV?

A

HBsAg

54
Q

How is Hepatitis A transmitted?

A

fecal-oral route

55
Q

The only Hypersensitiity Type that involves T-Cells?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

56
Q

T or F Testing for the p24 antigen would be useful as a screening test for blood products?

A

False

57
Q

On average, it takes __to__ weeks for an individual to develop antibodies after exposure to HIV?

A

6 to 12

58
Q

What antibody appears in the serum of individuals that have recovered from Hepatitis B or who have received the Hepatitis B vaccinations?

A

HBsAg

Anti-HBsAg

59
Q

Which form of Hepatitis is responsible for the most post-transfusion reactions?

A

Hep C

60
Q

If a patient has an immune response to his/her own IgG, they would most likely have a positive or negative RA test?

A

Positive +

*IgG is in RA
IgM is in RF

61
Q

Which set of antigens would be represented on a positive Western blot?

A

gp41 and gp120

62
Q

The antigen in a precipitin reaction must be _____?

A

soluble

63
Q

What does ANA stand for? How is testing for this useful?

A

Antinuclear Antibody

found in 95% of lupus patients

64
Q

What does HLA stand for and why is it important?

A

Human Leukocyte Antigen

for survival of transplant tissue and organs

65
Q

Which hepatitis virus requires HBV infection?

A

Hep D

66
Q

When discussing EBV and infectious mono, name the primary mode of transmission. What % of lymphs would you expect to see as atypical on a peripheral blood smear? Which malignancy has been associated with EBV?

A

salivary secretions
10%
Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkins disease

67
Q

Which virus have most people been exposed to by their elderly years?

A

CMV - cytomegalovirus

68
Q

Name some examples of antiretroviral drug therapies. How do they work?

A

Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Protease inhibitors
Fusion inhibitors
Coreceptor antagonist and integrase inhibitors

By blocking various steps of virus replication

69
Q

Which cells are the main target for the HIV virus? Why?

A

T-cells

high number of CD4 antigen - serves as a receptor for the virus

70
Q

What is one method for determining the progression to the AIDS stage of HIV infection. How is this done (the gold standard)?

A

CD4 T-cell enumeration of less than 200 uL

Gold standard for testing is Flow Cytometry

71
Q

Shingles is essentially a re-emergence of what virus?

A

VZV - Varicella-Zoster Virus; chicken pox

72
Q

Regarding HIV transmission, which specimens are not considered infectious unless visibly blood?

A 
Saliva
Sputum
Nasal secretions
Tears
Sweat
Urine
Vomitus
Feces
73
Q

In the HIV virus, what is reverse transcriptase responsible for doing? Name the gene that codes for the enzymes necessary for HIV replication.

A

Transcribes viral RNA into DNA

pol gene; namely p66 and p51

74
Q

Briefly describe the latency period of HIV infection. What is the median length of time this can last?

A

decrease in viremia
clinical symptoms are subtle or absent
gradual deterioration of immune system
Median length of approx 10 years

75
Q

Symptoms of primary infection of HIV are similar to symptoms from what other virus?

A

Infectious Mono; fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, myalgia, fatigue, weight loss…

76
Q

List the advantages and disadvantages of chemiluminescent assays

A

ADVANTAGES:
Excellent sensitivity
Reagents are stable and relatively nontoxic
Inexpensive
Faster turnaround time
DISADVANTAGES:
False results possible from lack of precision in injection of the hydrogen peroxide
Urine and plasma may cause quenching of the light emission

77
Q

Measure of cloudiness of a solution; measures reduction of light intensity due to reflection, scatter and absorption

A

Turbidimetry

78
Q

Measures light that is scattered at a particular angle from the incident beam as it passes through a suspension.

A

Nephlometry

79
Q

The antibody that is rheumatoid factor belongs to which Ig class?

A

IgM

80
Q

What is the test anti-CCP and what is it used for?

A

CCP - Cyclic citrillunated peptide

lead marker for RA, more sensitive than RF

81
Q

RPR

A

Rapid Plasma Reagin

82
Q

VDRL

A

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory

83
Q

Radiation
Chemicals
Viruses
Disease processes
5-10% of acute cases progress to chronic infection
1/3 of chronic infections have high risk of chronic active hepatitis, liver cirrhosis &/or liver cancer

A

Causative agents of Hepatitis

MLT 125-Immunohematology (6 decks)

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